a) Melting of ice
b) Cutting paper
c) Burning of wood
d) Boiling water
Answer: c) Burning of wood

2. What is the process of converting a solid directly into gas called?

a) Melting
b) Sublimation
c) Evaporation
d) Condensation
Answer: b) Sublimation

3. Which type of reaction takes place when an acid reacts with a base?

a) Combination reaction
b) Double displacement reaction
c) Displacement reaction
d) Neutralization reaction
Answer: d) Neutralization reaction

4. When a magnesium ribbon is burnt in air, it combines with oxygen to form:

a) Magnesium nitrate
b) Magnesium oxide
c) Magnesium hydroxide
d) Magnesium carbonate
Answer: b) Magnesium oxide

5. The rusting of iron is an example of:

a) Combination reaction
b) Displacement reaction
c) Decomposition reaction
d) Redox reaction
Answer: d) Redox reaction

6. What is the product obtained when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid?

a) Zinc chloride and hydrogen gas
b) Zinc hydroxide and hydrogen gas
c) Zinc oxide and hydrogen gas
d) Zinc sulphate and hydrogen gas
Answer: a) Zinc chloride and hydrogen gas

7. What is the chemical formula for water?

a) HO
b) H2O
c) O2H
d) H2O2
Answer: b) H2O

8. Which gas is produced during the reaction between an acid and a metal?

a) Oxygen gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen gas
d) Carbon dioxide gas
Answer: c) Hydrogen gas

9. What is the product obtained when copper carbonate is heated?

a) Copper oxide and carbon dioxide
b) Copper sulphate and carbon dioxide
c) Copper chloride and carbon dioxide
d) Copper nitrate and carbon dioxide
Answer: a) Copper oxide and carbon dioxide

10. What is the general equation for a combustion reaction?

a) Acid + Base → Salt + Water
b) Metal + Acid → Salt + Hydrogen gas
c) Hydrocarbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + Water
d) Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + Water
Answer: c) Hydrocarbon + Oxygen → Carbon dioxide + Water

11. Which gas is produced during the reaction of calcium with water?

a) Oxygen gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen gas
d) Carbon dioxide gas
Answer: c) Hydrogen gas

12. What is the law of conservation of mass?

a) Energy is conserved during a chemical reaction
b) The total mass of reactants is equal to the total mass of products in a chemical reaction
c) The total volume of reactants is equal to the total volume of products in a chemical reaction
d) The total number of atoms remains the same in a chemical reaction
Answer: b) The total mass of reactants is equal to the total mass of products in a chemical reaction

13. When a metal displaces hydrogen gas from an acid, the reaction is called:
a) Combination reaction
b) Displacement reaction
c) Decomposition reaction
d) Redox reaction
Answer: b) Displacement reaction

14. What happens when an antacid is mixed with vinegar?

a) A neutralization reaction occurs
b) A combustion reaction occurs
c) A precipitation reaction occurs
d) No reaction occurs
Answer: a) A neutralization reaction occurs

15. Which type of reaction is observed when a substance breaks down into simpler substances?

a) Combination reaction
b) Displacement reaction
c) Decomposition reaction
d) Redox reaction
Answer: c) Decomposition reaction

16. What is the product obtained when hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide?

a) Sodium chloride and water
b) Sodium hydroxide and water
c) Sodium chloride and hydrogen gas
d) Sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas
Answer: a) Sodium chloride and water

17. Which gas is produced during the reaction between an acid and a carbonate?

a) Oxygen gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen gas
d) Carbon dioxide gas
Answer: d) Carbon dioxide gas

18. What is the product obtained when lead nitrate reacts with potassium iodide?

a) Lead chloride and potassium nitrate
b) Lead iodide and potassium nitrate
c) Lead iodide and potassium chloride
d) Lead sulphate and potassium iodide
Answer: c) Lead iodide and potassium chloride

19. What does the arrow represent in a chemical equation?

a) Addition
b) Subtraction
c) Equals
d) Yields
Answer: d) Yields

20. What is the product obtained when sulfuric acid reacts with calcium carbonate?

a) Calcium chloride and water
b) Calcium sulphate and water
c) Calcium sulphate and carbon dioxide
d) Calcium hydroxide and carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Calcium sulphate and carbon dioxide

21. Which of the following is an example of a precipitation reaction?

a) Burning of paper
b) Photosynthesis
c) Rusting of iron
d) Mixing of silver nitrate and sodium chloride
Answer: d) Mixing of silver nitrate and sodium chloride

22. What is the product obtained when zinc oxide is heated?

a) Zinc and oxygen
b) Zinc chloride and water
c) Zinc nitrate and water
d) Zinc oxide does not decompose when heated
Answer: a) Zinc and oxygen

23. Which of the following substances is a reducing agent?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Water
d) Hydrogen
Answer: d) Hydrogen

24. What is the product obtained when sodium reacts with water?

a) Sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas
b) Sodium chloride and hydrogen gas
c) Sodium oxide and hydrogen gas
d) Sodium sulphide and hydrogen gas
Answer: a) Sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas

25. Which gas is produced during the reaction of zinc with dilute sulphuric acid?

a) Oxygen gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen gas
d) Carbon dioxide gas
Answer: c) Hydrogen gas

26. What type of compound is formed when hydrogen combines with chlorine?

a) Acid
b) Base
c) Salt
d) Oxide
Answer: c) Salt

27. What is the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric
acid?

a) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + HO
b) 2NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
c) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2
d) 2NaOH + HCl → Na2Cl + HO
Answer: b) 2NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O

28. Which of the following substances is considered an acid?

a) Sugar
b) Vinegar
c) Soap
d) Salt
Answer: b) Vinegar

29. What type of reaction is represented by the chemical equation: 2Mg + O2 → 2MgO?

a) Combination reaction
b) Displacement reaction
c) Decomposition reaction
d) Redox reaction
Answer: a) Combination reaction

30. Which of the following is an example of a combustion reaction?

a) Burning of paper
b) Mixing of baking soda and vinegar
c) Rusting of iron
d) Melting of ice
Answer: a) Burning of paper

31. What is the product obtained when sodium hydrogencarbonate is heated?

a) Sodium carbonate and water
b) Sodium chloride and water
c) Sodium oxide and water
d) Sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide
Answer: d) Sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide

32. Which metal is found in the liquid state at room temperature?

a) Sodium
b) Iron
c) Mercury
d) Aluminium
Answer: c) Mercury

33. What is the product obtained when barium chloride reacts with sodium sulphate?

a) Barium chloride and sodium sulphate
b) Barium sulphate and sodium chloride
c) Barium sulphate and sodium sulphate
d) Barium chloride and sodium chloride
Answer: b) Barium sulphate and sodium chloride
34. What happens when calcium oxide is added to water?
a) A neutralization reaction occurs
b) A combustion reaction occurs
c) A precipitation reaction occurs
d) A thermal decomposition reaction occurs
Answer: a) A neutralization reaction occurs

35. Which gas is produced during the reaction between zinc and dilute hydrochloric acid?

a) Oxygen gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen gas
d) Carbon dioxide gas
Answer: c) Hydrogen gas

36. What is the product obtained when sodium carbonate reacts with hydrochloric acid?

a) Sodium chloride and water
b) Sodium hydroxide and water
c) Sodium chloride and carbon dioxide
d) Sodium hydroxide and carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Sodium chloride and carbon dioxide

37. Which gas is produced during photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen gas
d) Carbon dioxide gas
Answer: a) Oxygen gas

38. What is the product obtained when calcium oxide reacts with water?

a) Calcium hydroxide
b) Calcium chloride
c) Calcium carbonate
d) Calcium sulphate
Answer: a) Calcium hydroxide

39. Which gas turns lime water milky?

a) Oxygen gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen gas
d) Carbon dioxide gas
Answer: d) Carbon dioxide gas

40. What is the product obtained when nitric acid reacts with copper?

a) Copper nitrate and water
b) Copper oxide and water
c) Copper chloride and water
d) Copper sulphate and water
Answer: a) Copper nitrate and water

41. What type of compound is formed when a metal reacts with a non-metal?

a) Acid
b) Base
c) Salt
d) Oxide
Answer: c) Salt

42. What is the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between hydrochloric acid and potassium hyd
roxide?

a) HCl + KOH → KCl + HO
b) 2HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O
c) HCl + KOH → KCl + H2
d) 2HCl + KOH → K2Cl + HO
Answer: b) 2HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O

43. Which of the following solutions would turn blue litmus paper red?

a) Acidic solution
b) Basic solution
c) Neutral solution
d) No color change
Answer: a) Acidic solution

44. What is the product obtained when silver nitrate reacts with sodium chloride?

a) Silver chloride and sodium nitrate
b) Silver nitrate and sodium chloride
c) Silver chloride and sodium chloride
d) Silver nitrate and sodium nitrate
Answer: a) Silver chloride and sodium nitrate

45. Which gas is produced during the reaction between magnesium and steam?

a) Oxygen gas
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Hydrogen gas
d) Carbon dioxide gas
Answer: c) Hydrogen gas

46. What is the product obtained when sulphur dioxide reacts with water?

a) Sulphuric acid
b) Sulphurous acid
c) Sulphur trioxide
d) Sulphur dioxide does not react with water
Answer: b) Sulphurous acid

47. What is the product obtained when potassium reacts with water?

a) Potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas
b) Potassium chloride and hydrogen gas
c) Potassium oxide and hydrogen gas
d) Potassium sulphide and hydrogen gas
Answer: a) Potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas

48. Which of the following substances is considered a base?

a) Sugar
b) Vinegar
c) Soap
d) Salt
Answer: c) Soap

49. What type of reaction occurs when a metal reacts with an acid to produce a salt and hydrogen gas?

a) Combination reaction
b) Displacement reaction
c) Decomposition reaction
d) Redox reaction
Answer: b) Displacement reaction

50. What is the product obtained when sulphuric acid reacts with zinc carbonate?

a) Zinc sulphate and water
b) Zinc chloride and water
c) Zinc sulphate and carbon dioxide
d) Zinc chloride and carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Zinc sulphate and carbon dioxide

Chapter 2 Acids, Bases, and Salts

1. What is the pH scale used to measure?

a) Acidity and basicity
b) Temperature
c) Volume
d) Density
Answer: a) Acidity and basicity

2. Which of the following substances is acidic in nature?

a) Lemon juice
b) Milk
c) Water
d) Sugar
Answer: a) Lemon juice

3. Which acid is present in apples?

a) Citric acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Lactic acid
d) Sulfuric acid
Answer: a) Citric acid

4. Bases produce ________ ions in aqueous solutions.

a) Hydroxide (OH-)
b) Hydronium (H3O+)
c) Carbonate (CO3-2)
d) Nitrate (NO3-)
Answer: a) Hydroxide (OH-)

5. Which of the following substances is not a base?

a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Ammonia
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Calcium hydroxide
Answer: c) Hydrochloric acid

6. What color does phenolphthalein indicator turn in a basic solution?

a) Pink
b) Red
c) Yellow
d) Colorless
Answer: a) Pink

7. What happens when an acid reacts with a metal?

a) Salt and water are formed
b) Carbon dioxide is formed
c) Oxygen gas is evolved
d) Hydrogen gas is released
Answer: d) Hydrogen gas is released

8. Which gas is evolved when a metal carbonate reacts with an acid?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

9. Which of the following is a strong acid?

a) Vinegar
b) Lemon juice
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Milk
Answer: c) Sulfuric acid

10. Which base is commonly used in making soap?

a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Calcium hydroxide
c) Potassium hydroxide
d) Ammonium hydroxide
Answer: a) Sodium hydroxide

11. Which acid is present in ant bites and stings?

a) Formic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Ascorbic acid
d) Acetic acid
Answer: a) Formic acid

12. Which of the following is a mineral acid?

a) Citric acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Hydrochloric acid
d) Lactic acid
Answer: c) Hydrochloric acid

13. Which acid is found in sour milk?

a) Lactic acid
b) Nitric acid
c) Phosphoric acid
d) Butyric acid
Answer: a) Lactic acid

14. What happens when an acid reacts with a metal oxide?

a) Salt and water are formed
b) Carbon dioxide is produced
c) Oxygen is evolved
d) Hydrogen gas is released
Answer: a) Salt and water are formed

15. Which of the following is a weak base?

a) Sodium hydroxide
b) Ammonia
c) Potassium hydroxide
d) Calcium hydroxide
Answer: b) Ammonia

16. What type of compound is formed when a base reacts with an acid?

a) Salt
b) Oxide
c) Acid
d) Alkali
Answer: a) Salt

17. Which gas is produced when an acid reacts with a metal sulfide?

a) Hydrogen sulfide
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a) Hydrogen sulfide

18. What is the pH of a neutral solution?

a) 7
b) 0
c) 14
d) Varies
Answer: a) 7

19. Which gas is liberated when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

20. Which substance is commonly used as an antacid?

a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Sodium chloride
c) Sodium carbonate
d) Sodium hydroxide
Answer: a) Sodium bicarbonate

21. What is formed when an acid reacts with a metal hydroxide?

a) Salt and water
b) Salt and hydrogen
c) Salt and oxygen
d) Salt and carbon dioxide
Answer: a) Salt and water

22. Which of the following is not a property of an acid?

a) Sour taste
b) Turns blue litmus paper red
c) Releases hydrogen gas on reacting with metals
d) Feels slippery to touch
Answer: d) Feels slippery to touch

23. Which acid is present in vinegar?

a) Acetic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Hydrochloric acid
Answer: a) Acetic acid

24. What happens when an acid is added to water?

a) Exothermic reaction
b) Endothermic reaction
c) No reaction
d) Explosion
Answer: a) Exothermic reaction

25. What is the common name for sodium bicarbonate?

a) Baking soda
b) Table salt
c) Washing soda
d) Calcium chloride
Answer: a) Baking soda

26. What color does methyl orange indicator turn in an acidic solution?

a) Red
b) Yellow
c) Green
d) Colorless
Answer: a) Red

27. Which of the following is an example of a strong base?

a) Ammonia
b) Sodium hydroxide
c) Calcium hydroxide
d) Potassium hydroxide
Answer: b) Sodium hydroxide

28. Which acid is present in curd?

a) Lactic acid
b) Nitric acid
c) Phosphoric acid
d) Butyric acid
Answer: a) Lactic acid

29. What is the formula of hydrochloric acid?

a) H2SO4
b) HCl
c) HNO3
d) H2CO3
Answer: b) HCl

30. What is the pH of a strong acid?

a) Less than 7
b) Exactly 7
c) More than 7
d) Can vary
Answer: a) Less than 7

31. Which substance is commonly used in the preparation of lime water?

a) Calcium carbonate
b) Sodium carbonate
c) Calcium hydroxide
d) Sodium hydroxide
Answer: c) Calcium hydroxide

32. What is the pH range for a weak base?

a) Around 7
b) Less than 7
c) Greater than 7
d) Varies
Answer: c) Greater than 7

33. Which acid is present in the stomach?

a) Hydrochloric acid
b) Nitric acid
c) Phosphoric acid
d) Butyric acid
Answer: a) Hydrochloric acid

34. What gas is evolved when an acid reacts with a metal sulfite?

a) Sulfur dioxide
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a) Sulfur dioxide

35. Which substance is commonly used for the preparation of plaster of Paris?

a) Calcium carbonate
b) Sodium carbonate
c) Calcium sulfate
d) Sodium sulfate
Answer: c) Calcium sulfate

36. What color does litmus paper turn in the presence of an acid?

a) Red
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Colorless
Answer: a) Red

37. Which acid is present in grapes?

a) Tartaric acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Lactic acid
d) Sulfuric acid
Answer: a) Tartaric acid

38. What happens when a base reacts with an acid?

a) Neutralization reaction occurs
b) Explosion
c) No reaction
d) Formation of a new acid
Answer: a) Neutralization reaction occurs

39. Which gas is evolved when an acid reacts with a metal bicarbonate?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

40. What happens when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

a) Carbon dioxide gas is evolved
b) Hydrogen gas is released
c) Oxygen gas is produced
d) Salt is formed
Answer: a) Carbon dioxide gas is evolved

41. Which gas is evolved when hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc?

a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: a) Hydrogen

42. What is the pH of a strong base?

a) Greater than 7
b) Exactly 7
c) Less than 7
d) Can vary
Answer: a) Greater than 7

43. Which of the following is not a property of a base?

a) Bitter taste
b) Turns red litmus paper blue
c) Releases hydrogen gas on reacting with metals
d) Slippery to touch
Answer: c) Releases hydrogen gas on reacting with metals

44. What is the formula of sulfuric acid?

a) H2SO4
b) HCl
c) HNO3
d) H2CO3
Answer: a) H2SO4

45. What is the pH of water?

a) 7
b) 0
c) 14
d) Varies
Answer: a) 7

46. Which substance is commonly used in cold drinks to provide a sour taste?

a) Citric acid
b) Acetic acid
c) Lactic acid
d) Sulfuric acid
Answer: a) Citric acid

47. What happens when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

a) Carbon dioxide gas is evolved
b) Hydrogen gas is released
c) Oxygen gas is produced
d) Salt is formed
Answer: a) Carbon dioxide gas is evolved

48. What happens when a base reacts with an acid?

a) Neutralization reaction occurs
b) Explosion
c) No reaction
d) Formation of a new acid
Answer: a) Neutralization reaction occurs

49. Which gas is evolved when hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc?
a) Hydrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: a) Hydrogen

50. What is the pH of a strong base?

a) Greater than 7
b) Exactly 7
c) Less than 7
d) Can vary

Chapter 3 Metals and Non-Metals

1. Which of the following is a metal?

a) Lead
b) Oxygen
c) Chlorine
d) Sulphur
Answer: a) Lead

2. Which of the following is a non-metal?

a) Sodium
b) Zinc
c) Nitrogen
d) Iron
Answer: c) Nitrogen

3. Which metal is the best conductor of electricity?

a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Aluminium
d) Iron
Answer: b) Copper

4. Which non-metal is a good conductor of electricity?

a) Carbon
b) Sulphur
c) Nitrogen
d) Silicon
Answer: a) Carbon

5. Which metal is the most reactive?

a) Gold
b) Silver
c) Sodium
d) Aluminium
Answer: c) Sodium

6. What happens when a metal reacts with an acid?

a) Release of hydrogen gas
b) Formation of a metal oxide
c) Formation of a metal chloride
d) No reaction occurs
Answer: a) Release of hydrogen gas

7. Which non-metal is used in fertilizers and explosives?

a) Oxygen
b) Chlorine
c) Phosphorus
d) Sulphur
Answer: c) Phosphorus

8. Which metal is used to galvanize iron to prevent rusting?

a) Copper
b) Zinc
c) Aluminium
d) Silver
Answer: b) Zinc

9. Which non-metal is known as the "wildfire" extinguisher?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Nitrogen gas
c) Oxygen gas
d) Water vapor
Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

10. Which metal is used to make electric wires?

a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Iron
d) Aluminium
Answer: a) Copper

11. Which non-metal is a major constituent of all organic compounds?

a) Sulphur
b) Carbon
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b) Carbon

12. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?

a) Mercury
b) Gold
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
Answer: a) Mercury

13. Which non-metal is present in all acids?

a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: b) Hydrogen

14. Which metal is used in the filaments of electric bulbs?

a) Tungsten
b) Nickel
c) Iron
d) Lead
Answer: a) Tungsten

15. Which non-metal is used in the production of fertilizers?

a) Oxygen
b) Sulphur
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: c) Nitrogen

16. Which metal is found in the form of its sulphide ore "galena"?

a) Iron
b) Gold
c) Copper
d) Lead
Answer: d) Lead

17. Which non-metal is a greenish-yellow poisonous gas?

a) Oxygen
b) Chlorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Sulphur
Answer: b) Chlorine

18. Which metal is used to make aircraft bodies?

a) Silver
b) Iron
c) Aluminium
d) Zinc
Answer: c) Aluminium

19. Which non-metal is used in the manufacturing of matches?

a) Sulphur
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: a) Sulphur

20. Which metal is used in making coins in India?

a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Gold
d) Aluminium
Answer: a) Copper

21. Which non-metal is responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer?

a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
Answer: d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

22. Which metal is used in making water heaters, geysers, and electric irons?

a) Iron
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Zinc
Answer: c) Copper

23. Which non-metal is the lightest gas present in the atmosphere?

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Hydrogen
Answer: d) Hydrogen

24. Which metal is extracted from bauxite ore?

a) Gold
b) Copper
c) Iron
d) Aluminium
Answer: d) Aluminium

25. Which non-metal is used in the production of glass and soap?

a) Sulphur
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: d) Carbon

26. Which metal is used in the construction of bridges and buildings due to its high strength?

a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Iron
d) Aluminium
Answer: c) Iron

27. Which non-metal is used as an antiseptic to disinfect wounds?

a) Oxygen
b) Chlorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Iodine
Answer: d) Iodine

28. Which metal is known as the "king of metals"?

a) Gold
b) Copper
c) Silver
d) Platinum
Answer: a) Gold

29. Which non-metal is a good conductor of heat and electricity?

a) Sulphur
b) Graphite
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
Answer: b) Graphite

30. Which metal forms an amalgam with other metals?

a) Iron
b) Zinc
c) Copper
d) Mercury
Answer: d) Mercury

31. Which non-metal is present in all acids?

a) Nitrogen
b) Hydrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Carbon
Answer: b) Hydrogen

32. Which metal is used to galvanize iron to protect it from corrosion?

a) Copper
b) Zinc
c) Silver
d) Aluminium
Answer: b) Zinc

33. Which non-metal is used in the production of fertilizers?

a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon
c) Oxygen
d) Sulphur
Answer: a) Nitrogen

34. Which metal is used in the making of electric wires?

a) Aluminium
b) Silver
c) Copper
d) Zinc
Answer: c) Copper

35. Which non-metal is the lightest gas available in the air?

a) Nitrogen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Hydrogen
d) Oxygen
Answer: c) Hydrogen

36. Which metal is present in the highest percentage in the earth's crust?

a) Gold
b) Iron
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
Answer: c) Aluminium

37. Which non-metal is frequently used as a disinfectant?

a) Oxygen
b) Chlorine
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: b) Chlorine

38. Which metal is used in the production of coins in India?

a) Gold
b) Copper
c) Zinc
d) Silver
Answer: b) Copper

39. Which non-metal is responsible for the greenhouse effect?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
Answer: b) Carbon dioxide

40. Which metal is found in the liquid state at room temperature?

a) Iron
b) Silver
c) Mercury
d) Aluminium
Answer: c) Mercury

41. Which non-metal is used to make pencil leads?

a) Sulphur
b) Carbon
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen
Answer: b) Carbon

42. Which metal is used in the making of electric bulbs?

a) Gold
b) Nickel
c) Iron
d) Tungsten
Answer: d) Tungsten

43. Which non-metal is used in the manufacturing of fertilizers?

a) Oxygen
b) Sulphur
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: c) Nitrogen

44. Which metal is used to make aircraft bodies?

a) Aluminium
b) Silver
c) Zinc
d) Iron
Answer: a) Aluminium

45. Which non-metal is used in matches?

a) Oxygen
b) Sulphur
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: b) Sulphur

46. Which metal is used to make electric wires?

a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Iron
d) Aluminium
Answer: a) Copper

47. Which non-metal is present in all organic compounds?

a) Sulphur
b) Carbon
c) Oxygen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b) Carbon

48. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?

a) Mercury
b) Gold
c) Aluminium
d) Copper
Answer: a) Mercury

49. Which non-metal is found in all acids?

a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: b) Hydrogen

50. Which metal is used in the filaments of electric bulbs?

a) Tungsten
b) Iron
c) Nickel
d) Lead
Answer: a) Tungsten

Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds

1. Which of the following elements is an essential component of all living organisms?

a) Silicon
b) Carbon
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen
Answer: b) Carbon

2. Which property of carbon makes it a unique element?

a) High boiling point
b) Low reactivity
c) Ability to form bonds with other carbon atoms
d) Inability to form compounds
Answer: c) Ability to form bonds with other carbon atoms

3. Which type of bond is formed when carbon shares four electrons with another atom?

a) Covalent bond
b) Ionic bond
c) Metallic bond
d) Hydrogen bond
Answer: a) Covalent bond

4. Which molecular shape does carbon dioxide (CO2) have?

a) Linear
b) Tetrahedral
c) Trigonal pyramidal
d) Bent
Answer: a) Linear

5. Which organic compound is commonly found in fruits and gives them their characteristic smell?

a) Alcohol
b) Ester
c) Aldehyde
d) Carboxylic acid
Answer: b) Ester

6. Which organic compound is used as a refrigerant due to its low boiling point?

a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Propanol
d) Methane
Answer: d) Methane

7. Which category of organic compounds includes glucose and fructose?

a) Alkanes
b) Alkenes
c) Alcohols
d) Carbohydrates
Answer: d) Carbohydrates

8. What is the general formula of alkenes?

a) CnH2n
b) CnH2n+2
c) CnH2n-2
d) CnH2n+1OH
Answer: a) CnH2n

9. Which organic compound is commonly known as rubbing alcohol?

a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Propanol
d) Butanol
Answer: b) Ethanol

10. Which process is used to convert unsaturated fats into saturated fats?

a) Oxidation
b) Hydrogenation
c) Esterification
d) Fermentation
Answer: b) Hydrogenation

11. The process of burning a hydrocarbon in the presence of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water
is known as:

a) Substitution
b) Addition
c) Combustion
d) Polymerization
Answer: c) Combustion

12. Which gas is produced during the fermentation of sugar by yeast?

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: d) Carbon dioxide

13. Which organic compound is responsible for the characteristic smell of vinegar?

a) Acetic acid
b) Ethanoic acid
c) Methanoic acid
d) Citric acid
Answer: b) Ethanoic acid

14. What is the process by which plants convert sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water into glucose and
oxyg
en?

a) Respiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Fermentation
d) Combustion
Answer: b) Photosynthesis

15. The process by which vegetable oils are converted into solid fats is called:

a) Saponification
b) Fermentation
c) Polymerization
d) Hydrolysis
Answer: c) Polymerization

16. What are compounds that possess the same molecular formula but different structural arrangements c
alled?

a) Isomers
b) Homologues
c) Polymers
d) Monomers
Answer: a) Isomers

17. Which organic compound is responsible for the intoxicating effects of alcoholic beverages?

a) Ethanol
b) Methanol
c) Propanol
d) Butanol
Answer: a) Ethanol

18. Which is the smallest unit from which a polymer is formed?

a) Monomer
b) Dimer
c) Oligomer
d) Polymerase
Answer: a) Monomer

19. Which polymer is also known as the "Woolly Protein"?

a) Polyester
b) Acrylic
c) Nylon
d) Silk
Answer: d) Silk

20. The process of splitting a large molecule into two or more simpler molecules by the addition of
water
molecules is called:

a) Hydrogenation
b) Esterification
c) Hydrolysis
d) Fermentation
Answer: c) Hydrolysis

21. Which organic compound is responsible for the smell of rotten eggs?

a) Methane
b) Ethane
c) Propane
d) Hydrogen sulfide
Answer: d) Hydrogen sulfide

22. Which property of carbon makes it suitable for the formation of a large number of organic compounds
?

a) Low reactivity
b) High boiling point
c) Ability to form long chains and rings
d) Inability to form bonds with other elements
Answer: c) Ability to form long chains and rings

23. The hydrocarbon with a double bond between two carbon atoms is known as:

a) Alkane
b) Alkene
c) Alkyne
d) Aldehyde
Answer: b) Alkene

24. What is the name of the process used to break down complex organic compounds by heating them in
the absence of air?

a) Fermentation
b) Distillation
c) Combustion
d) Pyrolysis
Answer: d) Pyrolysis

25. Which acid is present in ant stings and nettle hairs?

a) Acetic acid
b) Formic acid
c) Butyric acid
d) Citric acid
Answer: b) Formic acid

26. Which organic compound is commonly used as a solvent and antifreeze?

a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Glycerol
d) Ethanoic acid
Answer: a) Methanol

27. Which compound is commonly known as vinegar?

a) Methanoic acid
b) Ethanoic acid
c) Propanoic acid
d) Methanoic anhydride
Answer: b) Ethanoic acid

28. What is the process of converting vegetable oils into soaps called?

a) Fermentation
b) Hydrogenation
c) Saponification
d) Polymerization
Answer: c) Saponification

29. Which compound is produced when ethanoic acid reacts with an alcohol in the presence of an acid ca
talyst?

a) Ester
b) Ether
c) Aldehyde
d) Ketone
Answer: a) Ester

30. What is the process of conversion of sugar into alcohol called?

a) Respiration
b) Hydrogenation
c) Fermentation
d) Polymerization
Answer: c) Fermentation

31. Which organic compound is found in the highest proportions in coal and petroleum?

a) Alkanes
b) Alkenes
c) Aldehydes
d) Alcohols
Answer: a) Alkanes

32. How many carbon atoms does butane (C4H10) contain?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: d) 4

33. Which compound is responsible for the smell of grapes and artificial grape flavor?

a) Ethanol
b) Ethanoic acid
c) Ethyl acetate
d) Acetaldehyde
Answer: c) Ethyl acetate

34. What is the process of joining two or more monomers to form a polymer called?

a) Fermentation
b) Combustion
c) Addition
d) Polymerization
Answer: d) Polymerization

35. Which organic compound is commonly known as formalin and used as a disinfectant?

a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Propanol
d) Methanal
Answer: d) Methanal

36. What is the name of the process used to convert alcohols into corresponding carboxylic acids?
a) Oxidation

b) Esterification
c) Reduction
d) Hydrolysis
Answer: a) Oxidation

37. Which organic compound is commonly used as a preservative in pickles?

a) Oxalic acid
b) Tartaric acid
c) Lactic acid
d) Benzoic acid
Answer: d) Benzoic acid

38. The process of conversion of alcohol into an alkene is called:

a) Fermentation
b) Esterification
c) Oxidation
d) Dehydration
Answer: d) Dehydration

39. Which compound is responsible for the characteristic smell of garlic?

a) Allicin
b) Alicyclic acid
c) Allyl chloride
d) Allyl alcohol
Answer: a) Allicin

40. Which organic compound is commonly known as wood alcohol?

a) Methanol
b) Ethanol
c) Propanol
d) Butanol
Answer: a) Methanol

41. What is the process of conversion of alcohol into an alkane called?

a) Fermentation
b) Esterification
c) Reduction
d) Hydrolysis
Answer: c) Reduction

42. Which organic compound is used as a preservative in the food industry?

a) Acetic acid
b) Benzoic acid
c) Citric acid
d) Oxalic acid
Answer: b) Benzoic acid

43. What is the process of conversion of unsaturated fats into semisolid fats called?

a) Fermentation
b) Polymerization
c) Hydrolysis
d) Isomerization
Answer: b) Polymerization

44. Which category of organic compounds includes fats, oils, and waxes?

a) Alkanes
b) Alkenes
c) Acids
d) Lipids
Answer: d) Lipids

45. Which organic compound is responsible for the characteristic smell of sweat?

a) Isobutyric acid
b) Propionic acid
c) Butyric acid
d) Lactic acid
Answer: d) Lactic acid

46. What is the process of conversion of unsaturated hydrocarbons into saturated hydrocarbons called?
a) Polymerization

b) Hydrolysis
c) Hydrogenation
d) Fermentation
Answer: c) Hydrogenation

47. Which organic compound is commonly known as acetylene?

a) Ethyne
b) Ethene
c) Ethane
d) Ethanol
Answer: a) Ethyne

48. What is the process of converting an alcohol into an ester called?

a) Fermentation
b) Saponification
c) Esterification
d) Polymerization
Answer: c) Esterification

49. Which compound is responsible for the smell of rotten apples?

a) Ethanol
b) Ethanoic acid
c) Ethyl acetate
d) Acetaldehyde
Answer: d) Acetaldehyde

50. What is the process of converting an aldehyde into a corresponding carboxylic acid called?
a) Oxidation

b) Esterification
c) Reduction
d) Hydrolysis
Answer: a) Oxidation

Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

1. Which scientist is credited with developing the modern periodic table?

a) Dmitri Mendeleev
b) Albert Einstein
c) Isaac Newton
d) Marie Curie
Answer: a) Dmitri Mendeleev

2. Who first arranged the elements based on their atomic numbers?

a) Henry Moseley
b) Antoine Lavoisier
c) John Dalton
d) Robert Boyle
Answer: a) Henry Moseley

3. Elements with similar properties are placed in the same _________ in the periodic table.

a) group
b) period
c) series
d) category
Answer: a) group

4. The modern periodic table consists of how many periods?

a) 7
b) 8
c) 18
d) 32
Answer: a) 7

5. How many groups are there in the modern periodic table?

a) 7
b) 8
c) 18
d) 32
Answer: c) 18

6. The first period of the periodic table contains how many elements?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 8
d) 18
Answer: b) 2

7. The horizontal rows in the periodic table are called:

a) groups
b) periods
c) families
d) blocks
Answer: b) periods

8. The vertical columns in the periodic table are called:

a) groups
b) periods
c) families
d) blocks
Answer: a) groups

9. Which group of elements is known as the halogens?

a) Group 1
b) Group 17
c) Group 18
d) Group 7
Answer: b) Group 17

10. Which group of elements is known as the alkaline earth metals?

a) Group 1
b) Group 2
c) Group 17
d) Group 18
Answer: b) Group 2

11. Which element is the lightest gas in the periodic table?

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Hydrogen

12. Which element is the most abundant in the universe?

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: c) Hydrogen

13. Which group of elements is known as the noble gases?

a) Group 1
b) Group 14
c) Group 17
d) Group 18
Answer: d) Group 18

14. Which element has the atomic number 1?

a) Hydrogen
b) Helium
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen
Answer: a) Hydrogen

15. Which element has the atomic number 8?

a) Hydrogen
b) Helium
c) Oxygen
d) Carbon
Answer: c) Oxygen

16. Which element is a metalloid?

a) Oxygen
b) Aluminum
c) Silicon
d) Mercury
Answer: c) Silicon

17. Which element is the most reactive metal?

a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Iron
d) Copper
Answer: a) Sodium

18. Which element is a non-metal?

a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Iron
d) Sulfur
Answer: d) Sulfur

19. Which element is a transition metal?

a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Iron
d) Phosphorus
Answer: c) Iron

20. Which element is used as a semiconductor in electronics?

a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Iron
d) Silicon
Answer: d) Silicon

21. Which element has the symbol "Fe" in the periodic table?

a) Fluorine
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Sodium
Answer: b) Iron

22. Which element has the symbol "Na" in the periodic table?

a) Fluorine
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Sodium
Answer: d) Sodium

23. Which element has the symbol "Cu" in the periodic table?

a) Fluorine
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Sodium
Answer: c) Copper

24. Which element has the symbol "F" in the periodic table?

a) Fluorine
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Sodium
Answer: a) Fluorine

25. Which element is a liquid at room temperature?

a) Oxygen
b) Helium
c) Mercury
d) Carbon
Answer: c) Mercury

26. What is the general trend of atomic size across a period?

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Fluctuates randomly
Answer: b) Decreases

27. What is the general trend of atomic size down a group?

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Fluctuates randomly
Answer: a) Increases

28. Which element is highly reactive and stored in kerosene?

a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Iron
d) Copper
Answer: a) Sodium

29. What is the charge of an atom if it gains electrons?

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Neutral
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Negative

30. Which element has the highest electronegativity value?

a) Fluorine
b) Lithium
c) Helium
d) Carbon
Answer: a) Fluorine

31. Which element is a good conductor of electricity?

a) Non-metals
b) Noble gases
c) Metals
d) Metalloids
Answer: c) Metals

32. What is the valency of an element in Group 17?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: c) 7

33. Which element is responsible for the red color of blood?

a) Iron
b) Oxygen
c) Carbon
d) Sodium
Answer: a) Iron

34. Which of the following elements is radioactive?

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Uranium
d) Aluminum
Answer: c) Uranium

35. Which group of elements is known as the transition metals?

a) Group 1
b) Group 2
c) Group 11-12
d) Group 17
Answer: c) Group 11-12

36. Elements in the same group have the same number of ___________ electrons.

a) valence
b) core
c) proton
d) neutron
Answer: a) valence

37. Elements in the same period have the same number of ___________.

a) valence electrons
b) core electrons
c) protons
d) neutrons
Answer: b) core electrons

38. Which group contains the most reactive non-metals?

a) Group 1
b) Group 17
c) Group 18
d) Group 2
Answer: b) Group 17

39. The tendency of an atom to attract a shared pair of electrons towards itself is called:

a) Electronegativity
b) Valency
c) Atomic size
d) Ionization energy
Answer: a) Electronegativity

40. The elements in Group 1 of the periodic table are called:

a) Noble gases
b) Halogens
c) Alkali metals
d) Alkaline earth metals
Answer: c) Alkali metals

41. Which element is a major constituent of the Earth's atmosphere?

a) Oxygen
b) Helium
c) Nitrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Nitrogen

42. Which element has the highest first ionization energy?

a) Helium
b) Fluorine
c) Potassium
d) Lithium
Answer: a) Helium

43. Which element has the lowest first ionization energy?

a) Sodium
b) Calcium
c) Francium
d) Potassium
Answer: c) Francium

44. Which element is essential for respiration?

a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon
d) Nitrogen
Answer: a) Oxygen

45. Which element is used in fluorescent lights?

a) Neon
b) Xenon
c) Argon
d) Radon
Answer: c) Argon

46. Which element is the most reactive non-metal?

a) Chlorine
b) Fluorine
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen
Answer: b) Fluorine

47. Which element is commonly used as a catalyst in the Haber process for ammonia production?

a) Iron
b) Copper
c) Nickel
d) Platinum
Answer: a) Iron

48. Which element is responsible for the blue color in fireworks?

a) Magnesium
b) Copper
c) Sodium
d) Potassium
Answer: b) Copper

49. Which element is used in the manufacture of glass?

a) Iron
b) Aluminum
c) Sodium
d) Silicon
Answer: d) Silicon

50. Which element is the most abundant in the Earth's crust?

a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon
Answer: a) Oxygen

Chapter 6 Life Processes

1. What is the process through which living organisms obtain and utilize energy?

a) Photosynthesis
b) Respiration
c) Digestion
d) Excretion
Answer: b) Respiration

2. Which of the following is NOT a life process?

a) Growth
b) Reproduction
c) Respiration
d) Ingestion
Answer: d) Ingestion

3. The process by which green plants convert sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water into glucose and oxyge
n is called:

a) Transpiration
b) Respiration
c) Photosynthesis
d) Assimilation
Answer: c) Photosynthesis

4. The breakdown of food in the presence of oxygen to release energy is known as:

a) Fermentation
b) Anaerobic respiration
c) Aerobic respiration
d) Assimilation
Answer: c) Aerobic respiration

5. How do multicellular organisms transport substances throughout their bodies?

a) Simple diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Circulatory system
d) Respiration
Answer: c) Circulatory system

6. Which organ filters waste products from the blood and produces urine?

a) Lungs
b) Liver
c) Kidneys
d) Stomach
Answer: c) Kidneys

7. The process of removal of metabolic waste products produced during various life processes is called:
a) Excretion

b) Digestion
c) Transpiration
d) Assimilation
Answer: a) Excretion

8. What is the function of the respiratory system in humans?

a) Transportation of oxygen
b) Digestion of food
c) Elimination of waste products
d) All of the above
Answer: a) Transportation of oxygen

9. Which of the following is NOT a component of the excretory system?

a) Kidneys
b) Lungs
c) Skin
d) Liver
Answer: d) Liver

10. Which life process is responsible for the growth of plants?

a) Photosynthesis
b) Reproduction
c) Respiration
d) Assimilation
Answer: d) Assimilation

11. The process of breakdown of complex food substances into simpler forms during digestion is called:

a) Assimilation
b) Respiration
c) Absorption
d) Digestion
Answer: d) Digestion

12. Which process allows plants to lose excess water in the form of vapor from their leaves?

a) Assimilation
b) Transpiration
c) Osmosis
d) Evaporation
Answer: b) Transpiration

13. Which life process involves the release of energy from organic molecules in the absence of oxygen?

a) Anaerobic respiration
b) Aerobic respiration
c) Fermentation
d) Transpiration
Answer: a) Anaerobic respiration

14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living organisms?

a) Growth and development
b) Reproduction
c) Metabolism
d) Inorganic composition
Answer: d) Inorganic composition

15. How do unicellular organisms carry out different life processes?

a) Through specialized organs
b) By using a circulatory system
c) Through organelles within their cells
d) By absorbing nutrients from the environment
Answer: c) Through organelles within their cells

16. The breakdown of glucose during respiration produces:

a) Carbon dioxide and water
b) Oxygen and glucose
c) Carbon dioxide and sunlight
d) Glucose and energy
Answer: a) Carbon dioxide and water

17. The process of opening and closing of stomata in leaves is essential for:

a) Photosynthesis
b) Respiration
c) Excretion
d) Reproduction
Answer: a) Photosynthesis

18. What is the process of taking in food into the body called?

a) Egestion
b) Respiration
c) Ingestion
d) Absorption
Answer: c) Ingestion

19. Which life process involves the breakdown of stored nutrients to release energy during times of
starva
tion?

a) Assimilation
b) Photosynthesis
c) Respiration
d) Absorption
Answer: c) Respiration

20. Which of the following is NOT a raw material required for photosynthesis?

a) Sunlight
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Water
d) Oxygen
Answer: d) Oxygen

21. The removal of undigested food from the body is called:

a) Respiration
b) Excretion
c) Egestion
d) Absorption
Answer: c) Egestion

22. In which part of the digestive system are nutrients absorbed into the bloodstream?

a) Stomach
b) Small intestine
c) Large intestine
d) Esophagus
Answer: b) Small intestine

23. How do single-celled organisms excrete waste products?

a) Through specialized excretory organs
b) By diffusing them out of the cell membrane
c) By converting them into useful substances
d) By releasing them through respiration
Answer: b) By diffusing them out of the cell membrane

24. Which life process involves the synthesis and assimilation of complex organic molecules from simpler
ones?

a) Digestion
b) Assimilation
c) Respiration
d) Excretion
Answer: b) Assimilation

25. Which gas is released by plants during photosynthesis?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: b) Oxygen

26. What is the term for the process by which plants absorb water and nutrients from the soil?

a) Transpiration
b) Osmosis
c) Absorption
d) Assimilation
Answer: c) Absorption

27. Which process helps in the breakdown of complex organic molecules into simpler ones during respirat
ion?

a) Fermentation
b) Absorption
c) Digestion
d) Assimilation
Answer: c) Digestion

28. What is the process of conversion of food substances into energy?

a) Respiration
b) Assimilation
c) Excretion
d) Osmosis
Answer: a) Respiration

29. What role does the liver play in the process of digestion?

a) Secretion of bile
b) Absorption of nutrients
c) Production of enzymes
d) Circulation of blood
Answer: a) Secretion of bile

30. Which life process is responsible for the renewal and repair of damaged cells and tissues?

a) Excretion
b) Reproduction
c) Growth
d) Assimilation
Answer: c) Growth

31. How do plants take in carbon dioxide required for photosynthesis?

a) Through roots
b) By absorption through leaves
c) Through stomata on the stem
d) By inhaling it from the atmosphere
Answer: c) Through stomata on the stem

32. Which organ in the human body is responsible for the production of red blood cells?

a) Liver
b) Kidneys
c) Spleen
d) Bone marrow
Answer: d) Bone marrow

33. How do plants obtain nutrients other than water and carbon dioxide?

a) Through their leaves
b) By absorbing from the soil
c) By converting sunlight
d) By producing their own nutrients
Answer: b) By absorbing from the soil

34. What substance gives the green color to the leaves of plants?

a) Chlorophyll
b) Carotene
c) Xylem
d) Phloem
Answer: a) Chlorophyll

35. What is the function of the stomata in leaves?

a) To absorb sunlight
b) To exchange gases
c) To perform photosynthesis
d) To transport nutrients
Answer: b) To exchange gases

36. How do unicellular organisms eliminate waste products?

a) Through lungs
b) Through kidneys
c) Through skin
d) By diffusion
Answer: d) By diffusion

37. Which life process involves the production of offspring of the same kind?

a) Respiration
b) Reproduction
c) Excretion
d) Assimilation
Answer: b) Reproduction

38. What is the role of enzymes in the process of digestion?

a) Transporting nutrients
b) Absorbing water
c) Breaking down complex molecules
d) Eliminating waste
Answer: c) Breaking down complex molecules

39. What is the process by which dissolved substances are taken up by cells or tissues called?

a) Excretion
b) Assimilation
c) Transpiration
d) Digestion
Answer: b) Assimilation

40. Which life process is responsible for the removal of excess water and waste materials from the body
o
f an organism?

a) Respiration
b) Assimilation
c) Excretion
d) Digestion
Answer: c) Excretion

41. In which part of the plant does photosynthesis mainly occur?

a) Roots
b) Stems
c) Leaves
d) Flowers
Answer: c) Leaves

42. What is the primary role of the blood circulatory system in animals?

a) Producing hormones
b) Digesting food
c) Transporting oxygen and nutrients
d) Eliminating waste products
Answer: c) Transporting oxygen and nutrients

43. What is the process by which plants absorb water from the soil called?

a) Transpiration
b) Respiration
c) Osmosis
d) Absorption
Answer: d) Absorption

44. Which life process involves the breakdown of glucose to release energy in the absence of oxygen?

a) Aerobic respiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Anaerobic respiration
d) Assimilation
Answer: c) Anaerobic respiration

45. How do plants utilize sunlight energy during photosynthesis?

a) By converting it into glucose
b) By releasing oxygen
c) By producing chlorophyll
d) All of the above
Answer: a) By converting it into glucose

46. What is the role of the skin in excretion?

a) Production of sweat
b) Absorption of nutrients
c) Circulation of blood
d) Filtration of waste products
Answer: a) Production of sweat

47. Which life process involves the conversion of food substances into tissues and organs?

a) Reproduction
b) Growth
c) Excretion
d) Assimilation
Answer: d) Assimilation

48. What is the process by which green plants lose water vapor through their leaves called?

a) Absorption
b) Transpiration
c) Respiration
d) Assimilation
Answer: b) Transpiration

49. What is the term for the sum of all chemical reactions occurring in living organisms?

a) Metabolism
b) Transpiration
c) Assimilation
d) Digestion
Answer: a) Metabolism

50. How do living organisms exchange gases with the environment during respiration,

a) Through the digestive system
b) Through the excretory system
c) Through specialized respiratory organs
d) Through the circulatory system
Answer: c) Through specialized respiratory organs

Chapter 7 Control and Coordination

1. Which system in our body controls and coordinates various activities?

a) Respiratory system
b) Excretory system
c) Nervous system
d) Digestive system
Answer: c) Nervous system

2. What is the basic unit of the nervous system?

a) Neuron
b) Tissue
c) Cell
d) Organ
Answer: a) Neuron

3. Which part of the neuron receives messages from other nerve cells?

a) Axon
b) Dendrite
c) Synapse
d) Cell body
Answer: b) Dendrite

4. Chemical coordination in humans is carried out by which system?

a) Nervous system
b) Endocrine system
c) Digestive system
d) Circulatory system
Answer: b) Endocrine system

5. Which endocrine gland is known as the 'Master Gland'?

a) Thyroid gland
b) Adrenal gland
c) Pituitary gland
d) Pancreas
Answer: c) Pituitary gland

6. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of blood sugar levels?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Testosterone
d) Adrenaline
Answer: a) Insulin

7. Which part of the brain controls voluntary actions?

a) Cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Hypothalamus
Answer: a) Cerebrum

8. The gap between two neurons is called:

a) Axon
b) Synapse
c) Dendrite
d) Cell body
Answer: b) Synapse

9. Which plant hormone is responsible for the growth of shoots towards the light?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: a) Auxin

10. Which sensory receptors help us detect light?

a) Thermoreceptors
b) Mechanoreceptors
c) Photoreceptors
d) Chemoreceptors
Answer: c) Photoreceptors

11. Which part of the human eye is responsible for color vision?

a) Cornea
b) Pupil
c) Retina
d) Lens
Answer: c) Retina

12. Which hormone is responsible for 'Fight or Flight' response?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Testosterone
d) Adrenaline
Answer: d) Adrenaline

13. What is the plant hormone responsible for leaf fall or dormancy?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: c) Abscisic acid

14. Which disorder is caused by insulin deficiency in the body?

a) Diabetes
b) Hypertension
c) Arthritis
d) Asthma
Answer: a) Diabetes

15. Which part of the human brain controls involuntary actions like breathing and heart rate?

a) Cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Hypothalamus
Answer: c) Medulla oblongata

16. Which plant hormone promotes seed germination and growth?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: d) Gibberellin

17. Which sensory receptors help us detect pressure or touch?

a) Thermoreceptors
b) Mechanoreceptors
c) Photoreceptors
d) Chemoreceptors
Answer: b) Mechanoreceptors

18. What is the function of the pupil in the eye?

a) To protect the eye from dust and debris
b) To focus the incoming light
c) To control the amount of light entering the eye
d) To provide color vision
Answer: c) To control the amount of light entering the eye

19. Which hormone is responsible for the growth and development of secondary sexual characteristics in
males?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Testosterone
d) Adrenaline
Answer: c) Testosterone

20. Which plant hormone stimulates cell division and growth in the roots and shoots?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: b) Cytokinin

21. Which disorder is caused by a deficiency of iodine in the diet?

a) Goiter
b) Malaria
c) Tuberculosis
d) Jaundice
Answer: a) Goiter

22. Which part of the human brain controls body temperature, hunger, and thirst?

a) Cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Hypothalamus
Answer: d) Hypothalamus

23. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of calcium levels in the body?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Testosterone
d) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Answer: d) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

24. What is the function of the cochlea in the ear?

a) To detect vibrations and balance
b) To produce sound waves
c) To control the amount of light entering the eye
d) To transform sound vibrations into electrical signals
Answer: d) To transform sound vibrations into electrical signals

25. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of sleep-wake cycles in humans?

a) Melatonin
b) Estrogen
c) Testosterone
d) Adrenaline
Answer: a) Melatonin

26. Which plant hormone promotes the growth of lateral buds, preventing apical dominance?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: b) Cytokinin

27. Which sensory receptors help us detect taste?

a) Thermoreceptors
b) Mechanoreceptors
c) Photoreceptors
d) Chemoreceptors
Answer: d) Chemoreceptors

28. What is the function of the lens in the human eye?

a) To protect the eye from dust and debris
b) To focus the incoming light
c) To control the amount of light entering the eye
d) To provide color vision
Answer: b) To focus the incoming light

29. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of the menstrual cycle in females?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Progesterone
d) Adrenaline
Answer: c) Progesterone

30. Which plant hormone inhibits cell division and growth and promotes dormancy?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: c) Abscisic acid

31. Which disorder is caused by the deficiency of vitamin C in the diet?

a) Scurvy
b) Rickets
c) Beriberi
d) Pellagra
Answer: a) Scurvy

32. Which part of the human brain controls emotions and memory?

a) Cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Hypothalamus
Answer: a) Cerebrum

33. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of water balance in the body?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
d) Adrenaline
Answer: c) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

34. What is the function of the retina in the eye?

a) To detect vibrations and balance
b) To produce sound waves
c) To transform light into electrical signals
d) To transform sound vibrations into electrical signals
Answer: c) To transform light into electrical signals

35. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of metabolism in the body?

a) Insulin
b) Thyroxine
c) Estrogen
d) Adrenaline
Answer: b) Thyroxine

36. Which plant hormone is responsible for the wilting of leaves during water scarcity?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: c) Abscisic acid

37. Which sensory receptors help us detect temperature changes?

a) Thermoreceptors
b) Mechanoreceptors
c) Photoreceptors
d) Chemoreceptors
Answer: a) Thermoreceptors

38. What is the function of the iris in the human eye?

a) To detect vibrations and balance
b) To produce sound waves
c) To control the amount of light entering the eye
d) To transform light into electrical signals
Answer: c) To control the amount of light entering the eye

39. Which hormone is responsible for the maintenance of calcium balance in the body?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Calcitonin
d) Adrenaline
Answer: c) Calcitonin

40. Which plant hormone promotes the growth of fruits and controls seed germination?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: d) Gibberellin

41. Which disorder is caused by the deficiency of vitamin D in the diet?

a) Scurvy
b) Rickets
c) Beriberi
d) Pellagra
Answer: b) Rickets

42. Which part of the human brain controls balance and coordination of movements?

a) Cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Hypothalamus
Answer: b) Cerebellum

43. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of blood pressure?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Angiotensin
d) Adrenaline
Answer: c) Angiotensin

44. What is the function of the auditory nerve in the ear?

a) To detect vibrations and balance
b) To produce sound waves
c) To transform light into electrical signals
d) To transform sound vibrations into electrical signals
Answer: d) To transform sound vibrations into electrical signals

45. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of salt balance in the body?

a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Aldosterone
d) Adrenaline
Answer: c) Aldosterone

46. Which plant hormone is responsible for the closing of stomata during water scarcity?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: c) Abscisic acid

47. Which sensory receptors help us detect smell?

a) Thermoreceptors
b) Mechanoreceptors
c) Photoreceptors
d) Chemoreceptors
Answer: d) Chemoreceptors

48. What is the function of the cornea in the human eye?

a) To detect vibrations and balance
b) To produce sound waves
c) To protect the eye from dust and debris
d) To transform light into electrical signals
Answer: c) To protect the eye from dust and debris

49. Which hormone is responsible for the regulation of the sleep-wake cycle and body rhythms in plants?

a) Auxin
b) Cytokinin
c) Abscisic acid
d) Gibberellin
Answer: c) Abscisic acid

50. Which disorder is caused by the deficiency of vitamin A in the diet?

a) Night blindness
b) Rickets
c) Beriberi
d) Pellagra
Answer: a) Night blindness

Chapter 8 How do Organisms Reproduce?

1. What is reproduction?

a) The process of creating new organisms
b) The process of obtaining energy
c) The process of growth and development
d) The process of respiration
Answer: a) The process of creating new organisms

2. Which of the following is a method of asexual reproduction?

a) Budding
b) Fertilization
c) Pollination
d) Meiosis
Answer: a) Budding

3. In which type of reproduction does a single parent give rise to offspring without the involvement of
gam
etes?

a) Asexual reproduction
b) Sexual reproduction
c) Both asexual and sexual reproduction
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Asexual reproduction

4. What is the purpose of a flower in plants?

a) To attract insects
b) To carry out photosynthesis
c) To produce oxygen
d) To absorb water from the soil
Answer: a) To attract insects

5. What do you call the male reproductive part of a flower?

a) Pistil
b) Stamen
c) Sepals
d) Anther
Answer: b) Stamen

6. Which of the following is a method of sexual reproduction in plants?

a) Spore formation
b) Fragmentation
c) Binary fission
d) Seed formation
Answer: d) Seed formation

7. Which of the following produces eggs in females?

a) Ovaries
b) Testes
c) Uterus
d) Oviducts
Answer: a) Ovaries

8. In humans, the fertilization of an egg by a sperm occurs in the:

a) Ovaries
b) Uterus
c) Fallopian tubes
d) Vagina
Answer: c) Fallopian tubes

9. Which of the following statements about sexual reproduction is correct?

a) It requires only one parent.
b) Offspring have genetic variability.
c) The offspring are identical to the parent.
d) It is a faster process than asexual reproduction.
Answer: b) Offspring have genetic variability.

10. The process of fusion of the male and female gametes is called:

a) Pollination
b) Fertilization
c) Germination
d) Meiosis
Answer: b) Fertilization

11. What is the function of the placenta in humans?

a) Gas exchange between the mother and fetus
b) Protection of the fetus
c) Digestion of food for the fetus
d) Secretion of hormones
Answer: a) Gas exchange between the mother and fetus

12. In humans, how many chromosomes do sperm and egg cells each contain?

a) 46
b) 23
c) 36
d) 52
Answer: b) 23

13. What is the process by which a tadpole changes into an adult frog called?

a) Metamorphosis
b) Fertilization
c) Reproduction
d) Regeneration
Answer: a) Metamorphosis

14. Which of the following is a mode of asexual reproduction in animals?

a) Parthenogenesis
b) Meiosis
c) Fertilization
d) Pollination
Answer: a) Parthenogenesis

15. What is the purpose of pollination in plants?

a) To transfer pollen grains to the stigma
b) To release oxygen
c) To attract bees
d) To produce fruits
Answer: a) To transfer pollen grains to the stigma

16. The process of the fusion of the male and female gametes in flowering plants leads to the formation
of
:

a) Zygote
b) Seed
c) Fruit
d) Flower
Answer: a) Zygote

17. What is the hormone responsible for secondary sexual characteristics in males?

a) Testosterone
b) Estrogen
c) Progesterone
d) FSH
Answer: a) Testosterone

18. What is the function of the uterus in females?

a) To produce eggs
b) To produce hormones
c) To provide nutrients and shelter to the developing fetus
d) To release eggs during ovulation
Answer: c) To provide nutrients and shelter to the developing fetus

19. Which type of reproduction involves the fusion of male and female gametes?

a) Asexual reproduction
b) Sexual reproduction
c) Both asexual and sexual reproduction
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Sexual reproduction

20. What is the purpose of the testes in males?

a) To produce sperm
b) To produce eggs
c) To deliver oxygen to the body
d) To produce hormones
Answer: a) To produce sperm

21. The process of budding is commonly observed in:

a) Hydra
b) Fish
c) Frogs
d) Birds
Answer: a) Hydra

22. Which of the following is not a method of asexual reproduction in animals?

a) Binary fission
b) Regeneration
c) Fragmentation
d) Fertilization
Answer: d) Fertilization

23. How does a baby obtain nutrition in the mother's womb?

a) Through the umbilical cord
b) Through the nose
c) By breathing oxygen
d) By feeding on the mother's blood
Answer: a) Through the umbilical cord

24. Which process involves the fusion of two cells to form a zygote?

a) Fertilization
b) Pollination
c) Germination
d) Meiosis
Answer: a) Fertilization

25. In asexual reproduction, offspring are:

a) Genetically identical to the parent
b) Genetically different from the parent
c) Produced by pollination
d) Produced by meiosis
Answer: a) Genetically identical to the parent

26. What is the function of the ovary in plants?

a) To produce seeds
b) To produce flowers
c) To attract pollinators
d) To produce eggs
Answer: a) To produce seeds

27. Which of the following is a mode of reproduction in yeast?

a) Budding
b) Spore formation
c) Fragmentation
d) Binary fission
Answer: a) Budding

28. How many parents are involved in asexual reproduction?

a) One parent
b) Two parents
c) Three parents
d) No parents
Answer: a) One parent

29. Which of the following is not a mode of asexual reproduction?

a) Binary fission
b) Budding
c) Fertilization
d) Fragmentation
Answer: c) Fertilization

30. What is the primary purpose of the male reproductive system?
a) Production of eggs
b) Production of hormones
c) Transfer of sperm
d) Protection of the fetus
Answer: c) Transfer of sperm

31. The transfer of pollen grains from the stamen to the pistil is known as:

a) Pollination
b) Fertilization
c) Germination
d) Meiosis
Answer: a) Pollination

32. What is the name of the process during which genetic material is exchanged between two
organisms?
a) Fertilization

b) Reproduction
c) Mutation
d) Recombination
Answer: d) Recombination

33. In which type of reproduction does offspring inherit traits from both parents?

a) Asexual reproduction
b) Sexual reproduction
c) Both asexual and sexual reproduction
d) None of the above
Answer: b) Sexual reproduction

34. In plants, the fusion of male and female gametes gives rise to:

a) Zygote
b) Pollen grain
c) Fertilization
d) Seed
Answer: d) Seed

35. Which of the following is not a part of the human female reproductive system?

a) Ovary
b) Uterus
c) Testes
d) Fallopian tubes
Answer: c) Testes

36. What is the function of the stamen in a flower?

a) To produce eggs
b) To produce fruits
c) To produce pollen grains
d) To attract pollinators
Answer: c) To produce pollen grains

37. The process of asexual reproduction in bacteria is known as:

a) Binary fission
b) Budding
c) Fragmentation
d) Spore formation
Answer: a) Binary fission

38. How many parents are involved in sexual reproduction?

a) One parent
b) Two parents
c) Three parents
d) No parents
Answer: b) Two parents

39. The fusion of male and female gametes results in the formation of a:

a) Gamete
b) Zygote
c) Fetus
d) Embryo
Answer: b) Zygote

40. What is the purpose of the placenta in animals?

a) To provide nutrition to the developing offspring
b) To protect the offspring from predators
c) To produce hormones
d) To carry out photosynthesis
Answer: a) To provide nutrition to the developing offspring

41. Which of the following is not a method of asexual reproduction in plants?

a) Fragmentation
b) Grafting
c) Budding
d) Tissue culture
Answer: b) Grafting

42. How does a zygote develop into an adult organism?

a) Through metamorphosis
b) Through cellular division
c) Through pollination
d) Through fertilization
Answer: a) Through metamorphosis

43. The process of development of a new individual from a bud is called:

a) Budding
b) Pollination
c) Germination
d) Fertilization
Answer: a) Budding

44. What is the function of the oviducts in females?

a) To produce eggs
b) To produce hormones
c) To carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus
d) To secrete milk for the offspring
Answer: c) To carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus

45. What is the process of shedding the old, damaged or dead skin by snakes called?

a) Molting
b) Budding
c) Metamorphosis
d) Fertilization
Answer: a) Molting

46. Which of the following is an example of asexual reproduction in animals?

a) Regeneration in starfish
b) Pollination in bees
c) Seed production in plants
d) Sexual reproduction in humans
Answer: a) Regeneration in starfish

47. What is the function of the fallopian tubes in females?

a) To produce eggs
b) To produce hormones
c) To carry the ovum to the uterus
d) To protect the fetus
Answer: c) To carry the ovum to the uterus

48. The process of development of a new individual from a spore is known as:

a) Sporulation
b) Pollination
c) Germination
d) Fertilization
Answer: a) Sporulation

49. How does amoeba reproduce?

a) By binary fission
b) By spore formation
c) By budding
d) By fertilization
Answer: a) By binary fission

50. What is the primary purpose of the female reproductive system?

a) Production of eggs
b) Production of hormones
c) Transfer of sperm
d) Protection of the fetus
Answer: a) Production of eggs

Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution

What is the unit of heredity called?

a) Gene
b) Chromosome
c) DNA
d) Allele
Answer: a) Gene

Who is regarded as the father of genetics?

a) Charles Darwin
b) Gregor Mendel
c) Louis Pasteur
d) Alexander Fleming
Answer: b) Gregor Mendel

Which organism did Gregor Mendel study to establish the laws of inheritance?

a) Pea plant
b) Human
c) Dog
d) Fruit fly
Answer: a) Pea plant

The transfer of genetic information from parents to offspring occurs through which substance?

a) Protein
b) Carbohydrate
c) Lipid
d) DNA
Answer: d) DNA

What is the basic unit of DNA called?

a) Chromosome
b) Gene
c) Nucleotide
d) RNA
Answer: c) Nucleotide

What is the term for the outward appearance of an organism due to its genetic makeup?

a) Phenotype
b) Genotype
c) Variant
d) Mutation
Answer: a) Phenotype

Which type of traits can be directly inherited from parents to offspring?

a) Acquired traits
b) Inherited traits
c) Transferred traits
d) Environmental traits
Answer: b) Inherited traits

Who proposed the theory of natural selection?

a) Charles Darwin
b) Albert Einstein
c) Isaac Newton
d) Galileo Galilei
Answer: a) Charles Darwin

What is the process by which favorable traits become more common in a population over successive g
enerations?

a) Mutation
b) Genetic drift
c) Migration
d) Natural selection
Answer: d) Natural selection

The process of the development of a new species is known as:

a) Evolution
b) Adaptation
c) Speciation
d) Mutation
Answer: c) Speciation

Which type of evolution leads to the development of similar features in unrelated organisms due to
si
milar environmental conditions?

a) Divergent evolution
b) Convergent evolution
c) Adaptive radiation
d) Coevolution
Answer: b) Convergent evolution

The presence of organs in organisms that have lost their original function is called:

a) Homologous structures
b) Analogous structures
c) Vestigial structures
d) Adaptive structures
Answer: c) Vestigial structures

Which of the following is not a piece of evidence supporting the theory of evolution?

a) Fossils
b) Homologous structures
c) Analogous structures
d) Duplicated genes
Answer: c) Analogous structures

The study of the distribution of organisms and their evolutionary history is called:

a) Paleontology
b) Zoology
c) Biogeography
d) Taxonomy
Answer: c) Biogeography

Which process involves the movement of genes from one population to another?

a) Mutation
b) Genetic drift
c) Gene flow
d) Natural selection
Answer: c) Gene flow

The age of fossils is determined by which method?

a) Radiocarbon dating
b) Sedimentary dating
c) Fossil dating
d) Rock layer dating
Answer: a) Radiocarbon dating

Which of the following is an example of a vestigial organ in humans?

a) Appendix
b) Lungs
c) Heart
d) Liver
Answer: a) Appendix

Which type of evolutionary evidence shows the common ancestry of different organisms?

a) Embryology
b) Paleontology
c) Biogeography
d) Molecular biology
Answer: a) Embryology

The first organisms on Earth were:

a) Plants
b) Reptiles
c) Fish
d) Bacteria
Answer: d) Bacteria

Which factor is responsible for causing variations in a population?

a) Adaptation
b) Genetic drift
c) Mutation
d) Natural selection
Answer: c) Mutation

Which process involves the elimination of weaker individuals leading to the survival of the
fittest?
a) Genetic drift

b) Mutation
c) Adaptation
d) Natural selection
Answer: d) Natural selection

A sudden change in the genetic information of an organism is called:

a) Mutation
b) Variation
c) Adaptation
d) Genetic drift
Answer: a) Mutation

Which type of evolution occurs within a population leading to the formation of different species?

a) Convergent evolution
b) Divergent evolution
c) Adaptive radiation
d) Coevolution
Answer: b) Divergent evolution

Which of the following is not a preventive measure for reducing pollution?

a) Recycling
b) Planting more trees
c) Dumping waste in water bodies
d) Using alternative energy sources
Answer: c) Dumping waste in water bodies

In which type of reproduction do offsprings inherit genetic material from a single parent without
any fus

ion of gametes?
a) Asexual reproduction
b) Sexual reproduction
c) Binary fission
d) Budding
Answer: a) Asexual reproduction

Which type of variation is inheritable and leads to the formation of new species?

a) Continuous variation
b) Discontinuous variation
c) Acquired variation
d) Mutational variation
Answer: d) Mutational variation

The occurrence of minor genetic changes within a population is known as:

a) Genetic drift
b) Evolution
c) Variation
d) Speciation
Answer: c) Variation

The process of natural selection is also known as:

a) Survival of the fittest
b) Adaptation
c) Genetic drift
d) Acquired characteristics
Answer: a) Survival of the fittest

The backbone of DNA is made up of:

a) Sugars and phosphates
b) Nitrogenous bases
c) Proteins and lipids
d) Chromosomes
Answer: a) Sugars and phosphates

Which sex chromosome combination results in a male individual in humans?

a) XX
b) XY
c) YY
d) XYY
Answer: b) XY

Which disease is caused by a recessive gene on the X chromosome?

a) Hemophilia
b) Down syndrome
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Phenylketonuria
Answer: a) Hemophilia

The presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 results in which genetic disorder?

a) Down syndrome
b) Turner syndrome
c) Klinefelter syndrome
d) Huntington's disease
Answer: a) Down syndrome

Which of the following is used to determine the gender of an unborn baby?

a) Amniocentesis
b) Ultrasound
c) Blood test
d) DNA sequencing
Answer: b) Ultrasound

The study of inheritance patterns and genetic variation in populations is known as:

a) Molecular biology
b) Genetics
c) Evolutionary biology
d) Biotechnology
Answer: b) Genetics

Which of the following is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra copy of the X
chromos

ome in males?
a) Down syndrome
b) Klinefelter syndrome
c) Turner syndrome
d) Hemophilia
Answer: b) Klinefelter syndrome

The process by which genetic information is transferred from RNA to protein is called:

a) Transcription
b) Translation
c) Replication
d) Translocation
Answer: b) Translation

The phenomenon in which a genotype can produce more than one phenotype is known as:

a) Incomplete dominance
b) Codominance
c) Epistasis
d) Pleiotropy
Answer: c) Epistasis

Which type of mutation occurs when one or more nucleotides are added or deleted from the DNA seq
uence?

a) Substitution mutation
b) Deletion mutation
c) Insertion mutation
d) Frameshift mutation
Answer: d) Frameshift mutation

The process by which different species evolve in response to each other is called:

a) Convergent evolution
b) Divergent evolution
c) Adaptive radiation
d) Coevolution
Answer: d) Coevolution

Which phenomenon explains the puzzling presence of flightless birds on isolated islands?

a) Natural selection
b) Genetic drift
c) Convergent evolution
d) Adaptive radiation
Answer: c) Convergent evolution

The occurrence of a sudden change in the genetic information of an organism gives rise to:

a) Genetic drift
b) Mutation
c) Variation
d) Speciation
Answer: b) Mutation

Which process involves the elimination of individuals due to random, chance events?

a) Natural selection
b) Genetic drift
c) Adaptation
d) Mutation
Answer: b) Genetic drift

Which of the following is an example of artificial selection?

a) Breeding of dogs for specific traits
b) Survival of the fittest in nature
c) Formation of new species
d) Sexual reproduction in humans
Answer: a) Breeding of dogs for specific traits

The similarities in the early stages of development among different organisms suggest:

a) Common ancestry
b) Analogous structures
c) Divergent evolution
d) Convergent evolution
Answer: a) Common ancestry

The process of the development of new species from a common ancestor is known as:

a) Evolution
b) Adaptation
c) Mutation
d) Speciation
Answer: d) Speciation

The study of fossils is known as:

a) Paleontology
b) Biogeography
c) Morphology
d) Molecular biology
Answer: a) Paleontology

Which of the following is an example of a homologous structure?

a) Bat wing and insect wing
b) Fish fin and bird wing
c) Human arm and whale flipper
d) Butterfly wing and bird wing
Answer: c) Human arm and whale flipper

The process of genetic material being passed on from one generation to the next is called:

a) Heredity
b) Evolution
c) Mutation
d) Variation
Answer: a) Heredity

The study of how traits are inherited from parents to offspring is known as:

a) Genetics
b) Biotechnology
c) Molecular biology
d) Ecology
Answer: a) Genetics

The genetic makeup of an organism is referred to as its:

a) Genotype
b) Phenotype
c) Variant
d) Mutation
Answer: a) Genotype

Chapter 10 Light - Reflection and Refraction

When light falls on a mirror, it:

a. Bends
b. Gets absorbed
c. Reflects
d. Refracts
Answer: c. Reflects

The angle of incidence is always:

a. Greater than the angle of reflection
b. Equal to the angle of reflection
c. Less than the angle of reflection
d. Unrelated to the angle of reflection
Answer: b. Equal to the angle of reflection

The law of reflection states that the incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal at the point
of
inciden
ce all lie in the same:

a. Plane
b. Line
c. Angle
d. Axis
Answer: a. Plane

Which type of mirror always forms a virtual, erect, and magnified image?

a. Convex mirror
b. Concave mirror
c. Plane mirror
d. Spherical mirror
Answer: a. Convex mirror

The focal length of a concave mirror is:

a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Depends on the size
Answer: b. Negative

The ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays is called:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Magnification
d. Focal length
Answer: b. Refraction

A converging lens is also known as a:

a. Concave lens
b. Convex lens
c. Cylindrical lens
d. Spherical lens
Answer: b. Convex lens

The phenomena responsible for the splitting of white light into its constituent colors is called:

a. Dispersion of light
b. Diffraction of light
c. Reflection of light
d. Refraction of light
Answer: a. Dispersion of light

The minimum angle of incidence for which light undergoes total internal reflection is called:

a. Critical angle
b. Angle of refraction
c. Angle of incidence
d. Angle of reflection
Answer: a. Critical angle

The bending of light waves when it passes from one medium to another is called:

a. Dispersion
b. Reflection
c. Refraction
d. Diffraction
Answer: c. Refraction

The speed of light is maximum in:

a. Vacuum
b. Air
c. Glass
d. Water
Answer: a. Vacuum

When light waves pass from a rarer to a denser medium, they:

a. Speed up
b. Slow down
c. Stop
d. Change direction
Answer: b. Slow down

The amount of light reflected by a surface is known as its:

a. Absorption
b. Refraction
c. Transmission
d. Reflection
Answer: d. Reflection

What type of mirror is used in a rearview mirror?

a. Convex
b. Concave
c. Plane
d. Spherical
Answer: a. Convex

A concave mirror is used as a shaving mirror because it produces a/an:

a. Enlarged and erect image
b. Diminished and inverted image
c. Magnified and inverted image
d. Upright and virtual image
Answer: c. Magnified and inverted image

The point where the parallel rays of light meet or appear to meet after reflection or refraction is
called t

he:
a. Focus
b. Vertex
c. Center
d. Pole
Answer: a. Focus

The distance between the pole of a mirror or lens and its focus is called the:

a. Aperture
b. Focal length
c. Radius of curvature
d. Refractive index
Answer: b. Focal length

Which color of light has the maximum speed in a glass prism?

a. Violet
b. Red
c. Green
d. Yellow
Answer: a. Violet

When a ray of light passes through a rectangular glass slab parallel to its length, it undergoes:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Total internal reflection
d. Dispersion
Answer: b. Refraction

Which of the following colors of light bends the most while passing through a glass prism?

a. Violet
b. Red
c. Green
d. Blue
Answer: a. Violet

When a pencil partially immersed in a glass of water appears bent, it is due to the phenomenon of:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Dispersion
d. Diffraction
Answer: b. Refraction

An object placed between the pole and focus of a concave mirror forms a/an:

a. Real and inverted image
b. Virtual and inverted image
c. Virtual and erect image
d. Enlarged and erect image
Answer: c. Virtual and erect image

Which type of mirror is commonly used in magnifying glasses?

a. Convex
b. Concave
c. Plane
d. Spherical
Answer: a. Convex

The bending of waves around the edges of an obstacle or opening is called:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Diffraction
d. Dispersion
Answer: c. Diffraction

A concave lens always forms a/an:

a. Virtual, erect, and diminished image
b. Virtual, inverted, and diminished image
c. Real, inverted, and diminished image
d. Real, inverted, and enlarged image
Answer: a. Virtual, erect, and diminished image

A person with hypermetropia can see:

a. Distant objects clearly but not nearby objects
b. Nearby objects clearly but not distant objects
c. Both distant and nearby objects clearly
d. Neither distant nor nearby objects clearly
Answer: b. Nearby objects clearly but not distant objects

The phenomenon responsible for the formation of a rainbow is:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Dispersion
d. Diffraction
Answer: c. Dispersion

When a ray of light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it:

a. Bends away from the normal
b. Bends towards the normal
c. Does not bend
d. Changes its speed
Answer: a. Bends away from the normal

Multiple colors formed when white light passes through a prism is an example of:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Dispersion
d. Diffraction
Answer: c. Dispersion

Which of the following is not a property of images formed by plane mirrors?

a. Virtual
b. Inverted
c. Laterally inverted
d. Same size as the object
Answer: b. Inverted

The angle of incidence is 60°. What is the angle of reflection?

a. 30°
b. 60°
c. 90°
d. Cannot be determined
Answer: a. 30°

When a ray of light passes from a denser to a rarer medium at an angle of incidence greater than
the
critical angle, it undergoes:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Total internal reflection
d. Dispersion
Answer: c. Total internal reflection

A distorted image is formed when an object is placed between the pole and focus of a:

a. Convex mirror
b. Concave mirror
c. Plane mirror
d. Spherical mirror
Answer: b. Concave mirror

When a diver jumps in water, why does the coin at the bottom of the pool appear raised?

a. Due to reflection
b. Due to refraction
c. Due to dispersion
d. Due to total internal reflection
Answer: b. Due to refraction

The speed of light decreases when it passes from:

a. Vacuum to air
b. Air to vacuum
c. Air to glass
d. Glass to air
Answer: c. Air to glass

Which of the following angles can never be greater than 90°?

a. Angle of incidence
b. Angle of reflection
c. Critical angle
d. Angle of refraction
Answer: b. Angle of reflection

The bending of light as it passes from a rarer to a denser medium is due to a change in its:

a. Speed
b. Frequency
c. Wavelength
d. Energy
Answer: a. Speed

The unit of power of a lens is:

a. Meter
b. Joule
c. Dioptre
d. Watt
Answer: c. Dioptre

Which of the following is used to correct myopia?

a. Convex lens
b. Concave lens
c. Plane lens
d. Cylindrical lens
Answer: a. Convex lens

The phenomenon in which the upper layer of a road appears wet on a hot day due to the partial
reflect

ion of light is called:
a. Mirage
b. Rainbow
c. Twinkling of stars
d. Scattering of light
Answer: a. Mirage

The working of a periscope is based on the principle of:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Dispersion
d. Diffraction
Answer: a. Reflection

The refractive index of a medium with respect to air is always:

a. Less than 1
b. Greater than 1
c. Equal to 1
d. Negative
Answer: b. Greater than 1

An object is placed at a distance greater than the focal length of a convex lens. The image formed
will

be:
a. Real and inverted
b. Virtual and erect
c. Virtual and inverted
d. Real and erect
Answer: b. Virtual and erect

The human eye can distinguish between a large range of colors due to its property called:

a. Dispersion
b. Scattering
c. Persistence of vision
d. Accommodation
Answer: a. Dispersion

A prism can be used to break white light into its constituent colors because of the phenomenon of:

a. Reflection
b. Refraction
c. Total internal reflection
d. Dispersion
Answer: d. Dispersion

Which part of the human eye controls the amount of light entering it?

a. Cornea
b. Pupil
c. Iris
d. Retina
Answer: c. Iris

The ability of the eye to focus on nearby and distant objects by changing the shape of the lens is
calle

d:
a. Dispersion
b. Accommodation
c. Persistence of vision
d. Total internal reflection
Answer: b. Accommodation

Which of the following defects of vision is corrected using a concave lens?

a. Myopia
b. Hypermetropia
c. Presbyopia
d. Cataract
Answer: a. Myopia

The distance between the optical center of a lens and its principal focus is called:

a. Principal axis
b. Principal focus
c. Aperture
d. Focal length
Answer: d. Focal length

The image formed on the retina of the human eye is:

a. Real and inverted
b. Virtual and erect
c. Virtual and inverted
d. Real and erect
Answer: a. Real and inverted

Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Why do we see objects?

a) Because of the light they emit
b) Because of the light they reflect
c) Because of the light they absorb
d) Because of the light they transmit
Answer: b) Because of the light they reflect

Which part of the eye controls the amount of light entering?

a) Cornea
b) Pupil
c) Retina
d) Iris
Answer: d) Iris

What is the normal range of vision for a human eye?

a) 6/6
b) 6/9
c) 6/12
d) 6/18
Answer: a) 6/6

Which of the following can cause nearsightedness?

a) Elongation of the eyeball
b) Shortening of the eyeball
c) Irregular curvature of the cornea
d) Damage to the lens
Answer: a) Elongation of the eyeball

What causes color blindness?

a) Absence of rods in the retina
b) Absence of cones in the retina
c) Damage to the cornea
d) Damage to the optic nerve
Answer: b) Absence of cones in the retina

Why does the sky appear blue during the day?

a) Reflection of blue light from the Earth
b) Absorption of blue light by the atmosphere
c) Scattering of blue light by air molecules
d) Refraction of blue light by water particles
Answer: c) Scattering of blue light by air molecules

Why does the sun appear white in the afternoon?

a) The sun emits white light
b) The earth's atmosphere scatters shorter wavelengths of light
c) The sun loses its color due to heat
d) The sun's light combines with the moon's light
Answer: b) The earth's atmosphere scatters shorter wavelengths of light

What is the primary purpose of the lens in the human eye?

a) To absorb light
b) To convert light into electrical signals
c) To focus light onto the retina
d) To reflect light onto the iris
Answer: c) To focus light onto the retina

How is a rainbow formed?

a) Reflection of light from raindrops
b) Refraction and dispersion of sunlight by raindrops
c) Diffraction of light by clouds
d) Scattering of light by atmospheric pollutants
Answer: b) Refraction and dispersion of sunlight by raindrops

Which colors are present in a rainbow?

a) Red, blue, and green
b) Red, yellow, and violet
c) Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, and violet
d) Red, pink, and purple
Answer: c) Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, and violet

Why does the sky sometimes appear red during sunrise and sunset?

a) The scattering of shorter wavelengths of light
b) The absorption of longer wavelengths of light
c) The reflection of red light from the moon
d) The dispersion of sunlight by raindrops
Answer: b) The absorption of longer wavelengths of light

How does a convex lens correct farsightedness?

a) By decreasing the focal length
b) By reducing the size of the object
c) By converging light rays towards the retina
d) By diverging light rays away from the retina
Answer: c) By converging light rays towards the retina

Why do we see our image in a mirror?

a) Because the mirror emits light
b) Because the mirror absorbs light
c) Because the mirror transmits light
d) Because the mirror reflects light
Answer: d) Because the mirror reflects light

Which phenomenon is responsible for the formation of a mirage?

a) Dispersion of light
b) Total internal reflection
c) Interference of light
d) Diffraction of light
Answer: b) Total internal reflection

Why do some objects appear black?

a) Because they absorb all colors of light
b) Because they reflect all colors of light
c) Because they transmit all colors of light
d) Because they scatter all colors of light
Answer: a) Because they absorb all colors of light

Which part of the eye forms the actual image?

a) Lens
b) Pupil
c) Cornea
d) Retina
Answer: d) Retina

How does the brain perceive different colors?

a) By interpreting the intensity of light
b) By sensing the electromagnetic spectrum
c) By analyzing the wavelength of light
d) By distinguishing the amplitude of light waves
Answer: c) By analyzing the wavelength of light

What is the average lifespan of a human eye lens?

a) 30-40 years
b) 50-60 years
c) 70-80 years
d) It remains intact throughout life
Answer: d) It remains intact throughout life

Which of the following animals is known for having excellent night vision?

a) Eagle
b) Cat
c) Horse
d) Dog
Answer: b) Cat

What is the scientific term for the natural ability of the eye to focus on nearby and distant
objects?

a) Myopia
b) Astigmatism
c) Accommodation
d) Presbyopia
Answer: c) Accommodation

How does a concave lens correct nearsightedness?

a) By increasing the focal length
b) By reducing the size of the object
c) By converging light rays towards the retina
d) By diverging light rays away from the retina
Answer: d) By diverging light rays away from the retina

What is the function of the aqueous humor in the eye?

a) To provide nutrients to the lens
b) To maintain the shape of the eye
c) To absorb excess light
d) To transmit visual signals to the brain
Answer: b) To maintain the shape of the eye

How does the lens change shape to focus on near objects?

a) By thinning
b) By thickening
c) By compressing
d) By expanding
Answer: b) By thickening

What determines the color of an object?

a) The source of light falling on it
b) The size of the object
c) The speed of light hitting the object
d) The chemicals present in the object
Answer: a) The source of light falling on it

Which part of the eye is responsible for peripheral vision?

a) Retina
b) Pupil
c) Lens
d) Optic nerve
Answer: a) Retina

Which type of lens is used to correct astigmatism?

a) Convex lens
b) Concave lens
c) Bifocal lens
d) Cylindrical lens
Answer: d) Cylindrical lens

What is the range of wavelengths for visible light?

a) 1-100 nm
b) 100-1000 nm
c) 400-700 nm
d) 700-1000 nm
Answer: c) 400-700 nm

What is the purpose of the dark-adaptation process in our eyes?

a) To improve color vision
b) To adjust to low light conditions
c) To protect the retina from damage
d) To increase peripheral vision
Answer: b) To adjust to low light conditions

Which component of the eye is responsible for producing tears?

a) Retina
b) Pupil
c) Lacrimal gland
d) Ciliary body
Answer: c) Lacrimal gland

Which part of the eye is responsible for bending light and focusing it onto the retina?

a)
b) Pupil
c) Lens
d) Iris
Answer: c) Lens

What is the condition called when the lens of the eye becomes cloudy, leading to blurred vision

?
a) Glaucoma
b) Cataract
c) Astigmatism
d) Retinopathy
Answer: b) Cataract

How does the brain perceive the color green?

a) By analyzing the intensity of light
b) By detecting overlapping wavelengths of light
c) By differentiating between cool and warm colors
d) By processing reflected green light
Answer: b) By detecting overlapping wavelengths of light

Which of the following is true about the color white?

a) It is the absence of all colors
b) It is the presence of all colors
c) It is a combination of red and blue
d) It is a combination of cyan, magenta, and yellow
Answer: b) It is the presence of all colors

What happens when we move from a dimly lit room to a brightly lit room?

a) Pupil dilates
b) Pupil constricts
c) Color vision improves
d) Retina absorbs more light
Answer: b) Pupil constricts

What is an afterimage?

a) A temporary blindness after looking at a bright light
b) Retinal damage caused by excessive light exposure
c) A lingering visual impression after looking away from a bright light
d) A sudden increase in visual acuity after focusing on a distant object
Answer: c) A lingering visual impression after looking away from a bright light

How do we perceive an object as red?

a) We see all colors except red
b) We see only red light
c) We see red light mixed with other colors
d) We see red light reflected by the object
Answer: d) We see red light reflected by the object

Which structure of the eye gives it its color?

a) Retina
b) Iris
c) Cornea
d) Pupil
Answer: b) Iris

What is the condition called when our eyes fail to focus parallel rays of light on the retina,
causing blur
red vision?

a) Astigmatism
b) Myopia
c) Hyperopia
d) Presbyopia
Answer: a) Astigmatism

Which part of the eye contains the highest concentration of cone cells responsible for color vision?

a) Retina
b) Lens
c) Pupil
d) Optic nerve
Answer: a) Retina

What is the role of the vitreous humor in the eye?

a) To bend light and focus it onto the retina
b) To provide nutrients to the lens and cornea
c) To maintain the shape of the eye and support the retina
d) To transmit visual signals to the brain
Answer: c) To maintain the shape of the eye and support the retina

Why do some people wear sunglasses when exposed to bright sunlight?

a) To protect the cornea from damage
b) To enhance color vision
c) To prevent the formation of cataracts
d) To reduce the amount of light entering the eyes
Answer: d) To reduce the amount of light entering the eyes

Which part of the eye is responsible for producing the aqueous humor?

a) Retina
b) Pupil
c) Ciliary body
d) Cornea
Answer: c) Ciliary body

How does a convex lens correct presbyopia?

a) By decreasing the focal length
b) By increasing the focal length
c) By changing the shape of the lens
d) By decreasing the size of the object
Answer: b) By increasing the focal length

Which type of light is bent most by a prism?

a) Red light
b) Blue light
c) Green light
d) Yellow light
Answer: b) Blue light

How does an object appear when it is placed in front of a concave lens?

a) Bigger
b) Smaller
c) Upside-down
d) Blurred
Answer: b) Smaller

Which color is at the top of a rainbow?

a) Red
b) Orange
c) Yellow
d) Violet
Answer: a) Red

What do the colors in a rainbow represent?

a) Different wavelengths of light
b) Different temperatures
c) Different intensities of light
d) Different angles of refraction
Answer: a) Different wavelengths of light

In which direction does light bend when it passes through a prism?

a) Towards the base of the prism
b) Away from the base of the prism
c) Towards the apex of the prism
d) Away from the apex of the prism
Answer: a) Towards the base of the prism

Which phenomenon causes the formation of a secondary rainbow?

a) Total internal reflection
b) Dispersion of light
c) Multiple reflections and refractions
d) Diffraction of light
Answer: c) Multiple reflections and refractions

Which of the following objects does not refract light?

a) Glass prism
b) Water droplet
c) Plane mirror
d) Convex lens
Answer: c) Plane mirror

Chapter 12 Electricity

What is electricity?

a) The flow of electrons
b) The flow of protons
c) The flow of neutrons
d) The flow of atoms
Answer: a) The flow of electrons

Which particle carries an electric charge?

a) Proton
b) Electron
c) Neutron
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

Which device is used to measure electric current?

a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer
d) Resistor
Answer: a) Ammeter

The unit of electric current is:

a) Volt
b) Watt
c) Ampere
d) Ohm
Answer: c) Ampere

What is the SI unit of electric charge?

a) Volt
b) Watt
c) Ampere
d) Coulomb
Answer: d) Coulomb

Which type of current is used in our homes?

a) Direct current
b) Alternating current
c) Static current
d) Ground current
Answer: b) Alternating current

What is the resistance of a good conductor?

a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) Zero
Answer: b) Low

Which law describes the relationship between current, voltage, and resistance?

a) Boyle's law
b) Ohm's law
c) Newton's law
d) Pascal's law
Answer: b) Ohm's law

When resistance increases, what happens to the current in a circuit?

a) It increases
b) It decreases
c) It remains the same
d) It becomes zero
Answer: b) It decreases

Which material is a good conductor of electricity?

a) Plastic
b) Rubber
c) Wood
d) Copper
Answer: d) Copper

Which safety device is used to protect electrical circuits from overloading?

a) Fuse
b) Switch
c) Bulb
d) Resistor
Answer: a) Fuse

What is the color coding of the live wire in electrical circuits?

a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Blue
Answer: a) Red

Which component of an electric circuit stores electrical energy?

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Diode
d) Transistor
Answer: b) Capacitor

Which device is used to convert AC to DC?

a) Transformer
b) Resistor
c) Capacitor
d) Rectifier
Answer: d) Rectifier

Which type of battery is commonly used in inverters?

a) Alkaline battery
b) Lead-acid battery
c) Nickel-cadmium battery
d) Lithium-ion battery
Answer: b) Lead-acid battery

What is the unit of electric power?

a) Volt
b) Ampere
c) Watt
d) Ohm
Answer: c) Watt

Which law states that the total voltage in a series circuit is equal to the sum of individual
voltages?

a) Newton's law
b) Kirchhoff's law
c) Ohm's law
d) Pascal's law
Answer: b) Kirchhoff's law

Which type of circuit has only one path for current to flow?

a) Parallel circuit
b) Series circuit
c) Mixed circuit
d) Complex circuit
Answer: b) Series circuit

What happens when two bulbs are connected in series and one bulb burns out?

a) The other bulb becomes brighter
b) The other bulb remains the same
c) The other bulb becomes dimmer
d) The other bulb also burns out
Answer: c) The other bulb becomes dimmer

Which electrical component is used to control the flow of current in a circuit?

a) Transistor
b) Capacitor
c) Resistor
d) Fuse
Answer: a) Transistor

Which law states that the current passing through a conductor is directly proportional to the
voltage ap

plied across it, provided temperature remains constant?
a) Boyle's law
b) Ohm's law
c) Newton's law
d) Pascal's law
Answer: b) Ohm's law

Which type of magnet is used in a simple electric doorbell?

a) Permanent magnet
b) Electromagnet
c) Bar magnet
d) Temporary magnet
Answer: b) Electromagnet

Which safety device is used to protect electric appliances from sudden high voltage surges?

a) Capacitor
b) Transistor
c) Surge protector
d) Amplifier
Answer: c) Surge protector

What is the smallest unit of electricity?

a) Ampere
b) Volt
c) Watt
d) Electron
Answer: d) Electron

Which device is used to measure electric potential difference?

a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer
d) Battery
Answer: b) Voltmeter

What is the resistance of a superconductor?

a) High
b) Low
c) Moderate
d) Zero
Answer: d) Zero

Which type of circuit has multiple paths for current to flow?

a) Parallel circuit
b) Series circuit
c) Mixed circuit
d) Complex circuit
Answer: a) Parallel circuit

What happens when two bulbs are connected in parallel and one bulb burns out?

a) The other bulb becomes brighter
b) The other bulb remains the same
c) The other bulb becomes dimmer
d) The other bulb also burns out
Answer: b) The other bulb remains the same

What is the color coding of the neutral wire in electrical circuits?

a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Blue
Answer: d) Blue

Which part of an electric circuit controls the flow of electrons?

a) Conductor
b) Insulator
c) Switch
d) Battery
Answer: c) Switch

What is the symbol for a resistor in an electrical circuit diagram?

a) A zigzag line
b) A circle
c) A straight line
d) A triangle
Answer: a) A zigzag line

What does the term "short circuit" mean?

a) When two wires touch each other
b) When a circuit has excess resistance
c) When a circuit has low current
d) When a circuit has high voltage
Answer: a) When two wires touch each other

What happens to the voltage in a parallel circuit?

a) It decreases
b) It increases
c) It remains the same
d) It becomes zero
Answer: c) It remains the same

Which law states that the total resistance in a series circuit is equal to the sum of individual
resistance
s?

a) Newton's law
b) Kirchhoff's law
c) Ohm's law
d) Pascal's law
Answer: b) Kirchhoff's law

Which type of circuit has both series and parallel components?

a) Parallel circuit
b) Series circuit
c) Mixed circuit
d) Complex circuit
Answer: c) Mixed circuit

What is the purpose of an insulator in an electric circuit?

a) To control the flow of current
b) To prevent the flow of current
c) To amplify the current
d) To store the current
Answer: b) To prevent the flow of current

Which component of an electric circuit converts electrical energy into light energy?

a) Transistor
b) Capacitor
c) Resistor
d) Bulb
Answer: d) Bulb

What is the formula to calculate electric power?

a) P = V/I
b) P = I/V
c) P = R/V
d) P = V/R
Answer: a) P = V/I

Which law states that the sum of currents entering a junction is equal to the sum of currents
leaving th
e junction?

a) Newton's law
b) Kirchhoff's law
c) Ohm's law
d) Pascal's law
Answer: b) Kirchhoff's law

Which type of magnet loses its magnetism quickly?

a) Permanent magnet
b) Electromagnet
c) Bar magnet
d) Temporary magnet
Answer: d) Temporary magnet

Which safety device is used to protect electrical circuits from overcurrents?

a) Fuse
b) Switch
c) Bulb
d) Resistor
Answer: a) Fuse

What is the purpose of grounding an electrical appliance?

a) To prevent short circuits
b) To reduce electric bills
c) To increase the voltage
d) To reduce electric shocks
Answer: d) To reduce electric shocks

What is the color coding of the earth wire in electrical circuits?

a) Red
b) Green
c) Yellow
d) Blue
Answer: b) Green

Which statement about electric charges is true?

a) Like charges attract each other
b) Unlike charges repel each other
c) Like charges repel each other
d) Unlike charges do not interact
Answer: c) Like charges repel each other

Which component of an electric circuit stores electric current?

a) Resistor
b) Capacitor
c) Diode
d) Transistor
Answer: b) Capacitor

What is the purpose of a rectifier in an electric circuit?

a) To measure current
b) To measure voltage
c) To convert AC to DC
d) To convert DC to AC
Answer: c) To convert AC to DC

Which type of battery is commonly used in mobile phones?

a) Alkaline battery
b) Lead-acid battery
c) Nickel-cadmium battery
d) Lithium-ion battery
Answer: d) Lithium-ion battery

What is the unit of electrical resistance?

a) Volt
b) Ampere
c) Watt
d) Ohm
Answer: d) Ohm

Which law describes the relationship between the potential difference, current, and resistance in an
el
ectrical circuit?
a) Boyle's law
b) Ohm's law
c) Newton's law
d) Pascal's law
Answer: b) Ohm's law

What happens to the current in a circuit when the resistance is doubled?

a) It doubles
b) It halves
c) It remains the same
d) It becomes zero
Answer: b) It halves

Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

What is the phenomenon of a compass needle getting deflected when brought near a current-carrying
wire?

a) Magnetic effect of electric current
b) Electromagnetic induction
c) Static electricity
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Magnetic effect of electric current

Which scientist discovered the relationship between electricity and magnetism?

a) Michael Faraday
b) Albert Einstein
c) Isaac Newton
d) Thomas Edison
Answer: a) Michael Faraday

The magnetic field produced by a current-carrying wire is:

a) Circular
b) Linear
c) Rectangular
d) Spiral
Answer: a) Circular

What happens to the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire if the current is increased?

a) It becomes weaker
b) It becomes stronger
c) It remains the same
d) It disappears
Answer: b) It becomes stronger

Which rule is used to determine the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire?

a) Fleming's left-hand rule
b) Fleming's right-hand rule
c) Lenz's law
d) Kirchhoff's law
Answer: b) Fleming's right-hand rule

The SI unit of magnetic field strength is:

a) Volt
b) Ampere
c) Ohm
d) Tesla
Answer: d) Tesla

What is the purpose of using a solenoid in an electromagnet?

a) To increase magnetic field strength
b) To decrease magnetic field strength
c) To change the direction of the magnetic field
d) To generate an electric current
Answer: a) To increase magnetic field strength

Which type of magnet is used in electric bells?

a) Permanent magnet
b) Temporary magnet
c) Electromagnet
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Electromagnet

What is the principle behind the working of an electric generator?

a) Electromagnetic induction
b) Photoelectric effect
c) Faraday's law of electrolysis
d) Archimedes' principle
Answer: a) Electromagnetic induction

Which device converts electrical energy into mechanical energy?

a) Transformer
b) Generator
c) Motor
d) Inductor
Answer: c) Motor

What is the purpose of using split rings (commutator) in a DC motor?

a) To change the direction of current flow
b) To regulate the speed of the motor
c) To convert AC to DC
d) To control the temperature of the motor
Answer: a) To change the direction of current flow

In a transformer, if the number of turns in the primary coil is greater than the number of turns in the
se
condary coil, then it is called a:

a) Step-up transformer
b) Step-down transformer
c) AC transformer
d) DC transformer
Answer: a) Step-up transformer

Which type of current is used in household electrical appliances?

a) Alternating current (AC)
b) Direct current (DC)
c) Both AC and DC
d) None of the above
Answer: a) Alternating current (AC)

What is the frequency of electricity supplied to our homes?

a) 50 Hz
b) 60 Hz
c) 100 Hz
d) 120 Hz
Answer: a) 50 Hz

What is the purpose of an Earth wire in an electric circuit?

a) To provide safety from electric shocks
b) To control the voltage
c) To switch on and off the circuit
d) To increase the current flow
Answer: a) To provide safety from electric shocks

The phenomenon of producing a temporary magnet due to the presence of a strong magnetic field is c
alled:

a) Magnetic induction
b) Electromagnetic induction
c) Magnetic domain
d) Magnetic permeability
Answer: a) Magnetic induction

What is the relationship between an electric current and the strength of the magnetic field produced ar
ound it?

a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) No relationship
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: a) Directly proportional

Which type of magnet is made from a material that retains its magnetism for a longer time?

a) Soft magnet
b) Hard magnet
c) Permanent magnet
d) Temporary magnet
Answer: c) Permanent magnet

What is the unit of electric current?

a) Ohm
b) Farad
c) Ampere
d) Joule
Answer: c) Ampere

What is the effect of passing an electric current through a straight conductor?

a) It creates a magnetic field around it
b) It generates heat
c) It breaks the conductor
d) It changes the color of the conductor
Answer: a) It creates a magnetic field around it

Which law states that the magnetic field produced around a closed loop of wire is directly proportional
to the current passing through it?

a) Ampere's law
b) Gauss's law
c) Ohm's law
d) Faraday's law
Answer: a) Ampere's law

What happens to the direction of the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire if the direction of
th

e current is reversed?
a) It remains the same
b) It becomes weaker
c) It becomes stronger
d) It reverses
Answer: d) It reverses

Which material is used as a core in an electromagnet?

a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Iron
d) Aluminum
Answer: c) Iron

What is the purpose of using a fuse in an electric circuit?

a) To control the flow of current
b) To convert AC to DC
c) To provide safety from short circuits
d) To increase the resistance
Answer: c) To provide safety from short circuits

When a current-carrying conductor is placed in a magnetic field, it experiences a force. This phenome
non is known as:

a) Magnetic induction
b) Electromagnetic induction
c) Magnetic effect of electric current
d) Magnetic domain
Answer: c) Magnetic effect of electric current

What is the purpose of using a galvanometer in a circuit?

a) To measure electric current
b) To amplify electrical signals
c) To regulate voltage
d) To generate electricity
Answer: a) To measure electric current

What do we call the property of a material that allows it to be temporarily magnetized?

a) Magnetic induction
b) Magnetic permeability
c) Magnetic field
d) Magnetic domain
Answer: b) Magnetic permeability

Which type of circuit allows only one path for electric current to flow?

a) Series circuit
b) Parallel circuit
c) Combination circuit
d) Open circuit
Answer: a) Series circuit

What is the purpose of using an iron core in a transformer?

a) To make it lightweight
b) To increase the resistance
c) To decrease the efficiency
d) To enhance the magnetic field
Answer: d) To enhance the magnetic field

What is the basic principle behind the working of an electric bell?

a) Electromagnetic induction
b) Photoelectric effect
c) Magnetic induction
d) Electric resistance
Answer: a) Electromagnetic induction

What is the unit of electric power?

a) Volt
b) Ampere
c) Joule
d) Watt
Answer: d) Watt

What is the relationship between the number of turns in the primary coil and the secondary coil of a
tra
nsformer?

a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) No relationship
d) Cannot be determined
Answer: b) Inversely proportional

Which instrument is used to measure the strength and direction of a magnetic field?

a) Ammeter
b) Voltmeter
c) Galvanometer
d) Magnetometer
Answer: d) Magnetometer

What is the purpose of using a superconductor in a transformer?

a) To increase efficiency
b) To reduce magnetic field strength
c) To regulate voltage
d) To generate electricity
Answer: a) To increase efficiency

What happens to the current passing through a conductor if the magnetic field applied to it is increase
d?

a) Current decreases
b) Current increases
c) Current remains the same
d) Current becomes zero
Answer: b) Current increases

Which phenomenon explains the production of electric current in a coil due to the relative motion betw
een the coil and a magnetic field?

a) Magnetic induction
b) Electromagnetic induction
c) Magnetic permeability
d) Magnetic effect of electric current
Answer: b) Electromagnetic induction

What is the purpose of using a step-down transformer in a power distribution system?

a) To decrease voltage
b) To increase voltage
c) To regulate current
d) To convert DC to AC
Answer: a) To decrease voltage

What is the purpose of using an insulating material around a wire in an electric circuit?

a) To increase resistance
b) To protect from electric shocks
c) To reduce the current flow
d) To control voltage
Answer: b) To protect from electric shocks

What happens if two south poles or two north poles of magnets are brought close together?

a) They attract each other
b) They repel each other
c) They rotate
d) They cancel each other's magnetic field
Answer: b) They repel each other

Which law explains the production of an induced current in a closed loop due to the relative motion bet
ween the loop and a magnetic field?

a) Ampere's law
b) Gauss's law
c) Ohm's law
d) Faraday's law
Answer: d) Faraday's law

What is the direction of the magnetic field inside a solenoid?

a) Clockwise
b) Counterclockwise
c) From south to north
d) From north to south
Answer: d) From north to south

What is the purpose of using an electric fuse in a circuit?

a) To control voltage
b) To protect electrical appliances
c) To switch on and off the circuit
d) To generate electricity
Answer: b) To protect electrical appliances

What do we call the area around a magnet where its magnetic influence can be detected?

a) Magnetic induction
b) Magnetic field
c) Magnetic permeability
d) Magnetic domain
Answer: b) Magnetic field

What happens to the strength of the magnetic field around a current-carrying wire if the distance from
the wire is increased?

a) Strength decreases
b) Strength increases
c) Strength remains the same
d) Strength becomes zero
Answer: a) Strength decreases

What is the purpose of using an electric switch in a circuit?

a) To control the flow of current
b) To convert AC to DC
c) To generate electricity
d) To measure voltage
Answer: a) To control the flow of current

Which device is used to step-up or step-down voltage in a power distribution system?

a) Generator
b) Motor
c) Transformer
d) Battery
Answer: c) Transformer

What is the purpose of using a capacitor in an electric circuit?

a) To store electrical energy
b) To regulate voltage
c) To generate electricity
d) To measure current
Answer: a) To store electrical energy

What do we call the tiny magnetic regions present in a material that align to form a magnetic field?

a) Magnetic induction
b) Magnetic domain
c) Magnetic permeability
d) Magnetic field
Answer: b) Magnetic domain

Which type of circuit provides multiple paths for electric current to flow?

a) Series circuit
b) Parallel circuit
c) Combination circuit
d) Open circuit
Answer: b) Parallel circuit

What is the purpose of using a diode in an electric circuit?

a) To convert AC to DC
b) To measure voltage
c) To increase resistance
d) To store electrical energy
Answer: a) To convert AC to DC

Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Solar energy
d) Uranium
Answer: c) Solar energy

Which form of energy is obtained from the sun?

a) Geothermal energy
b) Nuclear energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wind energy
Answer: c) Solar energy

Which fossil fuel is formed from the remains of prehistoric marine plants and animals?

a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Petroleum
d) Uranium
Answer: a) Coal

Which of the following is a non-renewable source of energy?

a) Wind energy
b) Geothermal energy
c) Biomass energy
d) Nuclear energy
Answer: d) Nuclear energy

In a hydroelectric power plant, energy is generated by:

a) Burning fossil fuels
b) Harnessing wind power
c) The force of flowing water
d) Capturing solar radiation
Answer: c) The force of flowing water

Which source of energy is known as the "fuel of the future"?

a) Nuclear energy
b) Geothermal energy
c) Biomass energy
d) Hydrogen fuel cells
Answer: d) Hydrogen fuel cells

Which type of coal has the highest carbon content?

a) Peat
b) Lignite
c) Bituminous
d) Anthracite
Answer: d) Anthracite

Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Solar energy
b) Wind energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Natural gas
Answer: d) Natural gas

Which type of energy is produced by the burning of fossil fuels?

a) Geothermal energy
b) Biomass energy
c) Thermal energy
d) Nuclear energy
Answer: c) Thermal energy

Which of the following is an example of a biomass energy source?

a) Wind
b) Sunlight
c) Biogas
d) Uranium
Answer: c) Biogas

The process of splitting an atomic nucleus is called:

a) Nuclear fission
b) Nuclear fusion
c) Radioactive decay
d) Combustion
Answer: a) Nuclear fission

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using fossil fuels?

a) They are expensive to extract
b) They produce greenhouse gases
c) They have limited availability
d) They are difficult to transport
Answer: b) They produce greenhouse gases

Which renewable source of energy uses the gravitational pull of the moon?

a) Solar energy
b) Tidal energy
c) Wind energy
d) Geothermal energy
Answer: b) Tidal energy

Which of the following is the cleanest source of energy?

a) Biomass energy
b) Geothermal energy
c) Wind energy
d) Solar energy
Answer: d) Solar energy

Which source of energy is used in nuclear power plants to generate electricity?

a) Uranium
b) Natural gas
c) Biomass
d) Wind power
Answer: a) Uranium

Which of the following is an example of a renewable source of energy?

a) Coal
b) Oil
c) Natural gas
d) Wind power
Answer: d) Wind power

Which type of solar energy technology converts sunlight directly into electricity?

a) Solar water heaters
b) Solar cells
c) Solar cookers
d) Solar thermal power plants
Answer: b) Solar cells

Energy produced from the nucleus of an atom is called:

a) Thermal energy
b) Chemical energy
c) Nuclear energy
d) Electrical energy
Answer: c) Nuclear energy

Which renewable energy source is a result of the sun's uneven heating of the Earth's surface?

a) Geothermal energy
b) Biomass energy
c) Wind energy
d) Hydroelectric energy
Answer: c) Wind energy

Which energy resource is obtained by breaking down organic matter in the absence of air?

a) Natural gas
b) Petroleum
c) Coal
d) Biogas
Answer: d) Biogas

The source of energy for the sun is:

a) Nuclear fission
b) Nuclear fusion
c) Geothermal heat
d) Combustion
Answer: b) Nuclear fusion

Which of the following is not a renewable source of energy?

a) Biomass energy
b) Solar energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Petroleum
Answer: d) Petroleum

What is the unit of power?

a) Watt
b) Joule
c) Newton
d) Kilogram
Answer: a) Watt

Which source of energy is obtained by tapping underground steam?

a) Wind energy
b) Geothermal energy
c) Biomass energy
d) Tidal energy
Answer: b) Geothermal energy

In a nuclear power plant, the reaction takes place in the:

a) Solar cells
b) Wind turbines
c) Nuclear reactor
d) Steam turbine
Answer: c) Nuclear reactor

What is the process called when plants convert sunlight into chemical energy?

a) Combustion
b) Photosynthesis
c) Respiration
d) Decomposition
Answer: b) Photosynthesis

Which fossil fuel is most widely used for electricity generation?

a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Oil
d) Peat
Answer: a) Coal

Which of the following is a clean source of energy that does not emit any pollutants?

a) Oil
b) Natural gas
c) Biomass energy
d) Hydroelectric energy
Answer: d) Hydroelectric energy

What is the primary source of energy for living organisms?

a) Coal
b) Sunlight
c) Natural gas
d) Biomass energy
Answer: b) Sunlight

Which type of energy transformation occurs in a solar-powered calculator?

a) Solar energy to electrical energy
b) Electrical energy to heat energy
c) Heat energy to mechanical energy
d) Mechanical energy to sound energy
Answer: a) Solar energy to electrical energy

What is the main disadvantage of using solar energy?

a) It is expensive to install solar panels
b) It is a non-renewable source of energy
c) It requires a large area for solar farms
d) It only works during daylight hours
Answer: a) It is expensive to install solar panels

Which energy resource generates electricity by the rapid flow of water in a river or dam?

a) Natural gas
b) Solar energy
c) Wind power
d) Hydroelectric power
Answer: d) Hydroelectric power

Which form of energy is obtained from the heat stored within the Earth's crust?

a) Solar energy
b) Geothermal energy
c) Nuclear energy
d) Wind energy
Answer: b) Geothermal energy

Which fossil fuel is primarily composed of methane?

a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Petroleum
d) Peat
Answer: b) Natural gas

Which source of energy is also known as "black gold"?

a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Uranium
d) Petroleum
Answer: d) Petroleum

Which source of energy uses the gravitational force of falling or flowing water?

a) tidal energy
b) wind energy
c) solar energy
d) hydroelectric energy
Answer: d) hydroelectric energy

Which energy transformation occurs in a food chain?

a) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
b) Potential energy to kinetic energy
c) Radiant energy to chemical energy
d) Heat energy to sound energy
Answer: c) Radiant energy to chemical energy

What is the basic unit of energy?

a) Joule
b) Newton
c) Watt
d) Ampere
Answer: a) Joule

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind energy?

a) It is a non-renewable source of energy
b) It is expensive to set up wind turbines
c) It produces noise pollution
d) It requires large amounts of water
Answer: c) It produces noise pollution

Which renewable energy source is generated from the heat stored in the Earth's crust?

a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Geothermal energy
d) Biomass energy
Answer: c) Geothermal energy

When a nuclear reaction takes place, a large amount of:

a) Heat energy is released
b) Light energy is absorbed
c) Sound energy is produced
d) Electrical energy is wasted
Answer: a) Heat energy is released

Which of the following is an example of a biofuel?

a) Natural gas
b) Coal
c) Ethanol
d) Uranium
Answer: c) Ethanol

Which source of energy is obtained from the ocean's tides?

a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Tidal energy
d) Biomass energy
Answer: c) Tidal energy

Which form of energy transformation occurs in a hydroelectric power station?

a) Thermal energy to mechanical energy
b) Mechanical energy to electrical energy
c) Chemical energy to thermal energy
d) Electrical energy to sound energy
Answer: b) Mechanical energy to electrical energy

Which renewable energy source uses organic matter to produce heat or electricity?

a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Biomass energy
d) Geothermal energy
Answer: c) Biomass energy

The conversion of one form of energy into another form is called:

a) Conservation of energy
b) Energy transfer
c) Energy transformation
d) Energy storage
Answer: c) Energy transformation

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using nuclear energy?

a) It produces greenhouse gases
b) It generates radioactive waste
c) It is expensive to build nuclear power plants
d) It has limited availability of resources
Answer: b) It generates radioactive waste

Which of the following is a renewable energy source derived from living organisms?

a) Natural gas
b) Uranium
c) Fossil fuels
d) Biomass energy
Answer: d) Biomass energy

Which energy resource harnesses the heat energy generated by the decay of radioactive elements?

a) Uranium
b) Geothermal energy
c) Natural gas
d) Biomass energy
Answer: b) Geothermal energy

What is the primary source of energy for fossil fuels?

a) Geothermal heat
b) Wind power
c) Nuclear reactions
d) Solar radiation
Answer: b) Solar radiation

Chapter 15 Our Environment

Which of the following is a non-renewable natural resource?

a) Sunlight
b) Water
c) Natural gas
d) Wind
(Answer: c)

What is the primary source of energy in the environment?

a) Fossil fuels
b) Solar energy
c) Nuclear power
d) Biomass
(Answer: b)

Ozone layer depletion is primarily caused by:

a) Carbon dioxide emission
b) Aerosol sprays
c) Acid rain
d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
(Answer: d)

The process by which green plants prepare food is called:

a) Respiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Transpiration
d) Digestion
(Answer: b)

Which of the following is an example of a decomposer?

a) Earthworm
b) Lion
c) Deer
d) Frog
(Answer: a)

The term 'biodegradable' refers to substances that:

a) Cannot be broken down by natural processes
b) Break down easily in the environment
c) Are harmful to the environment
d) Produce greenhouse gases
(Answer: b)

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogen
d) Helium
(Answer: b)

Which one of the following gases traps the largest amount of heat in the Earth's atmosphere?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Methane
c) Ozone
d) Nitrous oxide
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is primarily responsible for global warming?

a) Natural disasters
b) Deforestation
c) Ozone depletion
d) Greenhouse gases
(Answer: d)

The process of conversion of nitrogen gas into nitrogen compounds is called:

a) Nitrification
b) Ammonification
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Denitrification
(Answer: c)

Which of the following is a natural ecosystem?

a) Garden
b) Aquarium
c) Forest
d) Farm
(Answer: c)

What is the primary source of water pollution?

a) Industrial waste
b) Household sewage
c) Agricultural runoff
d) Oil spills
(Answer: b)

What is the main cause of soil erosion?

a) Overgrazing
b) Deforestation
c) Excessive use of fertilizers
d) Urbanization
(Answer: b)

Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Solar power
d) Petroleum
(Answer: c)

What is the process of separation of solid waste into different categories for recycling called?

a) Incineration
b) Composting
c) Segregation
d) Landfilling
(Answer: c)

The ozone layer is located in which layer of the Earth's atmosphere?

a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere
d) Thermosphere
(Answer: b)

Acid rain is caused by the emission of which gases?

a) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides
b) Carbon dioxide and methane
c) Chlorofluorocarbons and ozone
d) Carbon monoxide and hydrogen sulphide
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is a non-biodegradable waste?

a) Plastic bottle
b) Fruit peel
c) Paper bag
d) Vegetable waste
(Answer: a)

Which of the following nutrients is essential for plant growth and is often found in fertilizers?

a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon
(Answer: a)

What is the process of conversion of ammonia into nitrates called?

a) Nitrification
b) Ammonification
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Denitrification
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?

a) Soil
b) Air
c) Water
d) Plants
(Answer: d)

What is the term for the gradual increase in the Earth's average temperature due to human activities?
a) Global warming

b) Acid rain
c) Ozone depletion
d) Biological magnification
(Answer: a)

Which of the following natural phenomena helps in balancing carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere
?

a) Photosynthesis
b) Respiration
c) Volcanic eruptions
d) Forest fires
(Answer: a)

The increase in the concentration of harmful substances at each trophic level is known as:

a) Biomagnification
b) Ecological succession
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Deforestation
(Answer: a)

The process of conversion of nitrates back into nitrogen gas is called:

a) Nitrification
b) Ammonification
c) Nitrogen fixation
d) Denitrification
(Answer: d)

What is the effect of deforestation on the environment?

a) Soil erosion
b) Loss of biodiversity
c) Increased carbon dioxide levels
d) All of the above
(Answer: d)

The gradual change in the composition of a community over time is known as:

a) Ecological succession
b) Eutrophication
c) Pollution
d) Urbanization
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

a) Natural gas
b) Coal
c) Uranium
d) Solar energy
(Answer: d)

What is the term for the conversion of complex organic matter into simpler compounds by decompose
rs?

a) Decomposition
b) Photosynthesis
c) Combustion
d) Respiration
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas released by the burning of fossil fuels?

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Nitrogen
(Answer: c)

What is the primary cause of water pollution in rivers and lakes?

a) Industrial waste
b) Agricultural runoff
c) Oil spills
d) Household sewage
(Answer: d)

What is the term for the process of breaking down complex substances into simpler ones by the action
of sunlight?

a) Photosynthesis
b) Respiration
c) Decomposition
d) Fermentation
(Answer: a)

What is the primary source of noise pollution in urban areas?

a) Vehicles
b) Construction activities
c) Loud music
d) Industrial machinery
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is a source of freshwater on the Earth's surface?

a) Oceans
b) Glaciers
c) Rivers
d) All of the above
(Answer: c)

What is the process of conversion of solid waste into organic manure called?

a) Composting
b) Landfilling
c) Recycling
d) Incineration
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is a step towards sustainable development?

a) Conservation of natural resources
b) Increasing pollution levels
c) Overexploitation of resources
d) Deforestation
(Answer: a)

What is the term for the gradual increase in the salt content of soil due to irrigation?

a) Eutrophication
b) Desertification
c) Salinization
d) Leaching
(Answer: c)

Which of the following is responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer?

a) UV radiation
b) Acid rain
c) Deforestation
d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
(Answer: d)

What is the term for the process of removing pollutants from industrial waste before it is discharged
int

o water bodies?
a) Sedimentation
b) Filtration
c) Distillation
d) Water treatment
(Answer: d)

Which of the following is an example of a renewable natural resource?

a) Natural gas
b) Coal
c) Oil
d) Wind energy
(Answer: d)

Which of the following is a measure to conserve water?

a) Rainwater harvesting
b) Excessive use of water
c) Overflowing of water tanks
d) Water pollution
(Answer: a)

What is the term for the harmful substances released into the air, water, or soil?

a) Non-renewable resources
b) Ecosystems
c) Pollutants
d) Bioaccumulation
(Answer: c)

Which of the following organisms is responsible for the nitrogen-fixing process?

a) Bacteria
b) Fungi
c) Algae
d) Worms
(Answer: a)

What is the term for the process of gradual replacement of one type of community by another in an ar
ea?

a) Ecological succession
b) Eutrophication
c) Pollution
d) Urbanization
(Answer: a)

The excessive growth of algae in water bodies due to the presence of nutrients is known as:

a) Eutrophication
b) Biomagnification
c) Desertification
d) Nitrification
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is an example of a non-renewable natural resource?

a) Sunlight
b) Wind
c) Water
d) Fossil fuels
(Answer: d)

What is the term for the process of burning organic matter in the presence of oxygen to obtain energy
?

a) Combustion
b) Fermentation
c) Photosynthesis
d) Respiration
(Answer: a)

Which one of the following activities leads to land pollution?

a) Deforestation
b) Water conservation
c) Recycling
d) Use of organic fertilizers
(Answer: a)

Which of the following is a result of human interference in the natural environment?

a) Increased biodiversity
b) Global warming
c) Water conservation
d) Soil erosion
(Answer: b)

What is the term for the process of reusing or reprocessing waste materials to create new products

?
a) Composting
b) Segregation
c) Recycling
d) Incineration
(Answer: c)

Chapter 16 Sustainable Management of Natural Resources

Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

a) Wind energy
b) Solar energy
c) Coal
d) Geothermal energy
Answer: c) Coal

Recycling helps in conserving which type of resources?

a) Renewable resources
b) Non-renewable resources
c) Both renewable and non-renewable resources
d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both renewable and non-renewable resources

Which of the following is an example of a renewable resource?

a) Natural gas
b) Fossil fuels
c) Water
d) Metallic minerals
Answer: c) Water

Which type of resources are obtained from nature's processes, without human intervention?

a) Biotic resources
b) Abiotic resources
c) Artificial resources
d) Non-exhaustible resources
Answer: b) Abiotic resources

Which of the following is a method of soil conservation?

a) Afforestation
b) Deforestation
c) Overgrazing
d) Monoculture farming
Answer: a) Afforestation

Which of the following causes the depletion of the ozone layer?

a) Nitrogen oxides
b) Oxygen
c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

Which of the following is an example of a non-biodegradable waste?

a) Paper
b) Fruit peels
c) Plastic bags
d) Vegetable waste
Answer: c) Plastic bags

What is the process of removing salt from seawater to obtain freshwater called?

a) Condensation
b) Distillation
c) Filtration
d) Evaporation
Answer: b) Distillation

Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Biomass
d) Nuclear power
Answer: c) Biomass

Which of the following is an example of sustainable use of forests?

a) Clear-cutting forests
b) Illegal logging
c) Planting new trees after logging
d) Burning forests for urban development
Answer: c) Planting new trees after logging

What is the primary cause of air pollution?

a) Natural disasters
b) Volcanic eruptions
c) Industrial emissions
d) Vehicle exhausts
Answer: c) Industrial emissions

Which of the following is a method of water conservation at homes?

a) Watering plants during the hottest hours of the day
b) Fixing leaking taps and pipes
c) Using excessive water for cleaning
d) Disposing of wastewater into rivers
Answer: b) Fixing leaking taps and pipes

Which international protocol aims to protect the ozone layer?

a) Montreal Protocol
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) Paris Agreement
d) Vienna Convention
Answer: a) Montreal Protocol

Which of the following is not an advantage of wind energy?

a) Renewable source
b) No harmful emissions
c) Reliable and stable energy production
d) It requires open spaces for installation
Answer: c) Reliable and stable energy production

What is the process of conversion of solid waste into compost called?

a) Vermicomposting
b) Incineration
c) Recycling
d) Landfilling
Answer: a) Vermicomposting

Which of the following is an example of a natural ecosystem?

a) Aquarium
b) Zoo
c) Desert
d) Botanical garden
Answer: c) Desert

Which of the following is a non-conventional source of energy?

a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Solar energy
d) Petroleum
Answer: c) Solar energy

What is the term used for the sustainable use and management of forests?

a) Afforestation
b) Deforestation
c) Reforestation
d) Silviculture
Answer: d) Silviculture

Which of the following is the national bird of India that is conserved under wildlife protection laws?
a) Sparrow

b) Peacock
c) Crow
d) Pigeon
Answer: b) Peacock

What is the process of growing genetically identical plants using small tissue pieces called?

a) Vegetative propagation
b) Cross-breeding
c) Genetic modification
d) Hybridization
Answer: a) Vegetative propagation

In which layer of the atmosphere does the maximum concentration of ozone exist?

a) Troposphere
b) Stratosphere
c) Mesosphere
d) Exosphere
Answer: b) Stratosphere

What is the term used for the minimum population of a species required to sustain itself in its natural
h

abitat?
a) Biodiversity hotspot
b) Endangered species
c) Keystone species
d) Minimum viable population
Answer: d) Minimum viable population

Which of the following is not a method of water pollution?

a) Industrial waste discharge
b) Oil spills
c) Overuse of fertilizers
d) Rainwater harvesting
Answer: d) Rainwater harvesting

What is the term used for the practice of growing different crops in a field in a pre-planned
succession
?

a) Monoculture
b) Polyculture
c) Multiple cropping
d) Crop rotation
Answer: d) Crop rotation

Which is the major greenhouse gas contributing to global warming?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Nitrogen
d) Hydrogen
Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

What is the main aim of sustainable development?

a) Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations
b) Exploitation of resources for maximum profits
c) Industrialization at any cost
d) Preserving natural resources for personal benefits
Answer: a) Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations

Which of the following is an example of a mineral resource?

a) Sunlight
b) Water
c) Air
d) Iron ore
Answer: d) Iron ore

What is the term used for the process of removing impurities from wastewater to make it reusable?

a) Filtration
b) Desalination
c) Distillation
d) Sewage treatment
Answer: d) Sewage treatment

Which of the following is an example of an inexhaustible resource?

a) Natural gas
b) Coal
c) Wind energy
d) Metallic minerals
Answer: c) Wind energy

What is the term used for the protection and management of forests to maintain their ecological balan
ce?

a) Afforestation
b) Deforestation
c) Reforestation
d) Conservation
Answer: d) Conservation

Which of the following is not a method of pest control in agriculture?

a) Biological control
b) Crop rotation
c) Chemical pesticides
d) Integrated pest management
Answer: c) Chemical pesticides

What is the term used for the ability of an ecosystem to restore itself after a disturbance?

a) Resilience
b) Sustainability
c) Degradation
d) Eutrophication
Answer: a) Resilience

Which organization is responsible for enforcing wildlife protection laws in India?

a) UNESCO
b) WHO
c) WTO
d) National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)
Answer: d) National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in e-waste recycling?

a) Collection, segregation, dismantling, disposal
b) Disposal, segregation, collection, dismantling
c) Collection, segregation, disposal, dismantling
d) Segregation, collection, dismantling, disposal
Answer: c) Collection, segregation, disposal, dismantling

Which of the following is a renewable source of energy derived from living or recently living organisms
?

a) Geothermal energy
b) Nuclear energy
c) Biomass energy
d) Tidal energy
Answer: c) Biomass energy

What is the term used for the introduction of harmful substances into the environment?

a) Pollution
b) Conservation
c) Preservation
d) Ecosystem
Answer: a) Pollution

Which of the following is an example of a biodegradable waste?

a) Plastic bottles
b) Aluminum cans
c) Paper
d) Glass
Answer: c) Paper

Which of the following is the correct order of waste management practices in terms of preference?

a) Incineration, landfills, recycling, composting
b) Composting, recycling, incineration, landfills
c) Landfills, composting, recycling, incineration
d) Recycling, composting, incineration, landfills
Answer: b) Composting, recycling, incineration, landfills

Which of the following is not an advantage of water harvesting?

a) Recharging groundwater
b) Preventing soil erosion
c) Ensuring water availability during droughts
d) Wasting excess water resources
Answer: d) Wasting excess water resources

What is the term used for the variety of life found on Earth?

a) Ecology
b) Ecosystem
c) Biodiversity
d) Conservation
Answer: c) Biodiversity

Which of the following is an example of sustainable fishing practices?

a) Overfishing
b) Blast fishing
c) Trawling
d) Fish farming
Answer: d) Fish farming

Which of the following is a method of conserving energy in our daily lives?

a) Leaving electronic devices on standby mode
b) Using energy-efficient appliances and light bulbs
c) Driving alone in a car instead of carpooling
d) Keeping the lights on unnecessarily
Answer: b) Using energy-efficient appliances and light bulbs

What is the term used for the harmful change in the basic structure and functioning of an ecosystem?

a) Conservation
b) Pollution
c) Preservation
d) Degradation
Answer: d) Degradation

Which of the following is a method of soil erosion prevention?

a) Overgrazing
b) Deforestation
c) Contour plowing
d) Monoculture farming
Answer: c) Contour plowing

Which of the following is the most common method of generating electricity from hydropower?

a) Tidal power
b) Wind turbines
c) Solar panels
d) Dam and turbine system
Answer: d) Dam and turbine system

What is the term used for the sustainable use and management of water resources?

a) Hydropower
b) Water harvesting
c) Irrigation
d) Water conservation
Answer: d) Water conservation

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?

a) Carbon dioxide
b) Oxygen
c) Methane
d) Nitrous oxide
Answer: b) Oxygen

What is the term used for the practice of using natural resources carefully, so that they are available
in

the long run?
a) Sustainable development
b) Environmental conservation
c) Resource preservation
d) Resource management
Answer: d) Resource management

Which of the following is not a method of biodiversity conservation?

a) Wildlife sanctuaries and national parks
b) Captive breeding programs
c) Habitat destruction
d) Seed banks and gene banks
Answer: c) Habitat destruction

What is the term used for the stable balance between different species in an ecosystem?

a) Biodiversity
b) Ecological balance
c) Wildlife conservation
d) Sustainable development
Answer: b) Ecological balance

Maths Mcqs Questions

Chapter 1 real numbers

Which of the following is not a rational number?

a) √2
b) 5/3
c) 0.25
d) -8

Which of the following is not a prime number?

a) 17
b) 19
c) 21
d) 23

Which of the following is not a whole number?

a) 0
b) -5
c) -3
d) 7

Which of the following numbers is an irrational number?

a) 0.65
b) √7
c) 4/3
d) -3

What is the least common multiple (LCM) of 6 and 9?

a) 12
b) 15
c) 18
d) 21

Which of the following is not a factor of 24?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6

Which of the following is a prime factorization of 36?

a) 2^3 × 3^2
b) 2 × 3^2
c) 3^2 × 2^2
d) 2^2 × 3

What is the value of | -8 | ?

a) 8
b) -8
c) 0
d) Undefined

If a number is divisible by 8 and 12, which of the following numbers will it also be divisible by?

a) 16
b) 24
c) 32
d) 48

What is the sum of all prime numbers between 30 and 40?

a) 82
b) 87
c) 88
d) 90

What is the value of (√9)^2?

a) 3
b) 9
c) 6
d) 0

What is the product of all natural numbers between 4 and 8?

a) 120
b) 180
c) 144
d) 168

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 32
b) 49
c) 53
d) 66

Which of the following numbers is not a multiple of 5?

a) 15
b) 35
c) 40
d) 55

If a number is divisible by 5 and 6, which of the following numbers will it also be divisible by?

a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 30

What is the value of √(64/81)?

a) 4/9
b) 8/9
c) 9/8
d) 81/64

Which of the following numbers is both a rational and whole number?

a) -2
b) √5
c) -0.5
d) 2.7

What is the square root of 0?

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) Undefined

What is the value of 3 × (-4)?

a) 12
b) -12
c) 0
d) Undefined

Which of the following is a prime number?

a) 12
b) 17
c) 20
d) 24

What is the value of (-2)^3?

a) -2
b) 2
c) -8
d) 8

What is the value of 1/2 + 1/4?

a) 1/6
b) 1/3
c) 3/4
d) 1/8

Which of the following is the reciprocal of 2/5?

a) 5/2
b) 2/3
c) 2/7
d) 5/10

What is the value of (-2)^4?

a) 4
b) -4
c) 16
d) -16

Which of the following is a composite number?

a) 11
b) 13
c) 17
d) 21

What is the smallest prime number?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

What is the value of (-3) + 2?

a) -5
b) -1
c) 1
d) 5

What is the value of 2/3 × 3/4?

a) 8/12
b) 6/5
c) 1/2
d) 5/6

Which of the following is not a natural number?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3

What is the value of (-5) × (-6)?

a) -11
b) 11
c) 30
d) -30

What is the greatest common divisor (GCD) of 18 and 24?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 6
d) 12

What is the value of √(25/16)?

a) 4/5
b) 5/4
c) 5/7
d) 16/25

Which of the following is both a rational and integer number?

a) 1/2
b) √3
c) -4
d) 0.5

What is the sum of all even numbers between 1 and 10?

a) 20
b) 25
c) 30
d) 35

Which of the following is a composite number?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 7
d) 9

What is the square of (-4)?

a) -8
b) 8
c) 16
d) -16

What is the value of (-5) + (-2)?

a) -7
b) -3
c) 3
d) 7

Which of the following numbers is an irrational number?

a) 4/7
b) √12
c) 5/8
d) 9/10

What is the value of 5 - (-3)?

a) 2
b) 8
c) -2
d) Undefined

What is the value of 3^0?

a) 0
b) 1
c) -3
d) Undefined

What is the value of (-7) - (-4)?

a) -3
b) -11
c) 3
d) 11

Which of the following is a perfect cube?

a) 16
b) 25
c) 27
d) 32

What is the value of (√16)^2?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d) 16

What is the product of all prime numbers between 10 and 20?

a) 210
b) 330
c) 440
d) 506

What is the value of 0/10?

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) Undefined

Which of the following is a composite number?

a) 5
b) 9
c) 11
d) 13

What is the value of (-1)^5?

a) -1
b) 1
c) 5
d) -5

What is the value of 0 × (-7)?

a) 0
b) -7
c) 7
d) Undefined

What is the value of 4^2 × 2^3?

a) 128
b) 64
c) 32
d) 16

Which of the following is an even number?

a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 10

Chapter 2 polynomials

Which of the following is a polynomial?

a) 3x + 2
b) √x
c) |x|
d) 2x² - 3x + 1

Which of the following is not a polynomial?

a) x^3 + 4x^2 - 2x
b) 2x - 3
c) √x + 1
d) 3x^2 + 5x + 2

What is the degree of the polynomial 2x^3 + 5x² - 3x + 1?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0

Which of the following is not a constant polynomial?

a) -4
b) 0
c) x
d) 2

What is the number of zeros in the polynomial x^2 - 4x + 4?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Infinite

Which of the following is not a factor of the polynomial x^2 - 9?

a) (x - 3)
b) (x + 3)
c) (x + 1)
d) (x - 1)

Which of the following is a factor of the polynomial 2x^3 + 6x^2 - 8x?

a) (x - 2)
b) (x - 4)
c) (2x + 1)
d) (x + 2)

What is the sum of the coefficients in the polynomial 3x^3 + 4x² - 5x + 2?

a) 3
b) 4
c) -5
d) 4

What is the product of the zeros in the polynomial x^2 - 6x + 9?

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 9

Which of the following is the remainder when x^3 + 4x^2 - 3x + 5 is divided by (x - 2)?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 7
d) 15

What is the value of p in the polynomial x^2 - (p - 1)x + 4?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) (p - 1)

What is the constant term in the polynomial 3x^3 + 5x^2 - 2x + 1?

a) 3
b) 5
c) -2
d) 1

Which of the following is a pair of non-negative integers satisfying the equation x + y = 10?

a) (2, 8)
b) (5, -5)
c) (7, 2)
d) (-3, 13)

What is the value of k in the polynomial (x + 2)(x - 3)(x - k)?

a) -2
b) 3
c) k
d) (k + 5)

Which of the following is the vertex of the parabola described by the polynomial x^2 - 4x + 3?

a) (-2, 1)
b) (2, -1)
c) (2, 1)
d) (-2, -1)

What is the product of the zeros in the polynomial x^2 - 5x + 6?

a) -6
b) 5
c) 6
d) 3

Which of the following is a quadratic polynomial?

a) 3x^4 + 2x^2 - x
b) x^2 - 3x + 1
c) √x
d) |x|

What is the degree of the polynomial x^4 - 2x^2 + 1?

a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0

What is the coefficient of the second term in the polynomial 5x^2 - 6x + 3?

a) 5
b) -6
c) 2
d) -3

Which of the following is not a rational number?

a) 1/2
b) -7/4
c) √3
d) 3/5

What is the sum of the zeros in the polynomial x^2 - 7x + 10?

a) -7
b) 7
c) 10
d) 17

Which of the following is the remainder when x^3 + 5x^2 - 2x + 3 is divided by (x + 1)?

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) 3

What is the value of k in the polynomial (x - 1)(x - 2)(kx - 3)?

a) 1/2
b) 2/3
c) 3/2
d) k

What is the value of p in the polynomial x^2 - (2p + 1)x + 5p?

a) 0
b) 1
c) -5
d) 2p
25. Which of the following is the vertex of the parabola described by the polynomial 2x^2 - 4x + 1?
a) (1, 1)
b) (2, -2)
c) (-2, 2)
d) (-1, -1)

What is the product of the zeros in the polynomial x^2 + 4x + 4?

a) -4
b) 4
c) 2
d) 0

Which of the following is a polynomial with a leading coefficient of 1?

a) 2x^3 - 3x^2 + 5x + 1
b) x^2 - 5x + 2
c) 5x^2 + 4x - 3
d) x^3 + 2x^2 + 3x + 1

What is the degree of the polynomial 5x^4 - 2x^3 + x^2 - 1?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

What is the coefficient of the third term in the polynomial 2x^3 - 4x^2 + 5x - 1?

a) 2
b) -4
c) 5
d) -1

Which of the following is a rational number?

a) √2
b) 3/4
c) π
d) -√3

What is the sum of the zeros in the polynomial x^2 + 3x + 2?

a) -3
b) 3
c) 2
d) -2

Which of the following is the remainder when x^3 - 3x + 1 is divided by (x - 1)?

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) 2

What is the value of k in the polynomial (x - 2)(x + 3)(kx - 4)?

a) 2/3
b) 3/4
c) 4/3
d) k

What is the value of p in the polynomial x^2 - (p + 1)x + 6p - 1?

a) 0
b) 1
c) -6
d) p

Which of the following is the vertex of the parabola described by the polynomial 3x^2 - 6x + 4?

a) (2, 3)
b) (3, -6)
c) (-3, 6)
d) (-2, -3)

What is the product of the zeros in the polynomial x^2 - 7x + 12?

a) -12
b) 7
c) 12
d) 4

Which of the following is a quadratic polynomial?

a) 4x^3 + 2x^2 - 3x
b) x^2 - 2x + 3
c) √x
d) |x|

Chapter 3 pair of linear equations in two variables

In the pair of linear equations 2x + 3y = 7 and 4x - 5y = 2, what is the value of x?

a) x = 1
b) x = 2
c) x = 3
d) x = -1

The pair of linear equations 3x + 4y = 5 and 2x - y = 1 represents which type of lines?

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

If the lines represented by the equations 2x - 3y = 6 and 4x - 6y = 1 are intersecting lines, what is the v
alue of x?

a) x = 2
b) x = 3
c) x = 4
d) x = 5

The pair of linear equations x + 2y = 3 and 2x - y = 4 have how many solutions?

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

If the pair of linear equations 3x - 2y = 7 and 5x - 3y = 11 have no solution, then the lines represented b
y them are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

The pair of linear equations 3x + 2y = 8 and 6x + 4y = 16 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

If the line represented by the equation 4x - 3y = 9 is parallel to the line represented by 2x + ky = 10, the
n the value of k is:

a) k = 2
b) k = 3
c) k = 4
d) k = 5

If the pair of linear equations x + y = 7 and 2x + by = 12 have one unique solution, then the value of b is
:

a) b = 1
b) b = 2
c) b = 3
d) b = 4

The pair of linear equations 2x + 3y = 4 and 4x + 6y = 8 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

If the lines represented by the pair of linear equations 2x + 3y = 5 and 4x + 6y = 10 are coincident line
s, then the equations are:

a) Multiples of each other
b) Different equations
c) Parallel equations
d) Opposite equations

The pair of linear equations 3x - 4y = 1 and 6x - 8y = 2 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

The pair of linear equations represented by 5x + 7y = 2 and 7x + 10y = 3 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

If the pair of linear equations x - 2y = 6 and 3x - 6y = 18 have no solution, then the lines are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

The lines represented by the pair of linear equations x - 2y = 3 and 2x - 4y = 4 are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

If the pair of linear equations 2x - 3y = 9 and 4x - 6y = 18 have infinite solutions, then the lines are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

The pair of linear equations 2x + y = 7 and 4x + 2y = 14 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

If the lines represented by the equations 3x - 2y = 7 and mx - ny = 2 are perpendicular, then the value
of m/n is:

a) m/n = -3/2
b) m/n = -2/3
c) m/n = 3/2
d) m/n = 2/3

The pair of linear equations represented by 3x - 2y = 5 and 6x - 4y = 10 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

The lines represented by the pair of linear equations x - 2y = 5 and 2x - 4y = 10 are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

If the pair of linear equations 2x + 3y = 8 and 4x + 6y = 14 have one unique solution, then the value of
x is:

a) x = 2
b) x = 3
c) x = 4
d) x = 5

The pair of linear equations 5x + 2y = 8 and 10x + 4y = 16 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

If the lines represented by the equations 3x - 4y = 5 and 2x - 8y = 10 are coincident lines, then the equ
ations are:

a) Multiples of each other
b) Different equations
c) Parallel equations
d) Opposite equations

The pair of linear equations represented by 2x - 5y = 10 and 3x - 7y = 14 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

The lines represented by the pair of linear equations 4x - 3y = 8 and 8x - 6y = 16 are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

If the pair of linear equations 2x - y = 3 and 4x - 2y = 6 have no solution, then the lines are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

The pair of linear equations 3x + 2y = 5 and 6x + 4y = 10 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

If the line represented by the equation 5x + 2y = 12 is parallel to the line represented by 2x + ky = 6, th
en the value of k is:

a) k = 2
b) k = 3
c) k = 4
d) k = 5

If the pair of linear equations x + y = 6 and 2x + by = 15 have one unique solution, then the value of b i
s:

a) b = 1
b) b = 2
c) b = 3
d) b = 4

The pair of linear equations 2x + 3y = 7 and 4x - 6y = 13 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

The pair of linear equations represented by 3x - 5y = 8 and 6x - 10y = 16 have:

a) No solution
b) Infinite solutions
c) One unique solution
d) Two solutions

If the pair of linear equations x - 2y = 4 and 3x - 6y = 12 have infinite solutions, then the lines are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

The lines represented by the pair of linear equations x - 2y = 6 and 2x - 4y = 12 are:

a) Parallel lines
b) Perpendicular lines
c) Intersecting lines
d) Coincident lines

If the pair of linear equations 3x - 2y = 9 and 6x - 4y = 18 have no solution, then the value of x is:

a) x = 1
b) x = 2
c) x = 3
d) x = 4

Chapter 4 quadratic equations

The roots of the quadratic equation x^2 - 5x + 6 = 0 are:

a) -4, 3
b) 4, -3
c) 2, 3
d) -2, -3

The sum of the roots of the quadratic equation 2x^2 + 3x - 5 = 0 is:

a) -3/2
b) -5/2
c) -3/5
d) 5/2

If the discriminant of a quadratic equation is zero, then the roots are:

a) Real and distinct
b) Real and equal
c) Imaginary
d) Complex

The quadratic equation (x - 4)(x + 2) = 0 can be written as:

The quadratic equation 5x^2 - 7x + 2 = 0 has roots:

a) 1/5, 1/2
b) -1/5, -1/2
c) 1/5, -1/2
d) -1/5, 1/2

The quadratic equation x^2 - 10x + 25 = 0 can be factored as:

a) (x - 5)^2 = 0
b) (x - 2)^2 = 0
c) (x - 5)(x - 2) = 0
d) (x + 5)(x - 2) = 0

Chapter 5 arithmetic progressions

1. In an arithmetic progression, if the first term is 4 and the common difference is 3, what is the value of
th
e 8th term?
a) 25
b) 29
c) 31
d) 37

2. What is the common difference in the arithmetic progression 6, 12, 18, 24, ...?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6

3. If the sum of an arithmetic progression is 288 and the number of terms is 24, what is the common
differ
ence?
a) 12
b) 10
c) 8
d) 6

4. What is the 20th term of the arithmetic progression 2, 5, 8, 11, ...?
a) 39
b) 40
c) 41
d) 42

5. Find the sum of the first 15 terms of the arithmetic progression 10, 16, 22, 28, ...?
a) 705
b) 730
c) 755
d) 780

6. The 5th term of an arithmetic progression is 12 and the 10th term is 27. What is the
common difference
?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9

7. What is the sum of the first 30 terms of the arithmetic progression 3, 7, 11, 15,
...?
a) 780
b) 810
c) 840
d) 870

8. If the 10th term of an arithmetic progression is 35 and the common difference
is 4, what is the first term
?
a) 11
b) 15
c) 19
d) 23

9. Find the sum of all the odd numbers between 20 and 50.
a) 675
b) 700
c) 725
d) 750

10. What is the common difference in the arithmetic progression 8, 6, 4,
2, ...?
a) -1
b) -2
c) -3
d) -4

11. The first term of an arithmetic progression is 5 and the sum of
the first 12 terms is 216. What is the co
mmon difference?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5

12. What is the sum of the first 50 natural numbers?
a) 1225
b) 1275
c) 1325
d) 1375

13. If the sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic
progression is given by Sn = 7n^2 + 3n, then what is the
second term of the progression?

a) 16
b) 17
c) 18
d) 19

14. In an arithmetic progression, if the first term is -3
and the common difference is -2, what is the value of
the 15th term?

a) -43
b) -40
c) -37
d) -34

15. Find the 16th term of the arithmetic progression 3, 9,
15, 21, ...?

a) 87
b) 92
c) 97
d) 102

16. If the sum of the first 8 terms of an arithmetic
progression is 180, what is the common difference?

a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16

17. The 12th term of an arithmetic progression is 47 and the
common difference is 4. What is the first term
?

a) 7
b) 8
c) 9
d) 10

18. How many terms are there in the arithmetic progression
2, 5, 8, 11, ... if the sum is 195?

a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18

19. Find the sum of all the integers from -10 to 10.

a) 0
b) 10
c) 20
d) 30

20. In an arithmetic progression, the third term is -2 and
the common difference is 5. What is the first term
?

a) -12
b) -7
c) -2
d) 3

21. Find the sum of all the multiples of 7 between 30 and
100.

a) 765
b) 798
c) 833
d) 868

22. The sum of an arithmetic progression is 330. If the
first term is -5 and the common difference is 9, how
many terms are there in the progression?

a) 20
b) 22
c) 24
d) 26

23. If the arithmetic mean between 5 and 15 is 10, what is
the common difference in the corresponding pr
ogression?

a) 5
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

24. Given that the sum of an arithmetic progression is 250
and the common difference is 6, what is the nu
mber of terms?

a) 30
b) 31
c) 32
d) 33

25. Find the sum of all the even numbers between 0 and 100.

a) 2550
b) 2750
c) 2950
d) 3150

26. The 9th term of an arithmetic progression is -14 and the
common difference is -3. What is the first ter
m?

a) 22
b) 23
c) 24
d) 25

27. If the sum of the first 25 terms of an arithmetic
progression is 625, what is the common difference?
a) 1

b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

28. In an arithmetic progression, if the first term is 12
and the common difference is 4, what is the value of
the 12th term?

a) 48
b) 52
c) 56
d) 60

29. Find the sum of the arithmetic progression if the number
of terms is 20, the first term is 5 and the com
mon difference is 3.

a) 325
b) 350
c) 375
d) 400

30. The 6th term of an arithmetic progression is 23 and the
15th term is 44. What is the common differenc
e?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

31. In an arithmetic progression, the sum of the first n
terms is given by Sn = 4n^2 - 2n. What is the secon
d term of the progression?

a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10

32. Find the sum of the first 100 natural numbers.

a) 4850
b) 4950
c) 5050
d) 5150

33. If the sum of the first n terms of an arithmetic
progression is given by Sn = 5n^2 + n, then what is the c
ommon difference?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

34. In an arithmetic progression, if the common difference
is given by d = (3n - 2), what is the first term?
a) 1

b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

35. What is the sum of the arithmetic progression 6, 8, 10,
..., 56, 58, 60?

a) 870
b) 900
c) 930
d) 960

36. If the term a = 4n + 1 for an arithmetic progression,
what is the common difference?

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 1

37. In an arithmetic progression, if the first term is -7
and the common difference is 2, what is the value of
the 10th term?

a) 13
b) 15
c) 17
d) 19

38. Find the sum of the first 12 terms of the arithmetic
progression 1, 5, 9, 13, ...?

a) 318
b) 330
c) 342
d) 354

39. The 25th term of an arithmetic progression is 75 and the
common difference is 4. What is the first ter
m?

a) -25
b) -20
c) -15
d) -10

40. How many terms are there in the arithmetic progression
-1, 3, 7, 11, 15, ... if the sum is 374?
a) 12

b) 15
c) 18
d) 21

41. Find the sum of all the multiples of 3 between 50 and
100.

a) 825
b) 850
c) 875
d) 900

Chapter 6 triangles

1. In a triangle, the sum of any two sides is always:

a) equal to the third side
b) greater than the third side
c) less than the third side
d) none of the above

2. If two angles of a triangle are 45° and 60°, then the
measure of the third angle is:

a) 45°
b) 75°
c) 90°
d) 105°

3. The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal
to the ratio of the squares of their:
a) lengths

b) perimeters
c) bases
d) heights

4. The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is
always:

a) equal to the third side
b) greater than the third side
c) less than the third side
d) either greater than or equal to the third side

5. If two sides of a triangle are 5 cm and 10 cm, then the
minimum possible length of the third side is:

a) 4 cm
b) 5 cm
c) 10 cm
d) 15 cm

6. If the ratio of the angles in a triangle is 3:4:5, then
the measure of the largest angle in degrees is:

a) 30°
b) 60°
c) 90°
d) 120°

7. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 8 cm,
and 10 cm. The triangle is:

a) acute-angled
b) right-angled
c) obtuse-angled
d) equilateral

8. If the areas of two similar triangles are in the ratio
4:9, then the ratio of their corresponding sides is:

a) 2:3
b) 3:2
c) 4:9
d) 9:4

9. In an isosceles triangle, the angles opposite to the
equal sides are:

a) acute angles
b) obtuse angles
c) right angles
d) none of the above

10. The perimeter of an equilateral triangle with sides of
length 6 cm is:

a) 12 cm
b) 15 cm
c) 18 cm
d) 24 cm

11. The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is
greater than the length of the:

a) third side
b) second side
c) first side
d) none of the above

12. If the lengths of two sides of a triangle are 10 cm and
14 cm, then the range of possible lengths for the
third side is:

a) (4, 24) cm
b) (10, 24) cm
c) (4, 14) cm
d) (24, 28) cm

13. In a right-angled triangle, the square of the hypotenuse
is equal to the sum of the squares of the other
two sides. This is known as:

a) Pythagoras theorem
b) Similar triangles theorem
c) Angle sum property
d) External angle theorem

14. If two sides of a triangle are 3 cm and 5 cm, then the
maximum possible length of the third side is:

a) 2 cm
b) 3 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 8 cm

15. The centroid of a triangle is the point of intersection
of its:

a) altitudes
b) medians
c) perpendicular bisectors
d) angle bisectors

16. The two sides of a triangle are 10 cm and 12 cm, and the
angle between them is 60°. The area of the t
riangle is:

a) 24√3 cm²
b) 30√3 cm²
c) 36√3 cm²
d) 40√3 cm²

17. Two triangles are congruent if they have:

a) the same shape
b) the same size
c) the same perimeter
d) the same area

18. In an isosceles triangle, the measure of each base angle
is:

a) 90°
b) 60°
c) 45°
d) equal to the measure of the vertex angle

19. The base angles of an isosceles triangle are always:

a) congruent
b) supplementary
c) complementary
d) equal to 90°

20. If a triangle has angles measuring 60°, 80°, and 40°,
then the triangle is:

a) equilateral
b) isosceles
c) right-angled
d) scalene

21. If two altitudes of a triangle are equal, then the
triangle is:

a) acute-angled
b) obtuse-angled
c) right-angled
d) equilateral

22. The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is
less than or equal to the length of the third side
. This is known as the:

a) triangle inequality theorem
b) Pythagoras theorem
c) similar triangles theorem
d) angle sum property

23. The centroid of a triangle divides each median in the
ratio:

a) 1:2
b) 2:1
c) 1:3
d) 3:1

24. If two angles of a triangle are 75° and 45°, then the
measure of the third angle is:

a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 75°

25. The area of an equilateral triangle with side length 8
cm is:

a) 16√3 cm²
b) 32 cm²
c) 64√3 cm²
d) 128 cm²

26. In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of any two sides
is greater than the length of the third side. This is
known as the:

a) Triangle inequality theorem
b) Similar triangles theorem
c) Pythagoras theorem
d) Angle sum property

27. Two angles of a triangle measure 45° and 75°. The
measure of the third angle is:

a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 105°
d) 135°

28. If the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5, then
the triangle is:

a) acute-angled
b) obtuse-angled
c) right-angled
d) equilateral

29. The measure of each interior angle of an equilateral
triangle is:

a) 60°
b) 90°
c) 120°
d) 180°

30. Two triangles with the same base and height have equal:

a) areas
b) perimeters
c) angles
d) sides

31. The orthocenter of a triangle is the point of
intersection of its:

a) altitudes
b) medians
c) perpendicular bisectors
d) angle bisectors

32. If the lengths of two sides of a triangle are 12 cm and
16 cm, then the range of possible lengths for the
third side is:

a) (4, 24) cm
b) (10, 24) cm
c) (4, 16) cm
d) (28, 32) cm

33. If the lengths of the sides of a triangle are 6 cm, 8
cm, and 12 cm, then the triangle is:

a) equilateral
b) isosceles
c) right-angled
d) scalene

34. If the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 5:12:13,
then the triangle is:

a) acute-angled
b) obtuse-angled
c) right-angled
d) equilateral

35. The length of an altitude of a triangle is always:

a) equal to one of the sides
b) greater than one of the sides
c) less than one of the sides
d) independent of the sides

36. In a right-angled triangle, the side opposite the right
angle is called the:

a) base
b) hypotenuse
c) altitude
d) none of the above

37. If the lengths of two sides of a triangle are 3 cm and 8
cm, then the minimum possible length of the thi
rd side is:

a) 5 cm
b) 8 cm
c) 11 cm
d) 16 cm

38. Two congruent triangles have equal:

a) areas
b) perimeters
c) angles
d) sides

Chapter 7 Coordinate geometry

In the coordinate plane, which quadrant is the point (-4, 3)
located in?

a) Quadrant I
b) Quadrant II
c) Quadrant III
d) Quadrant IV

What is the distance between the points (2, -5) and (-3, 1)?

a) √41 units
b) √30 units
c) √45 units
d) √29 units

Which of the following points lies on the x-axis?

a) (0, -7)
b) (5, 0)
c) (-2, 6)
d) (-3, -3)

What is the slope of a line parallel to the x-axis?

a) -1
b) 0
c) 1
d) Undefined

Find the equation of the line passing through the points (2,
4) and (5, -1).

a) y = -x + 6
b) y = -2x + 8
c) y = 3x - 2
d) y = x - 2

What is the slope of a line perpendicular to the line with
equation y = 2x + 3?

a) -1/2
b) 2
c) -2
d) 1/2

The point (3, 5) lies on which line?

a) x + y = 8
b) 2x - y = 1
c) -3x - 4y = -17
d) 4x + y = 17

Which of the following is the equation of a vertical line?

a) y = 2x + 3
b) x = 5
c) y = -3x + 2
d) 2x - y = 7

Find the midpoint of the line segment with endpoints (3, 5)
and (-2, -8).

a) (0.5, -1.5)
b) (0, -1.5)
c) (-0.5, -1.5)
d) (-0.5, -1)

The coordinates of the point P are (4, -1), and the
coordinates of the point Q are (1, 3). What is the su
m of the x-coordinates of the points P and Q?

a) 8
b) 7
c) 5
d) 4

Find the equation of the line parallel to the y-axis and
passing through the point (7, 2).

a) x = 7
b) y = 7
c) x = 2
d) y = 2

The line segment with endpoints (-4, 3) and (6, -1) is
divided into three equal parts by the points P and
Q. What are the coordinates of point P?

a) (0, 2)
b) (2, -0.5)
c) (1, 1)
d) (4, -1)

If point A(6, 3) is reflected over the y-axis, what are the
coordinates of the new image A'?

a) (-6, 3)
b) (6, -3)
c) (-6, -3)
d) (3, 6)

Find the equations of the parallel and perpendicular lines
to the line y = 2x + 1 and passing through th
e point (3, -4).

a) Parallel: y = 2x - 10, Perpendicular: y = -1/2x + 4
b) Parallel: y = 2x + 10, Perpendicular: y = -1/2x + 4
c) Parallel: y = 2x - 15, Perpendicular: y = -1/2x + 5
d) Parallel: y = 2x + 15, Perpendicular: y = -1/2x - 5

The line y = 3x - 4 intersects the x-axis at point A. What
are the coordinates of point A?

a) (1.33, 0)
b) (-1.33, 0)
c) (0, 4)
d) (0, -4)

Find the equation of the line passing through the point
(-5,
2) and perpendicular to the line 3x - 5y = 7.

a) y = 5x + 27
b) y = (1/5)x - 1
c) y = (5/3)x + (4/3)
d) y = -5x - 17

The line passing through the points (3, 4) and (6, 7) has a
slope of:

a) 1/3
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4/3

Find the equation of the line parallel to the line 2x + y =
8 and passing through the point (4, -1).

a) y = 2x + 9
b) y = -2x - 9
c) y = 2x + 7
d) y = -2x + 7

The line y = -2 intersects the x-axis at point A. What are
the coordinates of point A?

a) (0, 0)
b) (0, 1)
c) (0, -2)
d) (0, 2)

Find the equation of the line passing through the points
(-3, 5) and (4, 2).

a) y = -1/3x + 4
b) y = -3x + 14
c) y = 1/3x - 2
d) y = 3x - 4

Which of the following points lies on the line 2x + 3y = 6?

a) (-2, 2)
b) (0, 2)
c) (-2, 0)
d) (2, 0)

Find the midpoint of the line segment with endpoints (-1,
8)
and (7, 2).

a) (6, 5)
b) (3, 5)
c) (1, 3)
d) (3, 6)

Find the equation of the line perpendicular to the line y =
-2x + 5 and passing through the point (-3, 1).

a) y = -1/2x + 1
b) y = 2x + 1
c) y = 1/2x - 1
d) y = -2x - 1

The point (-1, -7) lies on which line?

a) y = x + 6
b) 2x - y = 3
c) -3x + y = -8
d) 4x + y = -5

Find the equation of the line parallel to the y-axis and
passing through the point (-3, -7).

a) x = -3
b) y = -7
c) x = -7
d) y = -3

The line segment with endpoints (1, 2) and (-3, 6) is
divided into four equal parts by the points P, Q, a
nd R. What are the coordinates of point Q?

a) (-1, 4)
b) (-2, 2)
c) (0, 4)
d) (1, 3)

If point A(4, -2) is reflected over the x-axis, what are
the
coordinates of the new image A'?

a) (-4, 2)
b) (4, -2)
c) (-4, -2)
d) (2, -4)

Find the equation of the line passing through the point
(-6,
-3) and perpendicular to the line 2x + 3y =

7.
a) y = 3x - 9
b) y = (-3/2)x - 15/2
c) y = (-2/3)x + 13/6
d) y = 3x + 9

The line 3x - y = 9 intersects the y-axis at point A. What
are the coordinates of point A?

a) (0, 0)
b) (0, 3)
c) (0, -9)
d) (0, 9)

Find the equation of the line that passes through the points
(2, 5) and (5, 8).

a) y = x + 3
b) y = 3x - 1
c) y = x - 3
d) y = -x + 13

Which of the following points lies on the line y = 3x - 2?

a) (0, 0)
b) (-1, -5)
c) (1, 0)
d) (-3, -8)

Chapter 8 introduction to trigonometry

The value of sin(90°) is:

a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) Undefined

If sin θ = 0.5, then the value of cos θ would be:

a) 0.5
b) 1
c) -0.5
d) Undefined

The value of tan(0°) is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) Undefined
d) Infinite

If cos θ = 0.8, then the value of sin θ would be:

a) 0.6
b) 0.8
c) 0.3
d) Undefined

The value of sin(180°) is:

a) -1
b) 0
c) 1
d) Undefined

If sec θ = 2, then the value of cos θ would be:

a) 0.5
b) 1
c) -0.5
d) Undefined

If sin(45°) = cos(θ), then the value of θ would be:

a) 45°
b) 90°
c) 60°
d) Undefined

The value of tan(30°) is:

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) /3

The value of cos(60°) is:

a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) 0
d) 1

The value of tan(60°) is:

a) √3
b) √2
c) 1/√3
d) Undefined

The value of sin(30°) is:

a) 1/2
b) -1/2
c) 0
d) 1

If tan(θ) = 3/4, then the value of cos(θ) would be:

a) 4/3
b) -4/3
c) 3/5
d) Undefined

The value of cos(45°) is:

a) √2/2
b) -√2/2
c) 1/√2
d) 2

The value of sin(60°) is:

a) √3/2
b) -√3/2
c) 1/√3
d) 3

If cos(θ) = 0.6, then the value of sin(θ) would be:

a) 0.8
b) 0.6
c) 0.4
d) Undefined

The value of cot(45°) is:

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) Undefined

If tan(θ) = √3, then the value of sin(θ) would be:

a) 1/√3
b) √3/2
c) 2/√3
d) Undefined

The value of cos(0°) is:

a) 1
b) 0
c) -1
d) Undefined

The value of tan(45°) is:

a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) Undefined

If cot(θ) = √3, then the value of sin(θ) would be:

a) 1/√3
b) √3/2
c) 2/√3
d) Undefined

The value of sin(180° - θ) is:

a) sin(θ)
b) -sin(θ)
c) cos(θ)
d) √2

The value of cos(180°) is:

a) -1
b) 0
c) 1
d) Undefined

If sec(θ) = 3/2, then the value of cos(θ) would be:

a) 2/3
b) -2/3
c) 3/2
d) Undefined

The value of tan(90°) is:

a) Undefined
b) 1
c) 0
d) -1

The value of sin(120°) is:

a) √2/2
b) -√2/2
c) 1/√2
d) -3/2

If sin(θ) = -1/3, then the value of cos(θ) would be:

a) √8/3
b) -√8/3
c) 3/√8
d) Undefined

The value of cos(180° + θ) is:

a) sin(θ)
b) -sin(θ)
c) -cos(θ)
d) cos(θ)

If cot(θ) = 4/3, then the value of sin(θ) would be:

a) 3/5
b) -3/5
c) 4/5
d) Undefined

The value of sin(210°) is:

a) -√3/2
b) √3/2
c) 3/2
d) -1/2

If cos(θ) = -1/2, then the value of sin(θ) would be:

a) √6/2
b) -√6/2
c) 2/√6
d) Undefined

The value of tan(180° + θ) is:

a) tan(θ)
b) -tan(θ)
c) -cot(θ)
d) cot(θ)

The value of cos(135°) is:

a) -√2/2
b) √2/2
c) 1/√2
d) 2

If cot(θ) = -√2, then the value of cos(θ) would be:

a) -1/√2
b) 1/√2
c) -√2
d) Undefined

The value of sin(225°) is:

a) -√2/2
b) √2/2
c) 1/√2
d) -2

If sin(θ) = 3/5, then the value of cos(θ) would be:

a) 4/5
b) -4/5
c) 5/4
d) Undefined

The value of tan(240°) is:

a) -√3
b) √3
c) 1/√3
d) -√2

The value of sin(315°) is:

a) -√2/2
b) √2/2
c) 1/√2
d) -2

If cot(θ) = -1/√3, then the value of sin(θ) would be:

a) -√3/3
b) √3/3
c) 1/√3
d) Undefined

The value of cos(330°) is:

a) -√3/2
b) √3/2
c) 1/√3
d) -1/2

If sin(θ) = -5/13, then the value of cos(θ) would be:

a) 12/13
b) -12/13
c) 5/12
d) Undefined

The value of cot(390°) is:

a) -√3
b) √3
c) 1/√3
d) -√2

If cos(θ) = -√2/2, then the value of sin(θ) would be:

a) √2/2
b) -√2/2
c) 2/√2
d) Undefined

The value of sec(150°) is:

a) -2/√2
b) √2/2
c) 2/√2
d) Undefined

If tan(θ) = -3/4, then the value of sin(θ) would be:

a) -3/5
b) 3/5
c) 4/3
d) Undefined

The value of cos(105°) is:

a) -√2/2
b) √2/2
c) 1/√2
d) -2

If sin(θ) = -1/2, then the value of cos(θ) would be:

a) √3/2
b) -√3/2
c) 2/√3
d) Undefined

Chapter 9 some applications of trigonometry

The angle of elevation of a ladder leaning against a wall is
60°.
If the foot of the ladder is 5 meters awa
y from the wall, the length of the ladder is:

a) 5√3 meters
b) 10 meters
c) 15 meters
d) 25 meters

The distance between two opposite ends of a rectangular field is
18 meters. The diagonal of the field is:

a) 6 meters
b) 9 meters
c) 12 meters
d) 15 meters

In a triangle ABC, if angle A = 60° and side BC = 6 cm, then the
length of side AC is:

a) 6 cm
b) 6√2 cm
c) 12 cm
d) 12√3 cm

A tower is 20 meters high. From a point on the ground, the angle
of elevation to the top of the tower is 4
5°. The distance between the point and the foot of the tower is:

a) 10 meters
b) 10√2 meters
c) 20 meters
d) 20√2 meters

The height of a building is 75 meters. The angle of depression
from the top of the building to a point on
the ground is 30°. The distance between the building and the
point
is approximately:

a) 75 meters
b) 130 meters
c) 150 meters
d) 260 meters

In a right-angled triangle ABC, if angle B = 90° and side BC = 5
cm, then the length of side AC is:

a) 5 cm
b) 5√2 cm
c) 10 cm
d) 10√3 cm

In triangle PQR, if angle P = 75° and angle Q = 30°, then the
value of angle R is:

a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 75°
d) 90°

The length of the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 13
cm.
If one of the other two sides is 5 cm in
length, then the length of the remaining side is:

a) 12 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 8 cm
d) 15 cm

The distance between two places is 500 meters. The angle of
elevation from the first place to the top of
a tower at the second place is 30°. The height of the tower is:

a) 250 meters
b) 250√3 meters
c) 500 meters
d) 500√3 meters

The angle of depression from the top of a tower to a point on
the ground, 30 meters away from the foo
t of the tower, is 45°. The height of the tower is
approximately:

a) 30 meters
b) 45 meters
c) 75 meters
d) 90 meters

The area of a triangle with base 12 cm and height 9 cm is:

a) 48 cm²
b) 54 cm²
c) 72 cm²
d) 108 cm²

The angle of elevation of the sun is 30°. If a tree casts a
shadow of length 10 meters, the height of the
tree is:

a) 10 meters
b) 10√3 meters
c) 20 meters
d) 20√3 meters

In a right-angled triangle ABC, if angle C = 90° and side AB =
13 cm, then the length of side AC is:

a) 5 cm
b) 12 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm

In triangle PQR, if angle P = 45°, angle Q = 70°, then the
value
of angle R is:

a) 35°
b) 45°
c) 70°
d) 80°

The length of the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 10
cm. If one of the other two sides is 8 cm i
n length, then the length of the remaining side is:

a) 6 cm
b) 8 cm
c) 8√2 cm
d) 10 cm

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on
the
ground is 45°. If the tower is 100 meter
s tall, the distance between the point and the foot of the tower
is
approximately:

a) 100 meters
b) 100√2 meters
c) 200 meters
d) 200√2 meters

The angle of depression from the top of a tower to a point on
the ground, 40 meters away from the foo
t of the tower, is 60°. The height of the tower is
approximately:

a) 20 meters
b) 20√2 meters
c) 30 meters
d) 30√3 meters

In a right-angled triangle ABC, if angle A = 30° and side AC =
10 cm, then the length of side BC is:

a) 5 cm
b) 5√3 cm
c) 20 cm
d) 20√3 cm

The angle of elevation of a plane flying at an altitude of 4000
meters is observed from two points on th
e ground, which are 5 km apart. If the angles of elevation are
30°
and 60°, the height of the plane from the
ground at one of the observation points is approximately:

a) 1000 meters
b) 2000 meters
c) 3000 meters
d) 4000 meters

The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on
the
ground, 60 meters away from the foot
of the tower, is 30°. The height of the tower is approximately:

a) 30 meters
b) 45 meters
c) 60 meters
d) 120 meters

The angle of depression from the top of a tower to a point on
the ground, 50 meters away from the foo
t of the tower, is 75°. The height of the tower is
approximately:

a) 10 meters
b) 20 meters
c) 30 meters
d) 40 meters

In a right-angled triangle ABC, if angle C = 90° and side AC =
15 cm, then the length of side BC is:

a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 12 cm
d) 15 cm

In triangle PQR, if angle P = 60° and angle Q = 45°, then the
value of angle R is:

a) 45°
b) 60°
c) 75°
d) 90°

The length of the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 5
cm.
If one of the other two sides is 3 cm in
length, then the length of the remaining side is:

a) 4 cm
b) 3√2 cm
c) 4√2 cm
d) 5 cm

The angle of elevation of a balloon from a point on the ground
is 60°. If the balloon is flying at a height
of 100 meters, the distance between the point and the balloon is
approximately:

a) 100 meters
b) 100√3 meters
c) 200 meters
d) 200√3 meters

The angle of depression from the top of a tower to a point on
the ground, 60 meters away from the foo
t of the tower, is 45°. The height of the tower is
approximately:

a) 30 meters
b) 30√2 meters
c) 60 meters
d) 60√2 meters

The area of a triangle with base 10 cm and height 6 cm is:

a) 15 cm²
b) 30 cm²
c) 45 cm²
d) 60 cm²

The angle of elevation of the sun is 45°. If a tree casts a
shadow of length 8 meters, the height of the t
ree is:

a) 8 meters
b) 8√2 meters
c) 16 meters
d) 16√2 meters

In a right-angled triangle ABC, if angle A = 45° and side AB =
10 cm, then the length of side AC is:

a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 10√2 cm
d) 20 cm

In triangle PQR, if angle P = 30°, angle Q = 90°, then the
value
of angle R is:

a) 30°
b) 45°
c) 60°
d) 90°

The length of the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle is 26
cm. If one of the other two sides is 10 cm
in length, then the length of the remaining side is:

a) 6 cm
b) 12 cm
c) 12√2 cm
d) 24 cm

Chapter 10 circles

Which of the following is not a chord of a circle?

A) Diameter
B) Radius
C) Secant
D) Tangent

If a tangent is drawn to a circle, the angle between the tangent
and the radius is:

A) 45 degrees
B) 90 degrees
C) 180 degrees
D) Variable, depending on the position of the tangent

The number of common tangents between two intersecting circles
is:

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4

The maximum number of points of intersection for a circle and a
line is:

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) Infinite

If two tangents are drawn from an external point to a circle,
then the measure of the angle between the
tangents is:

A) 45 degrees
B) 90 degrees
C) 180 degrees
D) Variable, depending on the radius of the circle

In a circle, if the two chords are equal in length, then the
distance of each chord from the center is:

A) Half the radius
B) Equal to the radius
C) Greater than the radius
D) Less than the radius

A chord which passes through the center of a circle is called a:

A) Secant
B) Diameter
C) Tangent
D) Arc

If two tangents to a circle intersect externally, then the
measure of the angle between the tangents is eq
ual to:

A) 45 degrees
B) 90 degrees
C) 180 degrees
D) Variable, depending on the position of the tangents

The perpendicular bisector of a chord passes through the:

A) Center of the circle
B) Tangent point
C) Midpoint of the chord
D) None of the above

In a circle, if a chord is perpendicular to a radius, then the
chord:

A) Bisects the radius
B) Is longer than the radius
C) Is shorter than the radius
D) None of the above

In a circle, the angle subtended by a semi-circle at any point
on the circumference is:

A) 30 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 90 degrees

If a chord of a circle is equal to the radius, then the chord
subtends an angle of:

A) 0 degrees
B) 30 degrees
C) 45 degrees
D) 60 degrees

In a circle, if a chord and a tangent intersect externally,
then
the measure of the angle between the ch
ord and the tangent is:

A) 30 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) 180 degrees

The ratio of the areas of two circles is equal to the square of
the ratio of their:

A) Perimeters
B) Circumferences
C) Radii
D) Diameters

In a circle, if the angle subtended by an arc at the center is
60 degrees, then the angle subtended by t
he same arc at the circumference is:

A) 30 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 60 degrees
D) 90 degrees

The ratio of the lengths of two arcs of a circle is equal to
the
ratio of their:

A) Areas
B) Perimeters
C) Radii
D) Central angles

The number of tangents that can be drawn to a circle from a
point outside the circle is:

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) Infinite

The length of an arc of a circle is equal to the product of the
measure of its central angle and the:

A) Radius
B) Diameter
C) Circumference
D) Area

The area of a sector of a circle is equal to the product of the
measure of its central angle and the:

A) Radius
B) Diameter
C) Circumference
D) Area of the whole circle

In a circle, the measure of an angle subtended by a chord at
the
circumference is equal to:

A) Half the measure of the central angle
B) Twice the measure of the central angle
C) The measure of the central angle
D) None of the above

If two chords are equal in length, then they are equidistant
from the center of the circle.

A) True
B) False

The equation of a circle with center (h, k) and radius r is:

A) (x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2
B) (x+h)^2 + (y+k)^2 = r^2
C) (x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r
D) (x+h)^2 + (y+k)^2 = r

If a line is drawn from the center of a circle to bisect a
chord, then the line is:

A) Perpendicular to the chord
B) Parallel to the chord
C) Tangent to the circle
D) None of the above

In a circle, the length of the arc formed by an angle of 90
degrees at the center is:

A) One-fourth of the circumference
B) One-eighth of the circumference
C) One-half of the circumference
D) The circumference itself

The perpendicular from the center of a circle to a chord
bisects
the chord.

A) True
B) False

The angle subtended by an arc at the center is twice the angle
subtended by the same arc at the circu
mference.

A) True
B) False

If a tangent and a chord are drawn from an external point to a
circle, then the measure of the angle be
tween the tangent and the chord is:
A) 30 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) Variable, depending on the position of the points

In a circle, the angle formed by the intersection of a
chord and
a tangent is equal to:

A) 30 degrees
B) 45 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) 180 degrees

Chapter 11 constructions

Which of the following is not a basic construction?

a) Bisecting an angle
b) Constructing mid-point
c) Divide a line segment in a given ratio
d) Constructing a triangle with given sides

An arc is constructed from a point P on the circle. Which of
the following statements is true?

a) The center of the arc is point P
b) The arc is always a semicircle
c) The arc can have any measure less than 360°
d) The arc can have any measure greater than 360°

Given a line segment AB, what is the construction to draw a
line parallel to AB passing through a point
C?

a) Construct equal angles at A and B
b) Extend AB and draw a perpendicular line
c) Use a compass to measure the length of AB and construct an
equal line
d) None of the above

What is the construction to bisect an angle?

a) Draw a perpendicular line from the vertex of the angle
b) Use a compass to divide the angle into two equal parts
c) Use a compass to draw an arc that intersects the angle sides,
then connect the two points of intersect
ion
d) None of the above

What is the main purpose of constructing the circumcircle of
a triangle?

a) To find the area of the triangle
b) To determine the angle bisectors
c) To find the perimeter of the triangle
d) To find the incircle of the triangle

Three collinear points A, B, and C are given. How many
circles can be drawn passing through these thr
ee points?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 2
d) Infinite

Which of the following constructions is used to divide a
line
segment AB in a given ratio m: n?

a) Draw perpendiculars to AB from points A and B
b) Use a compass to bisect AB and divide the bisected segment
into m equal parts
c) Construct a triangle with side AB and divide one side in
ratio m: n
d) None of the above

In constructing a triangle, the given measurements are AB =
5
cm, BC = 7 cm, and AC = 10 cm. What t
ype of triangle is this?

a) Equilateral triangle
b) Isosceles triangle
c) Scalene triangle
d) Right-angled triangle

Given an angle XYZ, what is the construction to draw an
angle
equal to XYZ?

a) Use a compass to bisect XYZ and copy the bisected angle
b) Draw a perpendicular to XYZ and copy the perpendicular angle
c) Construct another angle with the same vertex and two sides as
XYZ
d) None of the above

What is the construction to draw a perpendicular line to a
given line XY at point P?

a) Use a compass to measure the length of line XY and construct
an equal line through point P
b) Bisect the angle formed between line XY and a line passing
through point P
c) Use a compass to draw an arc that intersects line XY twice,
then connect the two points of intersecti
on with point P
d) None of the above

If two triangles have their corresponding angles equal and
the corresponding sides proportional, then t
he triangles are:

a) Congruent
b) Similar
c) Equilateral
d) Right-angled

What is the construction to draw a line segment AB
perpendicular to a given line XY at a point C?

a) Use a compass to measure the length of XY and construct an
equal line through point C
b) Bisect the angle formed between XY and a line passing through
point C
c) Use a compass to draw an arc that intersects XY twice, then
connect the two points of intersection wi
th point C
d) None of the above

The construction to find the circumcenter of a triangle is
based on the concept of:

a) Angle bisectors
b) Perpendicular bisectors
c) Medians
d) Altitudes

What is the construction to draw an angle of 60°?

a) Draw a perpendicular line from the vertex of the angle
b) Use a protractor to measure the angle
c) Use a compass to bisect a 180° angle
d) None of the above

Given two parallel lines XY and PQ, what is the
construction
to draw a line parallel to XY passing thro
ugh point Z?

a) Draw equal angles at X and Y
b) Extend PQ and draw a perpendicular line
c) Use a compass to measure the distance between XY and PQ, then
construct an equal line through p
oint Z
d) None of the above

To construct a triangle, what minimum number of
measurements
should be given?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Which of the following constructions is used to draw the
perpendicular bisector of a line segment?

a) Divide the line segment into three equal parts
b) Use a compass to trace a circle with the line segment as the
diameter, then draw arcs above and bel
ow the line segment
c) Bisect the angle formed by two lines intersecting the line
segment
d) None of the above

What is the construction to draw a triangle with given
sides
AB, BC, and AC?

a) Use a compass to measure the angle between AB and BC, then
construct equal angles at vertex A
b) Connect the three given points with line segments
c) Use a compass to measure the length of each side and
construct equal line segments
d) None of the above

What is the construction to draw a line segment of 6 cm?

a) Use a compass to measure the length of any other line segment
and construct an equal segment
b) Use a protractor to measure a 180° angle
c) Use a compass to divide a line segment into six equal parts
d) None of the above

The construction to draw an isosceles triangle is based on
the concept of:

a) Perpendicular bisectors
b) Angle bisectors
c) Medians
d) Altitudes

What is the construction to divide a line segment AB in
half?

a) Draw a perpendicular line from the middle point of AB
b) Use a compass to bisect AB
c) Draw an equilateral triangle with side AB, then connect the
opposite vertex to the midpoint of AB
d) None of the above

In constructing a triangle, the given measurements are AB =
BC = 4 cm and AC = 6 cm. What type of
triangle is this?

a) Equilateral triangle
b) Isosceles triangle
c) Scalene triangle
d) Right-angled triangle

Given two triangles with their corresponding angles equal,
but the corresponding sides not proportiona
l, then the triangles are:

a) Congruent
b) Similar
c) Equilateral
d) Right-angled

What is the construction to draw a line segment equal to
twice the length of a given line XY?

a) Use a compass to measure the length of XY and construct an
equal line that is twice as long
b) Extend XY and construct a perpendicular line from any point
on XY, then measure twice that length
c) Halve the angle formed between XY and a line passing through
any point
d) None of the above

Which of the following constructions is used to draw the
incenter of a triangle?

a) Angle bisectors
b) Perpendicular bisectors
c) Medians
d) Altitudes

What is the construction to draw a line segment
perpendicular to a given line XY through a point P not
on the line?

a) Use a compass to measure the length of XY and construct an
equal line through point P
b) Bisect the angle formed between XY and a line passing through
point P
c) Use a compass to draw an arc that intersects XY twice, then
connect the two points of intersection wi
th point P
d) None of the above

What is the construction to draw a line segment parallel to
a given line XY at a distance of 3 cm from
XY?

a) Extend XY to construct a perpendicular line and measure 3 cm
along that line
b) Use a compass to measure the length of XY and construct an
equal line segment at a distance of 3 c
m from XY
c) Bisect the angle formed by two lines intersecting XY, then
draw a line segment parallel to XY at a dis
tance of 3 cm
d) None of the above

What is the construction to draw an angle equal to a given
angle XYZ?

a) Use a compass to bisect XYZ and copy the bisected angle
b) Draw a perpendicular to XYZ and copy the perpendicular angle
c) Construct an equilateral triangle with side XYZ
d) None of the above

Chapter 12 area related to circles

The circumference of a circle with radius 7 cm is:

a) 14π cm
b) 21π cm
c) 2π cm
d) 49π cm

The area of a circle with radius 5 cm is:

a) 10π cm²
b) 25π cm²
c) 30π cm²
d) 125π cm²

The radius of a circle is 10 cm. The diameter of the circle
is:

a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 20 cm

The circumference of a circle with radius 12 cm is:

a) 24π cm
b) 36π cm
c) 48π cm
d) 72π cm

The area of a circle with circumference 10π cm is:

a) 15π cm²
b) 25π cm²
c) 50π cm²
d) 100π cm²

The radius of a circle is 6 cm. The circumference of the
circle is:

a) 6π cm
b) 12π cm
c) 18π cm
d) 36π cm

The area of a circle with diameter 14 cm is:

a) 49π cm²
b) 98π cm²
c) 154π cm²
d) 196π cm²

The circumference of a circle with diameter 8 cm is:

a) 4π cm
b) 8π cm
c) 16π cm
d) 32π cm

The radius of a circle is 9 cm. The area of the circle is:

a) 27π cm²
b) 81π cm²
c) 162π cm²
d) 243π cm²

The diameter of a circle with circumference 30π cm is:

a) 5 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 15 cm
d) 30 cm

The circumference of a circle with radius 3.5 cm is
approximately:

a) 7 cm
b) 11 cm
c) 14 cm
d) 22 cm

The area of a circle with circumference 36π cm is:

a) 9π cm²
b) 12π cm²
c) 18π cm²
d) 36π cm²

The radius of a circle is 15 cm. The circumference of the
circle is approximately:

a) 15π cm
b) 30π cm
c) 45π cm
d) 90π cm

The circumference of a circle is 44π cm. The diameter of
the
circle is:

a) 14 cm
b) 22 cm
c) 44 cm
d) 88 cm

The area of a circle with radius 8 cm is approximately:

a) 64π cm²
b) 128π cm²
c) 256π cm²
d) 512π cm²

The radius of a circle is 12 cm. The area of the circle is
approximately:

a) 36π cm²
b) 144π cm²
c) 288π cm²
d) 576π cm²

The circumference of a circle with radius 5.5 cm is
approximately:

a) 11 cm
b) 17 cm
c) 22 cm
d) 34 cm

The area of a circle with circumference 20π cm is
approximately:

a) 100π cm²
b) 200π cm²
c) 300π cm²
d) 400π cm²

The radius of a circle is 4 cm. The circumference of the
circle is approximately:

a) 4π cm
b) 8π cm
c) 16π cm
d) 32π cm

The circumference of a circle is 60π cm. The diameter of
the
circle is:

a) 20 cm
b) 30 cm
c) 40 cm
d) 60 cm

The diameter of a circle with radius 6.5 cm is
approximately:

a) 13 cm
b) 19 cm
c) 26 cm
d) 39 cm

The area of a circle with radius 11 cm is approximately:

a) 121π cm²
b) 242π cm²
c) 484π cm²
d) 968π cm²

The radius of a circle is 7 cm. The area of the circle is
approximately:

a) 49π cm²
b) 98π cm²
c) 154π cm²
d) 196π cm²

The circumference of a circle with diameter 20 cm is
approximately:

a) 20π cm
b) 40π cm
c) 60π cm
d) 80π cm

The area of a circle with circumference 22π cm is
approximately:

a) 11π cm²
b) 22π cm²
c) 44π cm²
d) 88π cm²

The radius of a circle is 18 cm. The circumference of the
circle is approximately:

a) 18π cm
b) 36π cm
c) 54π cm
d) 108π cm

The circumference of a circle is 64π cm. The diameter of
the
circle is:

a) 16 cm
b) 32 cm
c) 64 cm
d) 128 cm

The area of a circle with radius 9.5 cm is approximately:

a) 89.25π cm²
b) 178.5π cm²
c) 268.75π cm²
d) 537.5π cm²

The radius of a circle is 14 cm. The area of the circle is
approximately:

a) 196π cm²
b) 392π cm²
c) 588π cm²
d) 784π cm²

The circumference of a circle with radius 2.5 cm is
approximately:

a) 5π cm
b) 10π cm
c) 15π cm
d) 20π cm

The area of a circle with circumference 28π cm is
approximately:

a) 49π cm²
b) 98π cm²
c) 196π cm²
d) 392π cm²

The radius of a circle is 16 cm. The circumference of the
circle is approximately:

a) 16π cm
b) 32π cm
c) 64π cm
d) 128π cm

The circumference of a circle is 92π cm. The diameter of
the
circle is:

a) 29 cm
b) 46 cm
c) 58 cm
d) 92 cm

The area of a circle with radius 15.5 cm is approximately:

a) 240.25π cm²
b) 482.5π cm²
c) 964π cm²
d) 1928π cm²

The radius of a circle is 3 cm. The area of the circle is
approximately:

a) 9π cm²
b) 18π cm²
c) 27π cm²
d) 81π cm²

The circumference of a circle with diameter 16.5 cm is
approximately:

a) 8.25π cm
b) 16.5π cm
c) 33π cm
d) 66π cm

The area of a circle with circumference 18π cm is
approximately:

a) 9π cm²
b) 18π cm²
c) 36π cm²
d) 72π cm²

The radius of a circle is 10.5 cm. The circumference of the
circle is approximately:

a) 21π cm
b) 42π cm
c) 63π cm
d) 126π cm

The circumference of a circle is 68π cm. The diameter of
the
circle is:

a) 17 cm
b) 34 cm
c) 68 cm
d) 136 cm

The area of a circle with radius 13.5 cm is approximately:

a) 182.25π cm²
b) 364.5π cm²
c) 729π cm²
d) 1458π cm²

The radius of a circle is 5.5 cm. The area of the circle is
approximately:

a) 30.25π cm²
b) 60.5π cm²
c) 121π cm²
d) 242π cm²

The circumference of a circle with radius 20.5 cm is
approximately:

a) 41π cm
b) 82π cm
c) 164π cm
d) 328π cm

Chapter 13 surface areas and volumes

The surface area of a sphere is given by:

a) 4πr^2
b) πr^2
c) 2πr
d) 4πr

The curved surface area of a cone is given by:

a) πrl
b) πr^2
c) 2πl
d) πr

The sum of all the areas of a cuboid is:

a) 2lw + 2lh + 2wh
b) lh
c) lw
d) wh

What is the total surface area of a cylinder?

a) 2πrh + 2πr^2
b) πr^2
c) 2πr
d) 2πr^2h

The surface area of a cone is 154 cm^2 and its slant height
is 7 cm. Find the radius of the cone.

a) 3.5 cm
b) 2.5 cm
c) 4.5 cm
d) 5.5 cm

The length of a rectangular field is 10 meters and its
breadth is 6 meters. Find the cost of fencing the fie
ld if the fencing cost is Rs. 5 per meter.

a) Rs. 80
b) Rs. 160
c) Rs. 200
d) Rs. 300

The curved surface area of a cylinder is 308 cm^2. Find its
radius if the height of the cylinder is 7 cm.

a) 5 cm
b) 4 cm
c) 3 cm
d) 6 cm

The slant height of a cone is 9 cm and the radius of its
base
is 6 cm. Find its total surface area.

a) 207 cm^2
b) 270 cm^2
c) 153 cm^2
d) 216 cm^2

The diameter of a sphere is 14 cm. Find its volume.

a) 179.04 cm^3
b) 1176 cm^3
c) 3.08 cm^3
d) 43.96 cm^3

The height of a cone is 12 cm and its radius is 5 cm. Find
the volume of the cone.

a) 314.28 cm^3
b) 942.84 cm^3
c) 523.6 cm^3
d) 120 cm^3

The total surface area of a cylinder is 484 cm^2 and its
radius is 7 cm. Find the height of the cylinder.

a) 8 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 12 cm
d) 14 cm

The sum of the areas of all the faces of a cube is 150
cm^2.
Find its volume.

a) 27 cm^3
b) 125 cm^3
c) 64 cm^3
d) 216 cm^3

The slant height of a cone is 10 cm and its curved surface
area is 550 cm^2. Find the radius of the co
ne.

a) 7 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 5 cm
d) 8 cm

The diameter of a sphere is 28 cm. Find its surface area.

a) 2464 cm^2
b) 2468 cm^2
c) 2460 cm^2
d) 2462 cm^2

The height of a cylinder is 20 cm and its radius is 7 cm.

Find its volume.
a) 3080 cm^3
b) 4620 cm^3
c) 1540 cm^3
d) 2156 cm^3

The radius of the base of a cone is 6 cm and its height is
8
cm. Find its volume.

a) 301.44 cm^3
b) 452.16 cm^3
c) 603.84 cm^3
d) 754.56 cm^3

The diameter of a sphere is 42 cm. Find its volume.

a) 117649 cm^3
b) 123200 cm^3
c) 113569 cm^3
d) 134424 cm^3

The slant height of a cone is 13 cm and its radius is 5 cm.
Find its surface area.

a) 402.5 cm^2
b) 615.44 cm^2
c) 321.2 cm^2
d) 527.52 cm^2

The height of a cylinder is 16 cm and its radius is 7 cm.

Find its curved surface area.
a) 704 cm^2
b) 879 cm^2
c) 963.84 cm^2
d) 1175 cm^2

The diameter of a sphere is 56 cm. Find its curved surface
area.

a) 3698 cm^2
b) 3952 cm^2
c) 4136 cm^2
d) 4318 cm^2

The slant height of a cone is 15 cm and its curved surface
area is 600 cm^2. Find its radius.

a) 5 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 7 cm
d) 8 cm

The height of a cylinder is 24 cm and its radius is 9 cm.
Find its total surface area.

a) 2544 cm^2
b) 2692 cm^2
c) 2812 cm^2
d) 2936 cm^2

The radius of the base of a cone is 8 cm and its height is
12 cm. Find its total surface area.

a) 601.92 cm^2
b) 724.74 cm^2
c) 846.24 cm^2
d) 963.84 cm^2

The diameter of a sphere is 84 cm. Find its volume.

a) 789696 cm^3
b) 794392 cm^3
c) 798484 cm^3
d) 802648 cm^3

The slant height of a cone is 17 cm and its surface area is
850 cm^2. Find its radius.

a) 6 cm
b) 7 cm
c) 8 cm
d) 9 cm

The height of a cylinder is 30 cm and its radius is 12 cm.
Find its volume.

a) 13536 cm^3
b) 16776 cm^3
c) 19664 cm^3
d) 22176 cm^3

The radius of the base of a cone is 10 cm and its height is
14 cm. Find its volume.

a) 1466.66 cm^3
b) 1673.14 cm^3
c) 1923.92 cm^3
d) 2239.12 cm^3

The diameter of a sphere is 112 cm. Find its surface area.

a) 139968 cm^2
b) 141904 cm^2
c) 143840 cm^2
d) 145776 cm^2

The slant height of a cone is 19 cm and its surface area is
950 cm^2. Find its radius.

a) 8 cm
b) 9 cm
c) 10 cm
d) 11 cm

The height of a cylinder is 36 cm and its radius is 15 cm.
Find its curved surface area.

a) 1696 cm^2
b) 1904 cm^2
c) 2112 cm^2
d) 2320 cm^2

The radius of the base of a cone is 12 cm and its height is
18 cm. Find its total surface area.

a) 1084.68 cm^2
b) 1256.56 cm^2
c) 1409.92 cm^2
d) 1554.48 cm^2

The diameter of a sphere is 140 cm. Find its volume.

a) 1128320 cm^3
b) 1152588 cm^3
c) 1176968 cm^3
d) 1202460 cm^3

Chapter 14 statistics

In a data set, which measure of central tendency is most
affected by outliers?

a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Range

Which measure of dispersion is not influenced by outliers?

a) Range
b) Interquartile range
c) Standard deviation
d) Skewness

The formula for computing the standard deviation is:

a) Σ(X - Mean) / N
b) Σ(X - Median) / N
c) Σ(X - Mode) / N
d) √(Σ(X - Mean)^2 / N)

If two events are mutually exclusive, their probability of
occurring together is:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) Cannot be determined

In a normal distribution, what percentage of the data is
within one standard deviation from the mean?

a) 25%
b) 50%
c) 68%
d) 95%

The sum of probabilities of all outcomes of an event is
always equal to:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 100%
d) Cannot be determined

In a box containing 20 red and 30 blue balls, what is the
probability of drawing a red ball?

a) 1/2
b) 2/3
c) 3/5
d) 5/8

The median of a data set can be found by arranging the data
in:

a) Ascending order
b) Descending order
c) Any order
d) Cannot be determined

The mean of the data set {3, 6, 9, 12} is:

a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12

The range of a data set is the:

a) Difference between the smallest and largest values
b) Sum of all values
c) Average of all values
d) Mid-point of the data set

The mode of a data set is the:

a) Most frequently occurring value
b) Middle value
c) Difference between the smallest and largest values
d) Average of all values

If the variance of a data set is 0, then all the values in
the set are:

a) Equal
b) Prime numbers
c) Irrational numbers
d) Negative

The z-score formula is used to:

a) Find the mean
b) Calculate the range
c) Measure the skewness of data
d) Standardize data

In a grouped frequency distribution, the median can be
found
by:

a) Calculating the average of the lower and upper class limits
b) Identifying the value that appears most frequently
c) Finding the midpoint of the class with highest frequency
d) Summing up all the frequencies

An outlier is a data point that:

a) Appears multiple times in a data set
b) Is significantly different from other observations
c) Has a z-score of zero
d) Is impossible to occur

The coefficient of variation is used to measure:

a) Correlation between two variables
b) Difference between the highest and lowest values in a data
set
c) The relative variability of a data set
d) Probability of an event occurring

A random variable follows a binomial distribution if it:

a) Takes only positive values
b) Is normally distributed
c) Has a fixed number of trials and two outcomes
d) Is normally and uniformly distributed

The formula for calculating the probability of two
independent events occurring is:

a) P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B)
b) P(A and B) = P(A) + P(B)
c) P(A or B) = P(A) x P(B)
d) P(A and B) = P(A) x P(B)

The graph of a cumulative frequency distribution is called
a:

a) Histogram
b) Frequency polygon
c) Bar graph
d) Ogive

The sample space of an experiment consists of:

a) All possible outcomes
b) Only favorable outcomes
c) Infinite outcomes
d) Outcomes that are not equally likely

The empirical rule states that approximately 68% of the
data
falls within:

a) One standard deviation from the mean
b) Two standard deviations from the mean
c) Three standard deviations from the mean
d) Half of the standard deviation from the mean

In a normal distribution, the skewness is equal to:

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) Cannot be determined

The formula for calculating the interquartile range is:

a) Q - Q
b) Q + Q
c) Q - Q
d) Q + Q

The correlation coefficient ranges from:

a) -1 to -∞
b) -1 to 1
c) 0 to 1
d) 0 to ∞

The sum of all probabilities of an event is equal to:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 100%
d) Infinite

In a box containing 6 red, 4 blue, and 2 green balls, what
is the probability of drawing a blue or green
ball?

a) 1/12
b) 1/6
c) 1/2
d) 2/3

If two events are independent, their probability of
occurring together is equal to:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 0.5
d) Cannot be determined

The mode of a data set can be found by identifying the:

a) Most frequently occurring value
b) Average of all values
c) Difference between the smallest and largest values
d) Middle value

The measures of central tendency are used to describe the:

a) Range of data
b) Dispersion of data
c) Central value of data
d) Probability of an event occurring

The formula for calculating the population standard
deviation is similar to the formula for calculating:

a) Range
b) Mean
c) Mode
d) Sample standard deviation

The probability of getting a head when tossing a fair coin
is:

a) 1/2
b) 1/3
c) 2/3
d) 3/4

The sum of probabilities of all outcomes in an experiment
is
always equal to:

a) 0
b) 1
c) 100%
d) Cannot be determined

The mean of the data set {2, 4, 6, 8} is:

a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8

The range of a data set is the:

a) Difference between the smallest and largest values
b) Sum of all values
c) Average of all values
d) Mid-point of the data set

The quartiles divide the data into:

a) Four equal parts
b) Two equal parts
c) Three equal parts
d) Cannot be determined

The mode of a data set is the:

a) Most frequently occurring value
b) Middle value
c) Difference between the smallest and largest values
d) Average of all values

The variance of a data set is always:

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Cannot be determined

The central limit theorem states that the distribution of
sample means approaches a:

a) Normal distribution
b) Uniform distribution
c) Poisson distribution
d) Exponential distribution

The cumulative frequency distribution is used to find the:

a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Standard deviation

A 95% confidence interval means that:

a) There is 95% probability that the sample mean falls in the
interval
b) There is 5% probability that the sample mean falls in the
interval
c) The population mean falls within the interval with 95%
confidence
d) The population mean falls within the interval with 5%
confidence

The probability of an impossible event is always:

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) Cannot be determined

In a normal distribution, the standard deviation determines
the:

a) Skewness of the data
b) Variability of the data
c) Median of the data
d) Mode of the data

The formula for calculating the range is:

a) Q - Q
b) Q + Q
c) Q - Q
d) Q + Q

The correlation coefficient of perfectly positive linear
relationship is equal to:

a) 0
b) 1
c) -1
d) Cannot be determined

The coefficient of variation is calculated as the ratio of
the:

a) Standard deviation to the mean
b) Mean to the standard deviation
c) Mode to the median
d) Median to the mode

The median of a data set can be found by arranging the data
in:

a) Ascending order
b) Descending order
c) Any order
d) Cannot be determined

Chapter 15 probability

In a deck of playing cards, what is the probability of
drawing a king?

a) 1/52
b) 4/52
c) 1/13
d) 4/13

Two dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting a
sum
of 7?

a) 1/6
b) 1/36
c) 1/12
d) 1/14

A bag contains 5 red balls and 7 blue balls. If two balls
are
drawn at random, what is the probability that
both are red?

a) 5/12
b) 7/12
c) 5/11
d) 5/10

A box contains 10 green balls and 6 red balls. If two balls
are drawn at random without replacement, w
hat is the probability that both are green?

a) 5/8
b) 5/14
c) 10/16
d) 5/11

A spinner is divided into 8 equal sectors. What is the
probability of landing on an odd number?

a) 1/4
b) 3/4
c) 5/8
d) 1/8

A die is rolled. What is the probability of getting a number
greater than 4?

a) 1/6
b) 1/3
c) 2/3
d) 1/2

A coin is flipped three times. What is the probability of
getting at least two heads?

a) 1/8
b) 3/8
c) 3/4
d) 7/8

A bag contains 4 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 2 green
marbles. If a marble is drawn at random, w
hat is the probability of getting a blue or green marble?

a) 1/3
b) 2/9
c) 5/9
d) 2/3

In a class of 40 students, 15 play cricket and 20 play
football. If a student is selected at random, what is
the probability that he plays neither cricket nor football?

a) 4/40
b) 5/40
c) 15/40
d) 25/40

In a group of people, 30% are vegetarian, 40% are
non-vegetarian, and the rest are vegans. What is t
he probability that a randomly chosen person is a vegan?

a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%

A deck of 52 cards is shuffled and then one card is drawn
at
random. What is the probability that it is a
spade or a king?

a) 1/13
b) 3/52
c) 4/52
d) 5/52

Two dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting a
sum of 5 or 9?

a) 1/6
b) 1/4
c) 1/3
d) 5/18

A bag contains 6 purple balls, 4 yellow balls, and 8 green
balls. If a ball is randomly chosen from the b
ag, what is the probability of getting a purple or yellow
ball?

a) 5/10
b) 1/3
c) 10/18
d) 4/9

A spinner is divided into 4 equal sectors. What is the
probability of landing on a multiple of 3?

a) 1/6
b) 1/3
c) 1/4
d) 3/4

A coin is flipped four times. What is the probability of
getting exactly two tails?

a) 1/16
b) 1/8
c) 1/4
d) 3/8

A bag contains 8 red balls, 6 blue balls, and 4 green
balls.
If two balls are drawn at random with repla
cement, what is the probability that both are blue?

a) 1/9
b) 1/8
c) 1/7
d) 1/6

A jar contains 10 red marbles and 8 green marbles. If a
marble is drawn at random and then another
marble is drawn without replacement, what is the probability
that both are red?

a) 5/34
b) 10/72
c) 1/4
d) 5/9

A die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting a
sum of 8?

a) 1/36
b) 1/12
c) 1/9
d) 1/6

A bag contains 3 black balls, 4 white balls, and 5 red
balls. If a ball is randomly chosen from the bag,
what is the probability of getting a black or white ball?

a) 3/12
b) 4/12
c) 5/12
d) 7/12

In a class of 30 students, 20 wear glasses and 15 wear
braces. If a student is selected at random, wh
at is the probability that he wears either glasses or
braces?

a) 15/30
b) 20/30
c) 25/30
d) 35/30

A coin is flipped five times. What is the probability of
getting at least three heads?

a) 1/16
b) 3/16
c) 7/16
d) 9/16

A bag contains 5 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 2 green
marbles. If two marbles are drawn at rand
om without replacement, what is the probability that both
are
red?

a) 5/10
b) 5/8
c) 1/4
d) 1/3

In a group of people, 25% are left-handed, 40% are
right-handed, and the rest are ambidextrous. Wha
t is the probability that a randomly chosen person is
ambidextrous?

a) 15%
b) 10%
c) 20%
d) 35%

A box contains 6 blue pens, 3 black pens, and 5 red pens.
If
a pen is randomly chosen from the box,
what is the probability of getting a blue or black pen?

a) 3/14
b) 9/14
c) 2/5
d) 5/14

A spinner is divided into 6 equal sectors. What is the
probability of landing on a multiple of 2 or 3?

a) 1/6
b) 1/3
c) 1/2
d) 5/6

A basketball player has a shooting percentage of 60%. If he
takes 10 shots, what is the probability tha
t he makes at least 6 shots?

a) 0.06
b) 0.34
c) 0.84
d) 0.94

A deck of 52 cards is shuffled and then two cards are drawn
at random without replacement. What is t
he probability that both are hearts?

a) 1/52
b) 1/26
c) 1/169
d) 1/13

Two dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting a
sum greater than 9?

a) 1/4
b) 1/9
c) 1/6
d) 1/3

A bag contains 8 green marbles, 6 red marbles, and 4 blue
marbles. If a marble is drawn at random,
what is the probability of getting a green or red marble?

a) 7/18
b) 14/36
c) 11/18
d) 7/12

A spinner is divided into 5 equal sectors. What is the
probability of landing on a prime number?

a) 1/2
b) 2/5
c) 3/5
d) 4/5

A coin is flipped six times. What is the probability of
getting exactly four tails?

a) 1/64
b) 6/64
c) 15/64
d) 20/64

A box contains 7 yellow balls, 4 black balls, and 3 green
balls. If a ball is randomly chosen from the bo
x, what is the probability of getting a yellow or green
ball?

a) 7/14
b) 10/14
c) 11/14
d) 12/14

In a class of 35 students, 20 play football and 12 play
basketball. If a student is selected at random, w
hat is the probability that he plays either football or
basketball?