Class 12 Science and Math's Mcq's Free

Chapter 1 Solid State

Q. Which of the following is NOT a crystalline solid?

a) Diamond b) Glass c) Sodium chloride d) Quartz Answer: b) Glass

Q. Which of the following is an example of a covalent solid?

a) Sodium chloride b) Graphite c) Copper d) Silver Answer: b) Graphite

Q. Which of the following properties is generally NOT exhibited by crystalline solids?

a) Definite melting point b) Anisotropy c) Regular arrangement of particles d) Isotropy Answer: d) Isotropy

Q. In a crystal, the sites occupied by the constituent particles are referred to as:

a) Unit cells b) Lattice points c) Crystal planes d) Lattice parameters Answer: b) Lattice points

Q. Which of the following represents the formula unit of an ionic compound?

a) NaCl b) H2O c) CO2 d) C6H12O6 Answer: a) NaCl

Q. Which of the following types of crystalline solids has high electrical conductivity due to the presence of mobile electrons or ions?

a) Molecular solids b) Covalent solids c) Ionic solids d) Metallic solids Answer: d) Metallic solids

Q. Which of the following types of crystalline solids has particles held together by London dispersion force s?

a) Ionic solids b) Metallic solids c) Molecular solids d) Covalent solids Answer: c) Molecular solids

Q. An example of an amorphous solid is:

a) Sodium chloride b) Diamond c) Glass d) Quartz Answer: c) Glass

Q. Allotropy refers to the phenomenon of:

a) Sublimation of a solid b) Formation of isotopes c) Ability to form multiple crystalline structures d) Conversion of a solid directly into a gas Answer: c) Ability to form multiple crystalline structures

Q. The density of a unit cell of a crystal containing 4 atoms is 3 g/cm3. The molar mass of the substance is 180 g/mol. The edge length of the unit cell is:

a) 1 Å b) 3 Å c) 10 Å d) 100 Å Answer: c) 10 Å

Q. The coordination number of a cation in a crystal lattice is the:

a) Number of cations in the lattice b) Number of anions in the lattice c) Number of nearest neighboring anions d) Number of unit cells in the lattice Answer: c) Number of nearest neighboring anions

Q. Which of the following is an example of a substitutional solid solution?

a) Brass (Cu-Zn alloy) b) HCl (aq) c) Sodium chloride (NaCl) d) Solid carbon dioxide (CO2) Answer: a) Brass (Cu-Zn alloy)

Q. Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting the rate of diffusion in a solid?

a) Temperature b) Surface area c) Pressure d) Nature of the substance Answer: c) Pressure

Q. Point defects in crystals are:

a) Intrinsic defects b) Extrinsic defects c) Frenkel defects d) Schottky defects Answer: a) Intrinsic defects

Q. Which of the following is NOT a dislocation in a crystal lattice?

a) Edge dislocation b) Screw dislocation c) Mixed dislocation d) Planar dislocation Answer: d) Planar dislocation

Q. The type of magnetism exhibited by materials like iron, cobalt, and nickel is:

a) Ferromagnetism b) Paramagnetism c) Diamagnetism d) Antiferromagnetism Answer: a) Ferromagnetism

Q. Which of the following properties does NOT depend on the arrangement of particles in a crystalline sol id?

a) Density b) Melting point c) Electrical conductivity d) Specific heat capacity Answer: d) Specific heat capacity

Q. The energy required to separate one mole of a solid ionic crystal into its respective ions in the gas pha se is called:

a) Lattice energy b) Sublimation energy c) Ionization energy d) Bond energy Answer: a) Lattice energy

Q. The process of conversion of a gas directly into a solid without passing through the liquid state is calle d:

a) Evaporation b) Sublimation c) Boiling d) Condensation Answer: b) Sublimation

Q. Which of the following is an example of a network solid?

a) Sodium chloride b) Sucrose c) Diamond d) Acetone Answer: c) Diamond

Q. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic property of ionic solids?

a) High melting point b) Brittle nature c) Electrical conductivity in the solid state d) Solubility in nonpolar solvents Answer: d) Solubility in nonpolar solvents

Q. The efficiency of a close-packed structure is:

a) 50% b) 68% c) 74% d) 82% Answer: c) 74%

Q. The formula of ZnS is:

a) ZnSO4 b) ZnS2 c) Zn2S d) ZnS Answer: d) ZnS

Q. The common name for CaSO4∙2H2O is:

a) Gypsum b) Plaster of Paris c) Anhydrite d) Lime Answer: b) Plaster of Paris

Q. Which of the following statements about Frenkel defects is FALSE?

a) Frenkel defects occur in ionic solids. b) Frenkel defects involve the displacement of an atom from its normal site to an interstitial site. c) The density of an ionic solid decreases due to the presence of Frenkel defects. d) Frenkel defects are also known as dislocation defects. Answer: d) Frenkel defects are also known as dislocation defects.

Q. Which of the following substances conducts electricity in the molten state but not in the solid state?

a) Graphite b) Diamond c) Sodium chloride d) Copper Answer: c) Sodium chloride

Q. The ability of a substance to be drawn into wires is called:

a) Malleability b) Conductivity c) Ductility d) Tenacity Answer: c) Ductility

Q. The unit cell of a diamond crystal is:

a) Simple cubic b) Body-centered cubic c) Face-centered cubic d) Hexagonal close-packed Answer: d) Hexagonal close-packed

Q. The number of atoms present in a body-centered cubic unit cell is:

a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 10 Answer: b) 4

Q. Which of the following elements has a body-centered cubic crystal structure at room temperature?

a) Aluminum b) Sodium c) Iron d) Copper Answer: c) Iron

Q. The packing efficiency of a body-centered cubic lattice is:

a) 52% b) 68% c) 74% d) 82% Answer: d) 82%

Q. The number of atoms present in a face-centered cubic unit cell is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8 Answer: c) 4

Q. The formula of the oxide of an element that forms a simple cubic crystal lattice with oxide ions at the c orners of the cube and the element at the center of the cube is:

a) XO b) X2O c) XO2 d) X2O3 Answer: b) X2O

Q. Which of the following elements has a face-centered cubic crystal structure at room temperature?

a) Aluminum b) Sodium c) Iron d) Copper Answer: d) Copper

Q. The type of packing in a hexagonal close-packed structure is:

a) ABAB b) ABC c) AAA d) ABAC Answer: a) ABAB

Q. The coordination number of a particle in a hexagonal close-packed structure is:

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10 Answer: b) 6

Q. A solid dissolves in a liquid if:

a) The solid is denser than the liquid b) The solid is less dense than the liquid c) The solid does not interact with the liquid d) The solid is more soluble than the liquid Answer: d) The solid is more soluble than the liquid

Q. The temperature at which crystals of a compound lose their water of hydration is called:

a) Melting point b) Boiling point c) Freezing point d) Efflorescence point Answer: d) Efflorescence point

Q. Which of the following is NOT a method to prepare colloids?

a) Condensation b) Dispersion c) Peptization d) Sublimation Answer: d) Sublimation

Chapter 2 Solutions

Q. Which one of the following statements about solutions is false?

a) Solutions are homogeneous mixtures b) The solute is the substance that dissolves in a solvent c) Solutions can be solid, liquid or gaseous d) Solutions cannot conduct electricity Answer: d) Solutions cannot conduct electricity

Q. What is the concentration of a solution that contains 25 grams of solute in 500 mL of solvent?

a) 5 g/L b) 50 g/L c) 500 g/L d) 50 g/mL Answer: b) 50 g/L

Q. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 0.5 moles of solute in 500 mL of solvent?

a) 0.1 M b) 0.5 M c) 1 M d) 2 M Answer: c) 1 M

Q. Which one of the following is a colligative property of a solution?

a) Color b) Odor c) Boiling point elevation d) pH Answer: c) Boiling point elevation

Q. A solution that contains more solute than can be dissolved at a given temperature is:

a) Saturated b) Unsaturated c) Supersaturated d) Concentrated Answer: c) Supersaturated

Q. What is the van't Hoff factor (i) for a non-electrolyte?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 Answer: b) 1

Q. Which one of the following is a colligative property?

a) Freezing point depression b) Solubility c) Viscosity d) Vapor pressure Answer: a) Freezing point depression

Q. An ideal solution is one in which:

a) The solute completely dissolves in the solvent b) The solute partially dissolves in the solvent c) The solute forms a precipitate in the solvent d) The solute does not dissolve in the solvent Answer: a) The solute completely dissolves in the solvent

Q. What is the formula for mole fraction?

a) Moles of solute / Volume of solution b) Moles of solute / Moles of solvent c) Moles of solute / Total moles of solution d) Moles of solute / Moles of solute + Moles of solvent Answer: c) Moles of solute / Total moles of solution

Q. Which one of the following is not a property of colloidal solutions?

a) Tyndall effect b) Brownian motion c) Osmosis d) Electrophoresis Answer: c) Osmosis

Q. What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 x 10^-5 M?

a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9 Answer: b) 5

Q. The solubility of a gas in a liquid:

a) Decreases with increasing temperature b) Increases with increasing pressure c) Decreases with decreasing pressure d) Increases with decreasing temperature Answer: b) Increases with increasing pressure

Q. A solution with a pH of 3 is:

a) Acidic b) Neutral c) Basic d) None of the above Answer: a) Acidic

Q. Which one of the following is not a colligative property?

a) Osmotic pressure b) Freezing point depression c) Boiling point elevation d) Surface tension Answer: d) Surface tension

Q. What is the chemical formula for sodium chloride?

a) Na2SO4 b) NaCl c) NaHCO3 d) Na3PO4 Answer: b) NaCl

Q. Colligative properties depend on which of the following?

a) The nature of the solute b) The nature of the solvent c) The concentration of the solution d) The volume of the solution Answer: c) The concentration of the solution

Q. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 0.2 moles of solute in 1 liter of solvent?

a) 0.2 M b) 0.4 M c) 0.6 M d) 0.8 M Answer: a) 0.2 M

Q. Which one of the following is an example of a suspension?

a) Homogenized milk b) Vinegar c) Air d) Orange juice with pulp Answer: d) Orange juice with pulp

Q. What is the freezing point depression constant (Kf) for water?

a) 1.86 °C/m b) 0.51 °C/m c) 0.98 °C/m d) 0.03 °C/m Answer: a) 1.86 °C/m

Q. Which one of the following is not a method for expressing concentration?

a) Mass percentage b) Molarity c) Molality d) Millimeters Answer: d) Millimeters

Q. What is the boiling point elevation constant (Kb) for water?

a) 1.86 °C/m b) 0.51 °C/m c) 0.98 °C/m d) 0.03 °C/m Answer: a) 1.86 °C/m

Q. Chromatography is a technique used to:

a) Separate components of a mixture based on boiling point b) Separate components of a mixture based on density c) Separate components of a mixture based on solubility d) Separate components of a mixture based on adsorption Answer: d) Separate components of a mixture based on adsorption

Q. What is the molarity of a solution if 0.2 moles of solute is dissolved in 500 mL of solvent?

a) 0.2 M b) 0.4 M c) 0.6 M d) 0.8 M Answer: b) 0.4 M

Q. What is the pH of a solution with a hydrogen ion concentration of 1 x 10^-9 M?

a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 11 Answer: d) 11

Q. Which one of the following is an example of a colloid?

a) Saltwater b) Lemonade c) Milk d) Vinegar Answer: c) Milk

Q. The process of dissolving a gas in a liquid is called:

a) Dissociation b) Precipitation c) Solvation d) Effervescence Answer: c) Solvation

Q. What is the boiling point of a solution that contains 0.5 moles of solute in 1 liter of solvent? (Assuming ideal behavior)

a) 50 °C b) 100 °C c) 150 °C d) 200 °C Answer: b) 100 °C

Q. Which one of the following is an example of a non-electrolyte?

a) Sodium chloride (NaCl) b) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) c) Glucose (C6H12O6) d) Sulfuric acid (H2SO4) Answer: c) Glucose (C6H12O6)

Q. Which one of the following is a colligative property of a solution?

a) Color b) Viscosity c) Surface tension d) Density Answer: b) Viscosity

Q. What is the formula for calculating osmotic pressure?

a) π = MRT b) π = ncRT c) π = PV/RT d) π = Tf/Kf Answer: a) π = MRT

Q. The enthalpy of solution is negative when:

a) The solute dissolves endothermically b) The solvent dissolves endothermically c) The solute dissolves exothermically d) The solvent dissolves exothermically Answer: c) The solute dissolves exothermically

Q. What is the formula for calculating molality?

a) Molality = Moles of solute / Volume of solution b) Molality = Moles of solute / Moles of solvent c) Molality = Moles of solute / Total moles of solution d) Molality = Moles of solute / Mass of solvent (in kg) Answer: d) Molality = Moles of solute / Mass of solvent (in kg)

Q. Which one of the following is not a colligative property of a solution?

a) Osmotic pressure b) Boiling point elevation c) Freezing point depression d) Vapor pressure elevation Answer: d) Vapor pressure elevation

Q. What is the pH of a neutral solution?

a) 0 b) 5 c) 7 d) 14 Answer: c) 7

Chapter 3 Electrochemistry

Q. What is the branch of chemistry that deals with the study of chemical changes involving electricity?

a) Organic chemistry b) Physical chemistry c) Inorganic chemistry d) Electrochemistry Answer: d) Electrochemistry

Q. What is the SI unit of electric charge?

a) Ampere b) Volt c) Coulomb d) Ohm Answer: c) Coulomb

Q. Which electrode is considered the anode in an electrochemical cell?

a) Positive electrode b) Negative electrode c) Primary electrode d) Secondary electrode Answer: b) Negative electrode

Q. What is the standard reduction potential of a half-cell called?

a) Galvanic potential b) Electromotive force c) Cell potential d) Standard electrode potential Answer: d) Standard electrode potential

Q. What happens to the cell potential when the concentration of reactants increases?

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) No effect Answer: a) Increases

Q. The flow of electric charge due to migration of ions is called:

a) Electrolysis b) Electromigration c) Electrochemical cell d) Redox reaction Answer: a) Electrolysis

Q. Which of the following is an example of a non-spontaneous reaction?

a) Burning of magnesium ribbon b) Rusting of iron c) Electroplating d) Galvanic cell reaction Answer: c) Electroplating

Q. A voltaic cell generates electricity through what process?

a) Spontaneous redox reaction b) Non-spontaneous redox reaction c) Hydrolysis d) Oxidation only Answer: a) Spontaneous redox reaction

Q. In a Daniell cell, what is the anode made of?

a) Copper b) Zinc c) Platinum d) Silver Answer: b) Zinc

Q. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction?

a) Combustion of methane b) Dissolution of salt in water c) Dissociation of acids d) Dissociation of bases Answer: a) Combustion of methane

Q. What is the process of depositing a thin layer of one metal on top of another metal called?

a) Electroplating b) Electrolysis c) Galvanizing d) Reduction Answer: a) Electroplating

Q. What happens to the mass of the anode during the process of electrolysis?

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) No effect Answer: b) Decreases

Q. Which of the following is the reducing agent in a galvanic cell?

a) Anode b) Cathode c) Salt bridge d) Electrolyte Answer: a) Anode

Q. Which type of electrode is used in a Daniel cell?

a) Copper b) Zinc c) Platinum d) Silver Answer: a) Copper

Q. What is the transfer of electrons from one atom to another called?

a) Reduction b) Oxidation c) Electrolysis d) Combination Answer: b) Oxidation

Q. What is the standard potential of hydrogen electrode at 25°C?

a) +0.76 V b) -0.76 V c) +1.23 V d) -1.23 V Answer: c) +1.23 V

Q. What is the half-reaction that takes place at the cathode called?

a) Oxidation b) Reduction c) Electridation d) Electrolysis Answer: b) Reduction

Q. Which of the following is an example of a galvanic cell?

a) Fuel cell b) Electrolytic cell c) Electrochemical cell d) Battery Answer: d) Battery

Q. What is the symbol for standard hydrogen electrode?

a) SHE b) HSE c) EHS d) HES Answer: a) SHE

Q. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the standard potential of an electrode?

a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Concentration d) Nature of electrode material Answer: a) Pressure

Q. What is the cell potential of an electrolytic cell?

a) Negative b) Positive c) Zero d) Variable Answer: a) Negative

Q. Electrochemical cells convert _____ energy into electrical energy.

a) Heat b) Light c) Chemical d) Mechanical Answer: c) Chemical

Q. What is the function of a salt bridge in an electrochemical cell?

a) Maintain electrical neutrality b) Increase cell potential c) Increase current flow d) Slow down the reaction rate Answer: a) Maintain electrical neutrality

Q. What is the fundamental unit of charge?

a) Electron b) Proton c) Neutron d) Photon Answer: a) Electron

Q. Which metal is commonly used for electroplating?

a) Iron b) Zinc c) Copper d) Gold Answer: c) Copper

Q. What is the process of separating a metal from its ore using electrochemical means called?

a) Electrolysis b) Electromigration c) Galvanization d) Ionization Answer: a) Electrolysis

Q. What is the name of the electrode where oxidation takes place in an electrolytic cell?

a) Anode b) Cathode c) Salt bridge d) Electrolyte Answer: a) Anode

Q. Which of the following is an example of a spontaneous redox reaction?

a) Electrolysis b) Combustion c) Decomposition of water d) Electroplating Answer: b) Combustion

Q. What is the charge of an electron?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) Variable Answer: b) Negative

Q. What is the process of coating a metal with a protective layer of zinc called?

a) Galvanization b) Electrolysis c) Oxidation d) Reduction Answer: a) Galvanization

Q. Which of the following is the strongest oxidizing agent?

a) Hydrogen peroxide b) Oxygen gas c) Fluorine gas d) Chlorine gas Answer: c) Fluorine gas

Q. Which component of a galvanic cell is responsible for conducting electric current?

a) Electrolyte b) Electrode c) Salt bridge d) Cell membrane Answer: b) Electrode

Q. What is the process of converting chemical energy into electrical energy called?

a) Electrolysis b) Galvanic cell c) Oxidation d) Reduction Answer: b) Galvanic cell

Q. What is the oxidation state of an atom in its elemental form?

a) +1 b) -1 c) 0 d) Variable Answer: c) 0

Q. Which of the following is an example of an electrolytic cell?

a) Fuel cell b) Battery c) Electroplating d) Voltaic cell Answer: c) Electroplating

Q. What is the charge on a proton?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) Variable Answer: a) Positive

Q. Which of the following processes occurs at the cathode of an electrolytic cell?

a) Oxidation b) Reduction c) Dissociation d) Combination Answer: b) Reduction

Q. Which material is commonly used as an electrolyte?

a) Water b) Salt c) Aluminum d) Silicon Answer: b) Salt

Q. What is the oxidation number of oxygen in most compounds?

a) -1 b) 0 c) +1 d) -2 Answer: d) -2

Q. Which of the following elements is reduced in the reaction Mg + 2HCl → MgCl2 + H2?

a) Magnesium b) Hydrogen c) Chlorine d) Oxygen Answer: b) Hydrogen

Q. What is the cell potential when two half-cells have the same reduction potential?

a) Zero b) Positive c) Negative d) Variable Answer: a) Zero

Q. What is the process of using an electric current to decompose a compound called?

a) Electroplating b) Electromigration c) Electrolysis d) Oxidation Answer: c) Electrolysis

Q. Which of the following is an example of a non-electrolyte?

a) Sodium chloride b) Hydrochloric acid c) Distilled water d) Sodium hydroxide Answer: c) Distilled water

Q. Which component of an electrochemical cell allows the flow of ions?

a) Electrolyte b) Electrode c) Salt bridge d) Cell membrane Answer: c) Salt bridge

Q. When does the redox reaction occur in an electrochemical cell?

a) Only at the anode b) Only at the cathode c) At both the anode and cathode d) At neither the anode nor cathode Answer: c) At both the anode and cathode

Chapter 4 Chemical Kinetics

Q. Which of the following is not a factor that affects the rate of a chemical reaction?

a) Temperature b) Concentration c) Surface area d) Molar mass Answer: d) Molar mass

Q. The rate of a reaction is determined by:

a) The least abundant reactant b) The most abundant reactant c) The average of all reactants d) The product concentration Answer: a) The least abundant reactant

Q. Which of the following is a first-order reaction?

a) A + B → C b) A + B → 2C c) A → B d) 2A + B → C Answer: c) A → B

Q. The rate equation for a reaction is given as: rate = k[A]²[B]. What is the overall order of the reaction?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c) 3

Q. The rate constant for a reaction is dependent on:

a) Temperature only b) Concentration only c) Temperature and concentration d) Pressure and concentration Answer: a) Temperature only

Q. The half-life of a reaction is defined as the time required for:

a) Half of the reactant to be consumed b) Half of the product to be formed c) The entire reactant to be consumed d) The entire product to be formed Answer: a) Half of the reactant to be consumed

Q. Which of the following is a zero-order reaction?

a) A + B → C b) A + B → 2C c) A → B d) 2A + B → C Answer: b) A + B → 2C

Q. Collision theory is used to explain:

a) The effect of temperature on reaction rates b) The effect of concentration on reaction rates c) The effect of surface area on reaction rates d) The activation energy of reactions Answer: d) The activation energy of reactions

Q. The Arrhenius equation is used to calculate:

a) The activation energy of a reaction b) The rate constant of a reaction c) The order of a reaction d) The equilibrium constant for a reaction Answer: b) The rate constant of a reaction

Q. What is the unit of the rate constant for a second-order reaction?

Q. The rate-determining step of a reaction is:

a) The slowest step of the reaction mechanism b) The fastest step of the reaction mechanism c) The step with the highest activation energy d) The step with the lowest activation energy Answer: a) The slowest step of the reaction mechanism

Q. Which of the following is a catalyst?

a) A substance that decreases the rate of a reaction b) A substance that increases the rate of a reaction c) A substance that undergoes a reaction without being consumed d) A substance that increases the activation energy of a reaction Answer: c) A substance that undergoes a reaction without being consumed

Q. A reaction with a negative enthalpy change ( H) and a positive entropy change ( S) will:

a) Always be spontaneous b) Never be spontaneous c) Be spontaneous at high temperatures d) Be spontaneous at low temperatures Answer: c) Be spontaneous at high temperatures

Q. The rate of a reaction doubles when the temperature is increased from 25°C to 50°C. By how much wi ll the rate increase if the temperature is further increased to 100°C?

a) Doubles b) Quadruples c) Increases by eight times d) Increases by sixteen times Answer: b) Quadruples

Q. A reaction has a rate constant of 0.05 s ¹. What is the time required for the reaction to be 90% complet e?

a) 1 s b) 2 s c) 3 s d) 4 s Answer: c) 3 s

Q. Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of a reaction?

a) Catalysts b) Enzymes c) pH d) Pressure Answer: d) Pressure

Q. The Arrhenius equation is given as:

a) k = Ae^(Ea/RT) b) k = Ae^(-Ea/RT) c) k = A^(Ea/RT) d) k = A^(Ea/RT) Answer: a) k = Ae^(Ea/RT)

Q. The rate of a reaction can be determined by:

a) Following the change in concentration of a reactant or product over time b) Measuring the pressure change of a reactant or product over time c) Observing the color change of a reactant or product over time d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following statements is true about the rate of a reaction?

a) The rate is always constant throughout the reaction b) The rate increases as the reaction progresses c) The rate decreases as the reaction progresses d) The rate can be different at different stages of the reaction Answer: d) The rate can be different at different stages of the reaction

Q. A reaction has a rate constant of 0.02 M ¹s ¹. What is the order of the reaction?

a) Zero order b) First order c) Second order d) Third order Answer: b) First order

Q. Which of the following is not a way to increase the rate of a reaction?

a) Increasing the temperature b) Increasing the concentration of reactants c) Increasing the surface area of reactants d) Decreasing the pressure of reactants Answer: d) Decreasing the pressure of reactants

Q. Which of the following is an example of a reversible reaction?

a) 2H (g) + O (g) → 2H O(g) b) NaCl(aq) + AgNO (aq) → NaNO (aq) + AgCl(s) c) C(s) + O (g) → CO (g) d) HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → H O(l) + NaCl(aq) Answer: b) NaCl(aq) + AgNO (aq) → NaNO (aq) + AgCl(s)

Q. The rate of a reaction can be increased by:

a) Adding a reactant b) Adding a catalyst c) Increasing the temperature d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The rate of a reaction is determined by:

a) The concentration of reactants only b) The concentration of products only c) The concentration of reactants and products d) The temperature of the reaction Answer: c) The concentration of reactants and products

Q. Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of a reaction?

a) Pressure b) Surface area c) Catalysts d) Temperature Answer: a) Pressure

Q. What is the order of a reaction if tripling the concentration of a reactant causes the rate to increase by a factor of nine?

a) Zero order b) First order c) Second order d) Third order Answer: c) Second order

Q. The rate law for a reaction is given as: rate = k[A]. What is the order of the reaction?

a) Zero order b) First order c) Second order d) Third order Answer: b) First order

Q. The rate constant for a reaction is 0.02 s ¹. What is the half-life of the reaction?

a) 10 s b) 20 s c) 30 s d) 40 s Answer: b) 20 s

Q. A reaction has a rate constant of 0.005 s ¹. What is the time required for the reaction to be 95% comple te?

a) 19.6 s b) 20.1 s c) 65.5 s d) 99.5 s Answer: c) 65.5 s

Q. The rate equation for a reaction is given as: rate = k[A][B]. What is the overall order of the reaction?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b) 2

Q. A reaction has a rate constant of 0.01 s ¹. What is the time required for the reaction to be 80% complet e?

a) 173 s b) 280 s c) 386 s d) 491 s Answer: c) 386 s

Q. The rate-determining step of a reaction is:

a) The fastest step of the reaction mechanism b) The slowest step of the reaction mechanism c) The step with the lowest activation energy d) The step with the highest activation energy Answer: b) The slowest step of the reaction mechanism

Chapter 5 Surface Chemistry

Q. Which of the following statements is true about surface chemistry?

a) It deals with the study of chemical reactions occurring at the surface of solids b) It deals with the study of chemical reactions occurring inside the bulk of solids c) It deals with the study of chemical reactions occurring in liquids and gases d) It deals with the study of chemical reactions occurring in solutions Answer: a) It deals with the study of chemical reactions occurring at the surface of solids

Q. Which of the following substances acts as a catalyst in the Haber's process of ammonia synthesis?

a) Iron b) Platinum c) Gold d) Copper Answer: a) Iron

Q. Which of the following substances can adsorb gases on their surface?

a) Charcoal b) Platinum c) Gold d) Iron Answer: a) Charcoal

Q. Which of the following adsorption is commonly used for removing toxic substances from water?

a) Physical adsorption b) Chemical adsorption c) Enzyme adsorption d) Photochemical adsorption Answer: b) Chemical adsorption

Q. Which of the following factors affect the adsorption of gases on solids?

a) Temperature and pressure b) Temperature and concentration c) Pressure and concentration d) Pressure and humidity Answer: a) Temperature and pressure

Q. Which of the following is an example of chemisorption?

a) Oxygen adsorbing on activated charcoal b) Nitrogen adsorbing on platinum c) Hydrogen adsorbing on nickel d) Carbon dioxide adsorbing on glass Answer: c) Hydrogen adsorbing on nickel

Q. Which of the following is an example of physisorption?

a) Oxygen adsorbing on activated charcoal b) Nitrogen adsorbing on platinum c) Hydrogen adsorbing on nickel d) Carbon dioxide adsorbing on glass Answer: a) Oxygen adsorbing on activated charcoal

Q. Which of the following is an example of a catalyst?

a) Nickel in hydrogenation reactions b) Sodium chloride in sol-gel process c) Glucose in fermentation reactions d) Sulfuric acid in neutralization reactions Answer: a) Nickel in hydrogenation reactions

Q. The process of spreading of a liquid over a solid surface is known as:

a) Absorption b) Desorption c) Adsorption d) Wetting Answer: d) Wetting

Q. Which of the following substances is used as a catalyst in the contact process?

a) Vanadium pentoxide b) Platinum c) Iron d) Charcoal Answer: a) Vanadium pentoxide

Q. What is the phenomenon in which the sol particles come together and settle down at the bottom of the container?

a) Sedimentation b) Coagulation c) Adsorption d) Coalescence Answer: b) Coagulation

Q. Which of the following can be used as an adsorbent in gas masks?

a) Barium sulfate b) Sodium chloride c) Activated charcoal d) Zinc oxide Answer: c) Activated charcoal

Q. The adsorption of a gas on a solid surface increases with:

a) Decrease in temperature b) Decrease in pressure c) Increase in temperature d) Increase in pressure Answer: d) Increase in pressure

Q. Tyndall effect is produced by:

a) True solutions b) Colloidal solutions c) Suspensions d) All of the above Answer: b) Colloidal solutions

Q. Which of the following is true about micelles?

a) They consist of particles having a size smaller than colloidal particles b) They consist of particles having a size greater than colloidal particles c) They consist of colloidal particles held together by London dispersion forces d) They consist of colloidal particles surrounded by soap molecules Answer: d) They consist of colloidal particles surrounded by soap molecules

Q. Which of the following is an example of a lyophilic colloid?

a) Starch in water b) Gold in water c) Sulfur in carbon disulfide d) Latex in water Answer: d) Latex in water

Q. Which of the following methods can be used to prepare a colloidal solution?

a) Condensation method b) Dispersion method c) Electrolysis method d) None of the above Answer: b) Dispersion method

Q. Which of the following is an example of a lyophobic colloid?

a) Starch in water b) Gold in water c) Sulfur in carbon disulfide d) Latex in water Answer: c) Sulfur in carbon disulfide

Q. The process of conversion of a lyophilic colloid into a lyophobic colloid is called:

a) Peptization b) Tyndallization c) Coagulation d) Desorption Answer: c) Coagulation

Q. The process of conversion of a lyophobic colloid into a lyophilic colloid is called:

a) Peptization b) Tyndallization c) Coagulation d) Desorption Answer: a) Peptization

Q. Which of the following factors affect the stability of a colloidal solution?

a) Charge on colloidal particles b) Nature of dispersion medium c) Presence of electrolytes d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The process of coagulation can be reversed by:

a) Heating b) Cooling c) Addition of an electrolyte d) Addition of a solvent Answer: c) Addition of an electrolyte

Q. Which of the following is the driving force for Brownian motion in colloidal particles?

a) Pressure difference b) Temperature difference c) Concentration difference d) Random collision with solvent molecules Answer: d) Random collision with solvent molecules

Q. Which of the following is used as an emulsion in food products?

a) Milk b) Butter c) Vegetable oil d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The composition range in which colloidal particles exhibit properties intermediate between those of tru e solutions and suspensions is called:

a) Coagulation range b) Precipitation range c) Tyndall range d) Colloidal range Answer: d) Colloidal range

Q. Which of the following methods can be used to determine the size of colloidal particles?

a) Electron microscopy b) Light scattering c) Ultracentrifugation d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is used as a stabilizer in emulsions?

a) Detergent b) Emulsifying agent c) Catalyst d) Preservative Answer: b) Emulsifying agent

Q. Which of the following is an example of a negatively charged sol?

a) Gold sol b) Silver sol c) Starch sol d) Aluminum hydroxide sol Answer: d) Aluminum hydroxide sol

Q. Which of the following statements is false about catalysis?

a) Catalysts increase the rate of a chemical reaction b) Catalysts are consumed in the reaction c) Catalysts provide an alternative pathway with lower activation energy d) Catalysts do not change the equilibrium position of the reaction Answer: b) Catalysts are consumed in the reaction

Q. Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous catalyst?

a) Iron in the Haber's process b) Platinum in the contact process c) Nickel in hydrogenation reactions d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is true about enzymes?

a) Enzymes are biological catalysts b) Enzymes are specific to particular reactions c) Enzymes are usually proteins d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The substance that undergoes catalysis is called:

a) Reactant b) Product c) Catalyst d) Intermediate Answer: a) Reactant

Q. The substance that is produced as a result of catalysis is called:

a) Reactant b) Product c) Catalyst d) Intermediate Answer: b) Product

Q. Which of the following factors affect the rate of a catalyzed reaction?

a) Temperature b) Concentration of reactants c) Presence of inhibitors d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The process in which an intermediate formed in a reaction combines with another reactant to form pro ducts is called:

a) Intermediate reaction b) Chain reaction c) Catalyst reaction d) Rate-determining step Answer: a) Intermediate reaction

Q. Which of the following is an example of a zeolite catalyst?

a) Iron b) Platinum c) Sodium aluminosilicate d) Nickel Answer: c) Sodium aluminosilicate

Q. Which of the following factors affect the selectivity of a catalyst?

a) Shape and size of catalyst particles b) Temperature and pressure c) Presence of promoters or inhibitors d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Q. Which of the following is the most abundant metal in the Earth's crust?

a) Aluminum b) Iron c) Copper d) Gold Answer: a) Aluminum

Q. The process of converting an ore into its purest form is called:

a) Extraction b) Refining c) Isolation d) Purification Answer: b) Refining

Q. Who is credited with the discovery of electrolysis?

a) Sir Humphry Davy b) Michael Faraday c) Antoine Lavoisier d) Carl Wilhelm Scheele Answer: b) Michael Faraday

Q. Which metal is extracted by the Hall-Heroult process?

a) Aluminum b) Iron c) Copper d) Gold Answer: a) Aluminum

Q. Which reducing agent is commonly used in the extraction of iron from its ore?

a) Carbon monoxide b) Carbon dioxide c) Hydrogen d) Oxygen Answer: a) Carbon monoxide

Q. The process of removing impurities from a metal by reacting it with a suitable substance is called:

a) Roasting b) Calcination c) Smelting d) Flux Answer: c) Smelting

Q. What is the main source of copper?

a) Copper pyrites b) Hematite c) Bauxite d) Magnetite Answer: a) Copper pyrites

Q. Which metal is obtained from its ore by the Mond process?

a) Gold b) Platinum c) Silver d) Palladium Answer: d) Palladium

Q. The process of converting a metal oxide into its pure metal form using heat alone is called:

a) Roasting b) Reduction c) Smelting d) Calcination Answer: b) Reduction

Q. Which method is used for the extraction of highly reactive metals?

a) Electrolysis b) Roasting c) Smelting d) Reduction Answer: a) Electrolysis

Q. What is the main ore of iron?

a) Hematite b) Limonite c) Magnetite d) Bauxite Answer: a) Hematite

Q. The process of converting an ore into its oxide by heating it in the presence of excess air is called:

a) Roasting b) Calcination c) Smelting d) Reduction Answer: a) Roasting

Q. Which metal is obtained by the electrolysis of fused alumina?

a) Aluminum b) Iron c) Copper d) Gold Answer: a) Aluminum

Q. What is the principle behind the froth floatation process?

a) Magnetic properties of the ore b) Density difference between the ore and impurities c) Solubility of the ore in water d) Ability of the ore to form a froth Answer: b) Density difference between the ore and impurities

Q. Which metal is commonly extracted by the cyanide process?

a) Gold b) Platinum c) Silver d) Palladium Answer: a) Gold

Q. What is the chemical formula of cryolite?

a) Na3AlF6 b) NaCl c) AlF3 d) AlCl3 Answer: a) Na3AlF6

Q. The process of converting an ore into its oxide by heating it strongly below its melting point is called:

a) Roasting b) Calcination c) Smelting d) Reduction Answer: b) Calcination

Q. Which method is used for the extraction of low reactive metals?

a) Electrolysis b) Roasting c) Smelting d) Reduction Answer: d) Reduction

Q. What is the main ore of copper?

a) Copper pyrites b) Hematite c) Bauxite d) Magnetite Answer: a) Copper pyrites

Q. Which metal is obtained by the electrolytic reduction of fused electrolytic compounds?

a) Aluminum b) Iron c) Copper d) Gold Answer: c) Copper

Q. The process of converting a metal oxide into its pure metal form using a reducing agent is called:

a) Roasting b) Reduction c) Smelting d) Calcination Answer: b) Reduction

Q. What is the main source of zinc?

a) Zinc blende b) Hematite c) Bauxite d) Magnetite Answer: a) Zinc blende

Q. Which metal is obtained by the Mond process?

a) Gold b) Platinum c) Silver d) Nickel Answer: b) Platinum

Q. What is the chemical formula of bauxite?

a) Al2O3 b) Al2(SO4)3 c) Al2O3∙2H2O d) Al(OH)3 Answer: c) Al2O3∙2H2O

Q. Which method is used for the extraction of metals with low melting points?

a) Electrolysis b) Roasting c) Smelting d) Reduction Answer: c) Smelting

Q. What is the main ore of lead?

a) Galena b) Hematite c) Bauxite d) Magnetite Answer: a) Galena

Q. Which metal is commonly used as a reducing agent in the extraction of highly reactive metals?

a) Carbon b) Oxygen c) Hydrogen d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Carbon

Q. What is the principle behind the magnetic separation process?

a) Magnetic properties of the ore b) Density difference between the ore and impurities c) Solubility of the ore in water d) Ability of the ore to form a froth Answer: a) Magnetic properties of the ore

Q. Which metal is obtained by the electrolysis of fused chloride?

a) Aluminum b) Iron c) Copper d) Gold Answer: c) Copper

Q. What is the chemical formula of calcite?

a) CaCO3 b) MgCO3 c) FeCO3 d) ZnCO3 Answer: a) CaCO3

Q. The process of converting an ore into its oxide by heating it in a limited supply of air is called:

a) Roasting b) Calcination c) Smelting d) Reduction Answer: a) Roasting

Q. Which metal is commonly extracted by the cyanide process?

a) Gold b) Platinum c) Silver d) Palladium Answer: a) Gold

Q. What is the main source of tin?

a) Cassiterite b) Hematite c) Bauxite d) Magnetite Answer: a) Cassiterite

Q. Which metal is obtained by the Hall-Heroult process?

a) Iron b) Aluminum c) Copper d) Gold Answer: b) Aluminum

Q. The process of converting a metal oxide into its pure metal form using heat and a reducing agent is ca lled:

a) Roasting b) Reduction c) Smelting d) Calcination Answer: b) Reduction

Q. What is the main ore of mercury?

a) Cinnabar b) Hematite c) Bauxite d) Magnetite Answer: a) Cinnabar

Q. Which element is commonly added to iron ore in the blast furnace to remove impurities?

a) Carbon b) Oxygen c) Hydrogen d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Carbon

Q. What is the principle behind the gravity separation process?

a) Magnetic properties of the ore b) Density difference between the ore and impurities c) Solubility of the ore in water d) Ability of the ore to form a froth Answer: b) Density difference between the ore and impurities

Q. Which metal is obtained by the electrolysis of alkali metal chlorides?

a) Sodium b) Potassium c) Lithium d) Rubidium Answer: a) Sodium

Q. What is the chemical formula of galena?

a) PbS b) PbSO4 c) PbCO3 d) PbO Answer: a) PbS

Q. The process of converting an ore into its oxide by heating it in the absence of air is called:

a) Roasting b) Calcination c) Smelting d) Reduction Answer: b) Calcination

Q. Which metal is commonly obtained by the electro-refining process?

a) Gold b) Platinum c) Silver d) Palladium Answer: c) Silver

Q. What is the main source of nickel?

a) Pentlandite b) Hematite c) Bauxite d) Magnetite Answer: a) Pentlandite

Q. Which metal is obtained by the Kroll process?

a) Titanium b) Iron c) Copper d) Gold Answer: a) Titanium

Q. What is the chemical formula of siderite?

a) FeCO3 b) CaCO3 c) MgCO3 d) ZnCO3 Answer: a) FeCO3

Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Q. Which Group in the periodic table do the p-block elements belong to?

a) Group 1 b) Group 2 c) Group 13-18 d) Group 3-12 Answer: c) Group 13-18

Q. How many valence electrons do Group 14 elements have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6 Answer: c) 4

Q. Which of the following elements is a halogen?

a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Chlorine Answer: d) Chlorine

Q. Which p-block element is known for its ability to form multiple oxidation states?

a) Boron b) Silicon c) Fluorine d) Sulfur Answer: d) Sulfur

Q. Which p-block element is used as a semiconductor in electronic devices?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Selenium Answer: b) Phosphorus

Q. Which of the following p-block elements has the highest electronegativity?

a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Fluorine Answer: d) Fluorine

Q. Which p-block element is known for its ability to form strong p-p multiple bonds?

a) Boron b) Carbon c) Nitrogen d) Oxygen Answer: c) Nitrogen

Q. Which p-block element is used as a catalyst in the production of sulfuric acid?

a) Boron b) Sulfur c) Oxygen d) Selenium Answer: b) Sulfur

Q. Which of the following elements is a noble gas?

a) Helium b) Neon c) Argon d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which p-block element is used in the manufacturing of fertilizers?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: b) Phosphorus

Q. Which p-block element has the ability to expand its octet?

a) Boron b) Carbon c) Nitrogen d) Oxygen Answer: d) Oxygen

Q. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

a) Boron b) Aluminum c) Gallium d) Indium Answer: a) Boron

Q. What is the atomic number of the first element in Group 17?

a) 7 b) 8 c) 16 d) 17 Answer: d) 17

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of glass?

a) Boron b) Silicon c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: b) Silicon

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of rubber goods?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: d) Sulfur

Q. Which of the following p-block elements is a metal?

a) Carbon b) Silicon c) Nitrogen d) Arsenic Answer: d) Arsenic

Q. What is the general electronic configuration of p-block elements?

a) ns²np b) ns²np c) ns²np² d) ns²np Answer: d) ns²np

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of matches?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: b) Phosphorus

Q. Which of the following elements is a nonmetal?

a) Boron b) Aluminum c) Silicon d) Gallium Answer: a) Boron

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of PVC?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Chlorine Answer: d) Chlorine

Q. Which p-block element is a major component of the Earth’s atmosphere?

a) Nitrogen b) Oxygen c) Sulfur d) Selenium Answer: a) Nitrogen

Q. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

a) Carbon b) Aluminum c) Germanium d) Tin Answer: c) Germanium

Q. What is the atomic number of the first element in Group 14?

a) 4 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15 Answer: c) 14

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of fertilizers?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: b) Phosphorus

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of fire extinguishers?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Carbon Answer: c) Oxygen

Q. Which of the following elements is a nonmetal?

a) Boron b) Aluminum c) Silicon d) Arsenic Answer: d) Arsenic

Q. Which p-block element is known for its ability to form strong bonds with transition metals

? a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: a) Boron

Q. Which p-block element is commonly used as a reducing agent in chemical reactions?

a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Fluorine Answer: a) Carbon

Q. Which of the following elements is a halogen?

a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Bromine Answer: d) Bromine

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of fertilizers?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: b) Phosphorus

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of insecticides?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: b) Phosphorus

Q. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

a) Boron b) Aluminum c) Silicon d) Selenium Answer: c) Silicon

Q. What is the atomic number of the first element in Group 18?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 18 d) 36 Answer: c) 18

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of batteries?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: a) Boron

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of cosmetics?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Carbon Answer: c) Oxygen

Q. Which of the following elements is a nonmetal?

a) Boron b) Aluminum c) Silicon d) Oxygen Answer: d) Oxygen

Q. Which p-block element is known for its ability to form strong covalent bonds?

a) Boron b) Aluminum c) Silicon d) Arsenic Answer: c) Silicon

Q. Which p-block element is used as a raw material in the production of glass?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: a) Boron

Q. Which of the following elements is a halogen?

a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Iodine Answer: d) Iodine

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of fertilizers?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: b) Phosphorus

Q. Which p-block element is commonly found in explosives?

a) Boron b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Sulfur Answer: b) Nitrogen

Q. Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

a) Carbon b) Aluminum c) Silicon d) Copper Answer: c) Silicon

Q. What is the atomic number of the first element in Group 15?

a) 3 b) 7 c) 14 d) 15 Answer: d) 15

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of paints?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Selenium Answer: d) Selenium

Q. Which p-block element is used in the production of antacids?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Oxygen d) Aluminum Answer: d) Aluminum

Q. What is the general trend in atomic size as you move down a group of p-block elements?

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) Adds unpredictably Answer: a) Increases

Chapter 8 The d- and f-Block Elements

Q. Which of the following elements belong to the d-block?

a) Sodium b) Iron c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen Answer: b) Iron

Q. The d-block elements are also known as:

a) Transition elements b) Alkali metals c) Halogens d) Noble gases Answer: a) Transition elements

Q. How many d-block elements are there in the periodic table?

a) 18 b) 10 c) 8 d) 15 Answer: a) 18

Q. Which of the following elements belong to the f-block?

a) Uranium b) Aluminum c) Chlorine d) Phosphorus Answer: a) Uranium

Q. The f-block elements are also known as:

a) Alkali metals b) Lanthanides and Actinides c) Halogens d) Noble gases Answer: b) Lanthanides and Actinides

Q. How many f-block elements are there in the periodic table?

a) 14 b) 30 c) 16 d) 10 Answer: a) 14

Q. Which of the following elements is a transition metal?

a) Gold b) Oxygen c) Carbon d) Hydrogen Answer: a) Gold

Q. Transition metals exhibit which of the following properties?

a) Variable oxidation states b) High electronegativity c) Low melting points d) Poor conductivity Answer: a) Variable oxidation states

Q. Which of the following transition metals has the highest atomic number?

a) Zinc b) Scandium c) Titanium d) Iron Answer: a) Zinc

Q. Which of the following transition metals is used as a catalyst?

a) Platinum b) Sodium c) Fluorine d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Platinum

Q. Which of the following metals is magnetic in nature?

a) Iron b) Aluminum c) Copper d) Silver Answer: a) Iron

Q. Which of the following transition metals is commonly used in batteries?

a) Nickel b) Lithium c) Potassium d) Calcium Answer: a) Nickel

Q. Which of the following d-block elements has the highest atomic radius?

a) Copper b) Zinc c) Chromium d) Silver Answer: b) Zinc

Q. Which of the following elements is a lanthanide?

a) Europium b) Calcium c) Fluorine d) Oxygen Answer: a) Europium

Q. The actinides are a series of elements that follow which of the following elements?

a) Lanthanum b) Scandium c) Einsteinium d) Titanium Answer: a) Lanthanum

Q. Which of the following actinides is commonly used in nuclear reactors?

a) Uranium b) Iron c) Oxygen d) Neon Answer: a) Uranium

Q. Which of the following d-block elements has the highest melting point?

a) Tungsten b) Mercury c) Silver d) Copper Answer: a) Tungsten

Q. The lanthanides and actinides are collectively known as:

a) Inner transition elements b) Alkali metals c) Halogens d) Noble gases Answer: a) Inner transition elements

Q. Which of the following elements is a noble metal?

a) Gold b) Sodium c) Chlorine d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Gold

Q. Which of the following transition metals is commonly used in jewelry?

a) Silver b) Lithium c) Potassium d) Calcium Answer: a) Silver

Q. Which of the following elements is a halogen?

a) Chlorine b) Copper c) Iron d) Zinc Answer: a) Chlorine

Q. Which of the following transition metals is commonly used in stainless steel?

a) Chromium b) Aluminum c) Oxygen d) Fluorine Answer: a) Chromium

Q. Which of the following elements is a semimetal?

a) Zinc b) Iron c) Arsenic d) Silver Answer: c) Arsenic

Q. Which of the following transition metals has the highest density?

a) Platinum b) Sodium c) Copper d) Iron Answer: c) Copper

Q. Which of the following elements is a lanthanide with atomic number 68?

a) Erbium b) Oxygen c) Boron d) Copper Answer: a) Erbium

Q. Which of the following elements is an actinide with atomic number 92?

a) Uranium b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) Fluorine Answer: a) Uranium

Q. Which of the following d-block elements is commonly used in construction materials?

a) Titanium b) Neon c) Nickel d) Gold Answer: a) Titanium

Q. Which of the following transition metals is commonly used as a pigment in paint?

a) Cobalt b) Aluminum c) Carbon d) Magnesium Answer: a) Cobalt

Q. Which of the following d-block elements is used in the production of steel?

a) Iron b) Calcium c) Fluorine d) Neon Answer: a) Iron

Q. Which of the following elements is a lanthanide with atomic number 57?

a) Lanthanum b) Lithium c) Potassium d) Carbon Answer: a) Lanthanum

Q. Which of the following elements is an actinide with atomic number 94?

a) Plutonium b) Aluminum c) Chlorine d) Oxygen Answer: a) Plutonium

Q. Which of the following transition metals is commonly used in electrical wires?

a) Copper b) Zinc c) Chromium d) Silver Answer: a) Copper

Q. Which of the following elements is a noble gas?

Q. Which of the following d-block elements has the highest boiling point?

a) Tungsten b) Mercury c) Silver d) Iron Answer: a) Tungsten

Q. Which of the following elements is a transition metal with atomic number 26?

a) Iron b) Sodium c) Chlorine d) Oxygen Answer: a) Iron

Q. Which of the following transition metals is commonly used in photography?

a) Silver b) Aluminum c) Carbon d) Neon Answer: a) Silver

Q. Which of the following elements is a lanthanide with atomic number 63?

a) Europium b) Nitrogen c) Hydrogen d) Fluorine Answer: a) Europium

Q. Which of the following elements is an actinide with atomic number 91?

a) Protactinium b) Lithium c) Potassium d) Calcium Answer: a) Protactinium

Q. Which of the following d-block elements is commonly used in batteries?

a) Nickel b) Zinc c) Chromium d) Silver Answer: a) Nickel

Q. Which of the following elements is a halogen with atomic number 17?

a) Chlorine b) Sodium c) Calcium d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Chlorine

Q. Which of the following elements is a transition metal with atomic number 29?

a) Copper b) Aluminum c) Carbon d) Magnesium Answer: a) Copper

Q. Which of the following transition metals is commonly used in coins?

a) Nickel b) Sodium c) Fluorine d) Neon Answer: a) Nickel

Q. Which of the following elements is a noble metal with atomic number 79?

a) Gold b) Iron c) Oxygen d) Chlorine Answer: a) Gold

Q. Which of the following elements is a lanthanide with atomic number 71?

a) Lutetium b) Lithium c) Potassium d) Carbon Answer: a) Lutetium

Q. Which of the following elements is an actinide with atomic number 98?

a) Californium b) Aluminum c) Oxygen d) Neon Answer: a) Californium

Q. Which of the following d-block elements has the highest specific heat capacity?

a) Copper b) Zinc c) Chromium d) Silver Answer: a) Copper

Q. Which of the following transition metals is commonly used in jewelry for its white color?

a) Palladium b) Sodium c) Chlorine d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Palladium

Q. Which of the following elements is a halogen with atomic number 53?

a) Iodine b) Sodium c) Calcium d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Iodine

Q. Which of the following d-block elements is commonly used in the production of stainless steel? a) Manganese

b) Zinc c) Carbon d) Silver Answer: a) Manganese

Chapter 9 Coordination Compounds

Q. The type of bonding in coordination compounds is:

a) Covalent b) Ionic c) Coordinate d) Metallic Answer: c) Coordinate

Q. A compound formed by the combination of a metal ion and ligands is called a:

a) Multiprint b) Complex c) Coordination Salt d) Compound Salt Answer: b) Complex

Q. The central metal ion in a coordination compound is usually a:

a) Non-metal b) Alkali metal c) Transition metal d) Noble gas Answer: c) Transition metal

Q. The coordination number in a complex is defined as the number of:

a) Ligands bonded to the metal ion b) Metals bonded to the ligand c) Electrons shared between the metal and ligands d) Ions present in the complex Answer: a) Ligands bonded to the metal ion

Q. Ligands are:

a) Neutral molecules b) Positively charged ions c) Negatively charged ions d) Neutral or charged species Answer: d) Neutral or charged species

Q. Which of the following is not a monodentate ligand?

a) NH b) H O c) I d) CO Answer: c) I

Q. EDTA is an example of a/an:

a) Monodentate ligand b) Bidentate ligand c) Tridendate ligand d) Hexadentate ligand Answer: d) Hexadentate ligand

Q. The formula of the complex compound potassium tetraiodomercurate(II) is:

a) K HgI b) K HgI c) K HgI d) K HgI Answer: c) K HgI

Q. The complex ion [Co(NH ) ]³ is an example of a/an:

a) Neutral complex b) Cationic complex c) Anionic complex d) Covalent complex Answer: b) Cationic complex

Q. In the complex [PtCl ]² , the oxidation state of platinum is:

a) +2 b) +4 c) -2 d) -4 Answer: b) +4

Q. Which of the following is an example of a chelating ligand?

a) NH b) H O c) EDTA d) Cl Answer: c) EDTA

Q. Werner’s coordination theory is also known as:

a) Crystal field theory b) Ligand field theory c) Valence bond theory d) Coordination number theory Answer: d) Coordination number theory

Q. The complex [Cr(NH ) Cl]Cl is: a) Neutral b) Cationic c) Anionic d) None of the above Answer: b) Cationic

Q. Which of the following is an example of a denticity 2 ligand?

a) Cl b) NO c) H O d) CO Answer: a) Cl

Q. Which of the following ligands is classified as a strong field ligand?

a) NH b) SCN c) Cl d) CO Answer: d) CO

Q. The outer orbital complex of a coordination compound is formed by:

a) Both metal d orbitals and ligand p orbitals b) Metal d orbitals only c) Ligand p orbitals only d) Metal d orbitals and ligand s orbitals Answer: a) Both metal d orbitals and ligand p orbitals

Q. The splitting of d orbitals in a coordination compound is known as:

a) Crystal splitting b) Ligand splitting c) Complex splitting d) Spectral splitting Answer: b) Ligand splitting

Q. The color of a coordination compound is due to:

a) The metal ion b) The ligands c) Both the metal ion and ligands d) The oxidation state Answer: c) Both the metal ion and ligands

Q. The compound [Fe(CN) ]³ exhibits the property of:

a) Paramagnetism b) Diamagnetism c) Ferromagnetism d) Anti-ferromagnetism Answer: a) Paramagnetism

Q. The coordination compound K [Fe(CN) ] is known as:

a) Potassium ferrocyanide b) Potassium ferricyanide c) Potassium hexacyanide d) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II) Answer: d) Potassium hexacyanoferrate(II)

Q. The molar conductivity of electrolytic solutions of coordination compounds is:

a) Very low b) Intermediate c) Very high d) Zero Answer: b) Intermediate

Q. A complex showing geometric isomerism is:

a) [Co(NH ) Cl]Cl b) [Co(NH ) (pentane-1,3-diamine)]Cl c) [Co(en) ]³ d) [CoCl ]² Answer: a) [Co(NH ) Cl]Cl

Q. Which of the following is an example of a chiral complex?

a) [Co(NH ) ]³ b) [Cr(NH ) Cl ]² c) [Co(en) Cl ] d) [Ni(CO) ] Answer: c) [Co(en) Cl ]

Q. The coordination compound [Ag(NH ) ]OH shows a weak base character due to the presence of:

a) Ag b) NH c) OH d) Both Ag and NH Answer: c) OH

Q. The oxidation number of Mn in [Mn(H O) ]² is:

a) +2 b) +4 c) +6 d) +8 Answer: c) +6

Q. The coordination compound K [Fe(CN) ] is an example of a:

a) Cyano complex b) Acidic complex c) Basic complex d) Neutral complex Answer: d) Neutral complex

Q. The molecule responsible for carrying oxygen in our blood is:

a) Hemin b) Ferrocene c) Hemoglobin d) Chlorophyll Answer: c) Hemoglobin

Q. An example of a tetradentate ligand is:

a) EDTA b) NH c) Cl d) CO Answer: a) EDTA

Q. The compound [Co(en) ]³ exhibits the property of:

a) Optical isomerism b) Geometric isomerism c) Paramagnetism d) Ferromagnetism Answer: a) Optical isomerism

Q. The compound [Co(NH ) ClBr]Cl is an example of a:

a) Neutral complex b) Cationic complex c) Anionic complex d) Acidic complex Answer: b) Cationic complex

Q. The formula for Mohr’s salt is:

a) Fe(NH ) (SO ) ∙6H O b) FeSO ∙(NH ) SO ∙6H O c) FeNH (SO ) ∙6H O d) Fe(NH ) (SO ) ∙6H O Answer: a) Fe(NH ) (SO ) ∙6H O

Q. The coordination compound [Cu(NH ) ]SO is:

a) Blue b) Green c) Violet d) Yellow Answer: c) Violet

Chapter 10 Haloalkanes and Haloarenes

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding haloalkanes and haloarenes?

a) Haloalkanes contain halogen atoms attached to an sp3 hybridized carbon atom. b) Haloarenes contain halogen atoms attached to an sp2 hybridized carbon atom. c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above Answer: c) Both a) and b)

Q. Which of the following is an example of a primary haloalkane?

a) 1-chloropropane b) 1-chlorobutane c) 2-chloropentane d) 2-chlorohexane Answer: a) 1-chloropropane

Q. Which of the following is an example of a secondary haloalkane?

a) 1-chloropropane b) 1-chlorobutane c) 2-chloropentane d) 2-chlorohexane Answer: b) 1-chlorobutane

Q. What is the general formula of an alkyl halide?

a) R-OH b) R-Br c) R-O-R d) R-X Answer: d) R-X

Q. Which of the following haloarenes is used as a fire extinguisher?

a) Chloroform b) Bromoform c) Iodoform d) Dichlorobenzene Answer: b) Bromoform

Q. What is the reaction of haloalkanes with alcoholic silver nitrate called?

a) Williamson synthesis b) Finkelstein reaction c) Wurtz reaction d) Sandmeyer reaction Answer: b) Finkelstein reaction

Q. Which of the following reagents can be used to convert haloalkanes to alcohols?

a) Grignard reagent b) Sodium alkoxide c) Hydroxylamine d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following methods is used to prepare haloalkanes from alcohols?

a) Dehydration b) Grignard reaction c) Finkelstein reaction d) All of the above Answer: a) Dehydration

Q. Which of the following reactions is a nucleophilic substitution reaction?

a) Elimination reaction b) Addition reaction c) Sn1 reaction d) E1 reaction Answer: c) Sn1 reaction

Q. In the reaction of alkyl halides with sodium, which of the following is formed?

a) Alkene b) Alkyne c) Alkyl radical d) Alkane Answer: c) Alkyl radical

Q. Which of the following reagents can be used to convert haloarenes to phenols?

a) Sodium hydroxide b) Sodium metal c) Grignard reagent d) Silver nitrate Answer: a) Sodium hydroxide

Q. Which of the following methods is used to prepare haloarenes from phenols?

a) Sandmeyer reaction b) Grignard reaction c) Friedel-Crafts reaction d) Wurtz reaction Answer: c) Friedel-Crafts reaction

Q. Which of the following reactions is not carried out by haloarenes?

a) Nucleophilic substitution b) Electrophilic substitution c) Oxidation d) Reduction Answer: c) Oxidation

Q. Which of the following methods is used to prepare aryl halides from diazonium salts?

a) Sandmeyer reaction b) Buchwald-Hartwig coupling c) Grignard reaction d) Wurtz reaction Answer: a) Sandmeyer reaction

Q. Which of the following is an example of an aryl halide?

a) Chlorobenzene b) Bromobenzene c) Iodobenzene d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Among haloalkanes and haloarenes, which is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction s?

a) Haloalkanes b) Haloarenes c) Both are equally reactive d) None of the above Answer: a) Haloalkanes

Q. Which of the following is an example of an optically active compound among haloalkanes?

a) 1-chloropropane b) 1-bromopropane c) 2-chlorobutane d) 2-bromobutane Answer: b) 1-bromopropane

Q. Which of the following is the most commonly used solvent for Grignard reactions?

a) Water b) Methanol c) Acetone d) Ethanol Answer: c) Acetone

Q. Which of the following reagents can be used to convert alkyl halides to alkenes?

a) Sodium hydroxide b) Sodium alkoxide c) Sodium metal d) Silver nitrate Answer: b) Sodium alkoxide

Q. In which of the following reactions does the stereochemistry remain unchanged?

a) Sn1 reaction b) Sn2 reaction c) E1 reaction d) E2 reaction Answer: b) Sn2 reaction

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stability of carbocations?

a) Primary carbocations are more stable than tertiary carbocations. b) Secondary carbocations are more stable than primary carbocations. c) Tertiary carbocations are more stable than secondary carbocations. d) Stability of carbocations depends on the nature of the alkyl groups attached. Answer: c) Tertiary carbocations are more stable than secondary carbocations.

Q. Which of the following compounds is an example of a geminal dihalide?

a) Ethylene dichloride b) Chloroform c) Bromoform d) Iodoform Answer: a) Ethylene dichloride

Q. Among haloalkanes and haloarenes, which is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction s?

a) Haloalkanes b) Haloarenes c) Both are equally reactive d) None of the above Answer: a) Haloalkanes

Q. In which of the following reactions does the stereochemistry remain unchanged?

a) Sn1 reaction b) Sn2 reaction c) E1 reaction d) E2 reaction Answer: b) Sn2 reaction

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding the stability of carbocations?

a) Primary carbocations are more stable than tertiary carbocations. b) Secondary carbocations are more stable than primary carbocations. c) Tertiary carbocations are more stable than secondary carbocations. d) Stability of carbocations depends on the nature of the alkyl groups attached. Answer: c) Tertiary carbocations are more stable than secondary carbocations.

Q. Which of the following compounds is an example of a geminal dihalide?

a) Ethylene dichloride b) Chloroform c) Bromoform d) Iodoform Answer: a) Ethylene dichloride

Q. Which of the following reactions is used for the preparation of aryl iodides?

a) Sandmeyer reaction b) Grignard reaction c) Wurtz reaction d) Finkelstein reaction Answer: d) Finkelstein reaction

Q. What is the major product formed when an alkyl halide is treated with sodium metal?

a) Alkene b) Alkyne c) Alkyl radical d) Alkane Answer: d) Alkane

Q. Which of the following is an example of a secondary haloarene?

a) Chlorobenzene b) Bromobenzene c) Iodobenzene d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following reactions is not carried out by haloarenes?

a) Nucleophilic substitution b) Electrophilic substitution c) Oxidation d) Reduction Answer: c) Oxidation

Q. Which of the following methods is used to prepare aryl halides from diazonium salts?

a) Sandmeyer reaction b) Buchwald-Hartwig coupling c) Grignard reaction d) Wurtz reaction Answer: a) Sandmeyer reaction

Q. Which of the following is an example of an aryl halide?

a) Chlorobenzene b) Bromobenzene c) Iodobenzene d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Among haloalkanes and haloarenes, which is more reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction s?

a) Haloalkanes b) Haloarenes c) Both are equally reactive d) None of the above Answer: a) Haloalkanes

Q. Which of the following is an example of an optically active compound among haloalkanes?

a) 1-chloropropane b) 1-bromopropane c) 2-chlorobutane d) 2-bromobutane Answer: b) 1-bromopropane

Chapter 11 Alcohols, Phenols, and Ethers

Q. Which of the following compounds is an alcohol?

a) Methane b) Ethanol c) Acetone d) Toluene Answer: b) Ethanol

Q. Methanol can be prepared by the oxidation of:

a) Ethanol b) Propanol c) Butanol d) Pentanol Answer: a) Ethanol

Q. The chemical formula of phenol is:

a) CH4 b) C2H6 c) C6H6O d) C6H12O6 Answer: c) C6H6O

Q. Ethers are organic compounds that contain which of the following functional groups?

a) -OH b) -COOH c) -CHO d) -OAnswer: d) -O-

Q. Which among the following is not a primary alcohol?

a) Methanol b) Ethanol c) Propanol d) Butanol Answer: d) Butanol

Q. Which of the following is an example of a secondary alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Propanol c) Butanol d) Cyclohexanol Answer: b) Propanol

Q. The IUPAC name of CH3CH2CH2OH is:

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Propanol d) Butanol Answer: c) Propanol

Q. When an alkyl group is attached to a hydroxyl group, it forms a:

a) Ester b) Ketone c) Aldehyde d) Ether Answer: d) Ether

Q. The oxidation of primary alcohol yields:

a) Aldehyde b) Ketone c) Carboxylic acid d) Ester Answer: a) Aldehyde

Q. Which of the following is an example of an aromatic alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Phenol d) Butanol Answer: c) Phenol

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with sodium metal forms:

a) Aldehyde b) Carboxylic acid c) Ester d) Alkoxide Answer: d) Alkoxide

Q. Which alcohol is commonly known as wood alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Propanol d) Butanol Answer: b) Methanol

Q. The reaction of phenol with bromine water forms:

a) Bromobenzene b) Bromophenol c) Benzene d) Phenol bromide Answer: b) Bromophenol

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid forms:

a) Ester b) Acid chloride c) Acid anhydride d) Ketone Answer: a) Ester

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with a hydrogen halide forms:

a) Ether b) Aldehyde c) Ketone d) Alkyl halide Answer: d) Alkyl halide

Q. Which of the following compounds is an example of a tertiary alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Propanol c) Butanol d) Tert-butanol Answer: d) Tert-butanol

Q. Which among the following is an aromatic ether?

a) Diethyl ether b) Methyl isopropyl ether c) Anisole d) Ethylene oxide Answer: c) Anisole

Q. The IUPAC name of CH3OCH3 is:

a) Ethyl methyl ether b) Dimethyl ether c) Methoxyethane d) Methanol Answer: b) Dimethyl ether

Q. Ethers are commonly used as:

a) Solvents b) Fuels c) Acids d) Aldehydes Answer: a) Solvents

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with phosphorus pentachloride forms:

a) Carboxylic acid b) Acid anhydride c) Ketone d) Alcohol cyanide Answer: b) Acid anhydride

Q. Which alcohol is commonly known as rubbing alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Propanol d) Butanol Answer: a) Ethanol

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with sodium hydroxide forms:

a) Carboxylic acid b) Alkoxide c) Ketone d) Aldehyde Answer: b) Alkoxide

Q. Which alcohol is commonly used as a preservative in many cosmetic products?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Propanol d) Butanol Answer: a) Ethanol

Q. The functional group present in a carboxylic acid is:

a) -OH b) -COOH c) -CHO d) -OAnswer: b) -COOH

Q. The oxidation of primary alcohols to aldehydes requires the use of a:

a) Reducing agent b) Strong acid c) Catalyst d) Oxidizing agent Answer: c) Catalyst

Q. Which among the following is a tertiary alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Propanol d) Tert-butanol Answer: d) Tert-butanol

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with sulfuric acid forms:

a) Ester b) Carboxylic acid c) Ether d) Alkyl hydrogen sulfate Answer: d) Alkyl hydrogen sulfate

Q. Which alcohol is commonly known as antifreeze?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Propanol d) Butanol Answer: b) Methanol

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid under acidic conditions forms:

a) Ester b) Acid chloride c) Acid anhydride d) Ketone Answer: c) Acid anhydride

Q. The reaction of phenol with sodium hydroxide forms:

a) Phenol oxide b) Sodium phenoxide c) Phenol hydroxide d) Phenol chloride Answer: b) Sodium phenoxide

Q. Which among the following is an aliphatic ether?

a) Diethyl ether b) Methyl isopropyl ether c) Anisole d) Ethyl methyl ether Answer: d) Ethyl methyl ether

Q. The IUPAC name of CH3CH2OCH2CH3 is:

a) Ethyl methyl ether b) Dimethyl ether c) Ethoxyethane d) Diethyl ether Answer: d) Diethyl ether

Q. Ethers can form hydrogen bonds with:

a) Alkenes b) Alkynes c) Aldehydes d) Alcohols Answer: d) Alcohols

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with phosphorous trichloride forms:

a) Carboxylic acid b) Acid anhydride c) Ketone d) Alcohol chloride Answer: d) Alcohol chloride

Q. Which alcohol is commonly used as an industrial solvent?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Propanol d) Butanol Answer: c) Propanol

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with sodium metal forms:

a) Aldehyde b) Carboxylic acid c) Ester d) Alkoxide Answer: d) Alkoxide

Q. Which of the following compounds is an example of an aromatic alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Phenol d) Butanol Answer: c) Phenol

Q. The oxidation of primary alcohol yields:

a) Aldehyde b) Ketone c) Carboxylic acid d) Ester Answer: a) Aldehyde

Q. Which alcohol is commonly known as methyl alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Methanol c) Propanol d) Butanol Answer: b) Methanol

Q. The reaction of phenol with bromine water forms:

a) Bromobenzene b) Bromophenol c) Benzene d) Phenol bromide Answer: b) Bromophenol

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid forms:

a) Ester b) Acid chloride c) Acid anhydride d) Ketone Answer: a) Ester

Q. The reaction of an alcohol with a hydrogen halide forms:

a) Ether b) Aldehyde c) Ketone d) Alkyl halide Answer: d) Alkyl halide

Q. Which of the following compounds is an example of a tertiary alcohol?

a) Ethanol b) Propanol c) Butanol d) Tert-butanol Answer: d) Tert-butanol

Q. Which among the following is an aromatic ether?

a) Diethyl ether b) Methyl isopropyl ether c) Anisole d) Ethylene oxide Answer: c) Anisole

Chapter 12 Aldehydes, Ketones, and Carboxylic Acids

Q. Which of the following compounds belongs to the group of aldehydes?

a) Acetone b) Propanol c) Butanal d) Methanol Answer: c) Butanal

Q. Which functional group is present in aldehydes?

a) -OH b) -COOH c) -CHO d) -COH Answer: c) -CHO

Q. What is the general formula for aldehydes?

a) R-OH b) R-COOH c) R-CO-R d) R-CHO Answer: d) R-CHO

Q. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown below?

CH3(CH2)4CHO a) Pentanal b) Butanal c) Hexanal d) Octanal Answer: a) Pentanal

Q. Which type of isomerism is exhibited by aldehydes and ketones?

a) Geometrical isomerism b) Optical isomerism c) Chain isomerism d) Functional isomerism Answer: d) Functional isomerism

Q. Which of the following reagents can be used to convert aldehydes into primary alcohols?

a) LiAlH4 b) KMnO4 c) H2O2 d) HCl Answer: a) LiAlH4

Q. Which of the following compounds belongs to the group of ketones?

a) Methanol b) Ethanol c) Acetone d) Formic acid Answer: c) Acetone

Q. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown below?

CH3COCH2CH3 a) Ethanol b) Acetaldehyde c) Propanone d) Butanone Answer: d) Butanone

Q. Which of the following compounds can form a hydrogen bond?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which functional group is present in carboxylic acids?

a) -OH b) -COOH c) -CHO d) -COH Answer: b) -COOH

Q. What is the general formula for carboxylic acids?

a) R-OH b) R-COOH c) R-CO-R d) R-CHO Answer: b) R-COOH

Q. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown below?

CH3COOH a) Acetic acid b) Formic acid c) Butanoic acid d) Benzoic acid Answer: a) Acetic acid

Q. Which of the following compounds can be oxidized to form carboxylic acids?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Alcohols d) Ethers Answer: c) Alcohols

Q. Which of the following reagents can be used to reduce carboxylic acids to alcohols?

a) NaBH4 b) KMnO4 c) H2O2 d) HCl Answer: a) NaBH4

Q. Which of the following compounds can exhibit tautomerism?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following compounds can react with ammonia to form primary amides?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: c) Carboxylic acids

Q. Which of the following compounds can be used as a solvent for polar substances?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following compounds is a strong organic acid?

a) Acetaldehyde b) Acetone c) Acetic acid d) Methanol Answer: c) Acetic acid

Q. Which of the following compounds is used as a preservative in food and drinks?

a) Formaldehyde b) Acetone c) Benzoic acid d) Ethanol Answer: c) Benzoic acid

Q. Which of the following compounds is commonly used in nail polish removers?

a) Formaldehyde b) Acetone c) Acetic acid d) Methanol Answer: b) Acetone

Q. Which of the following reactions is characteristic of aldehydes and ketones?

a) Cannizzaro reaction b) Aldol condensation c) Hydrolysis d) Esterification Answer: a) Cannizzaro reaction

Q. The reaction between a carboxylic acid and an alcohol to form an ester is called:

a) Esterification b) Hydrolysis c) Oxidation d) Reduction Answer: a) Esterification

Q. Which of the following compounds can be used as an organic solvent?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following compounds can undergo decarboxylation?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: c) Carboxylic acids

Q. Which of the following compounds can be used as a reducing agent?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: a) Aldehydes

Q. Which of the following compounds can be used as a dehydrating agent?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: b) Ketones

Q. Which of the following compounds can form a resonance stabilized enolate?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The reaction between an aldehyde or ketone with a primary amine to form an imine is called:

a) Cannizzaro reaction b) Aldol condensation c) Esterification d) Schiff’s base formation Answer: d) Schiff’s base formation

Q. Which of the following compounds can undergo oxidation to form carboxylic acids?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: c) Carboxylic acids

Q. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown below?

CH3C(CH3)2COOH a) Propanoic acid b) Butanoic acid c) Pentanoic acid d) Isobutyric acid Answer: d) Isobutyric acid

Q. Which of the following compounds is commonly used in the preparation of soaps and detergents?

a) Acetaldehyde b) Acetone c) Lauric acid d) Ethanol Answer: c) Lauric acid

Q. Which of the following compounds is commonly used in the preservation of dead bodies?

a) Formaldehyde b) Acetone c) Acetic acid d) Methanol Answer: a) Formaldehyde

Q. The reaction between an aldehyde and a secondary amine to form an imine is called:

a) Cannizzaro reaction b) Aldol condensation c) Esterification d) Schiff’s base formation Answer: d) Schiff’s base formation

Q. Which of the following compounds can react with alcohols to form esters?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: c) Carboxylic acids

Q. The reaction between an aldehyde and another molecule of the same aldehyde to form an alcohol is c alled:

a) Cannizzaro reaction b) Aldol condensation c) Esterification d) Hydrolysis Answer: b) Aldol condensation

Q. What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown below?

CH3CHOHCH3 a) Propanol b) Butanol c) Pentanol d) Iso-propanol Answer: d) Iso-propanol

Q. Which of the following compounds can be used as a reducing agent in the Tollen’s test?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: a) Aldehydes

Q. Which of the following compounds can be used as a nucleophile in the Grignard reaction?

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Carboxylic acids d) All of the above Answer: b) Ketones

Chapter 13 Amines

Q. Which of the following is not an amine?

a) Ethylamine b) Methylamine c) Benzylamine d) Ethylene Answer: d) Ethylene

Q. Amines are derivatives of:

a) Aldehydes b) Ketones c) Esters d) Ammonia Answer: d) Ammonia

Q. Which functional group is present in an amine?

a) Tertiary b) Alkyl c) Amino d) Nitro Answer: c) Amino

Q. Which of the following is a primary amine?

a) CH3(CH2)2NH2 b) (CH3)3N c) C6H5NH2 d) (CH3)2NH Answer: a) CH3(CH2)2NH2

Q. Which of the following compounds is a secondary amine?

a) CH3NH2 b) NH2CH2CH2NH2 c) C6H5NHCH3 d) CH3(CH2)2NHCH2CH3 Answer: c) C6H5NHCH3

Q. The basicity of amines is due to the presence of:

a) Hydroxyl group b) Amino group c) Carbonyl group d) Carboxyl group Answer: b) Amino group

Q. In which of the following compounds, the nitrogen atom is sp3 hybridized?

a) C6H5NHCH3 b) (CH3)2NH c) CH3CH2NH2 d) (CH3)3N Answer: c) CH3CH2NH2

Q. Aromatic amines are obtained by the reduction of:

a) Nitriles b) Amides c) Aldehydes d) Nitro compounds Answer: d) Nitro compounds

Q. Which of the following is true about aliphatic amines?

a) They have a higher boiling point than their alcohol counterparts b) They are acidic in nature c) They have a lower boiling point than their alcohol counterparts d) They are not capable of hydrogen bonding Answer: a) They have a higher boiling point than their alcohol counterparts

Q. The reaction of an amine with nitrous acid forms:

a) A nitro compound b) An azide c) A diazonium salt d) An amide Answer: c) A diazonium salt

Q. Which of the following is an example of a heterocyclic amine?

a) Aniline b) Cyclohexylamine c) Ethylamine d) Pyridine Answer: d) Pyridine

Q. Aromatic amines are highly toxic and can cause:

a) Nausea b) Respiratory problems c) Liver damage d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is the IUPAC name of the compound CH3NHCH2CH3?

a) Methylamine b) N,N-Dimethylamine c) Ethylamine d) Triethylamine Answer: c) Ethylamine

Q. Which of the following compounds can form an amine by hydrolysis?

a) Nitrile b) Aldehyde c) Ketone d) Ester Answer: a) Nitrile

Q. Which of the following is a heterocyclic amine used for DNA sequencing?

a) Aniline b) Pyridine c) Ethylamine d) Cyclohexylamine Answer: b) Pyridine

Q. Ammonium salts are formed by the reaction of amines with:

a) Acids b) Alcohols c) Esters d) Ketones Answer: a) Acids

Q. Amines exhibit:

a) Geometric isomerism b) Tautomerism c) Optical isomerism d) Conformational isomerism Answer: c) Optical isomerism

Q. Which of the following is an example of a natural amine?

a) Ammonium chloride b) Urea c) Methanol d) Ethanolamine Answer: b) Urea

Q. What is the molecular formula of aniline?

a) CH3NH2 b) C6H5NH2 c) C2H5NH2 d) CH3CH2NH2 Answer: b) C6H5NH2

Q. Aromatic amines are mainly used in the manufacturing of:

a) Cosmetics b) Fertilizers c) Plastics d) Pharmaceuticals Answer: d) Pharmaceuticals

Q. Which of the following is a gaseous tertiary amine?

a) Trimethylamine b) Methylamine c) Dimethylamine d) Aniline Answer: a) Trimethylamine

Q. The reaction of an amine with a carbonyl compound forms:

a) A nitrile b) An imine c) An amide d) An ester Answer: b) An imine

Q. Aromatic amines are typically prepared by:

a) Oxidation of amines b) Reduction of nitriles c) Hydrogenation of nitro compounds d) Hydrolysis of amides Answer: c) Hydrogenation of nitro compounds

Q. Which of the following is an example of a secondary amine used in medicine?

a) Lidocaine b) Morphine c) Cocaine d) Morpholine Answer: a) Lidocaine

Q. Which of the following is an example of a quarternary ammonium compound used as a disinfectant?

a) Ethylamine b) Methylamine c) Benzylamine d) Benzalkonium chloride Answer: d) Benzalkonium chloride

Q. Which of the following is an example of a natural heterocyclic amine?

a) Aniline b) Diaminomethane c) Nicotine d) Ethylamine Answer: c) Nicotine

Q. Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between primary, secondary, and tertiary a mines?

a) Sodium nitrite b) Sulfuric acid c) Hydrochloric acid d) Nitrous acid Answer: d) Nitrous acid

Q. Which of the following is an example of a synthetic amine used as a herbicide?

a) Pyridine b) Ammonium chloride c) Urea d) Glyphosate Answer: d) Glyphosate

Q. Which of the following amines is used in the vulcanization of rubber?

a) Aniline b) Ethylamine c) Methanol d) Morpholine Answer: d) Morpholine

Q. The reaction of an amine with ethanoyl chloride forms:

a) An imine b) An amide c) An ester d) A nitrile Answer: b) An amide

Q. Amines can act as:

a) Acids b) Bases c) Reducing agents d) Oxidizing agents Answer: b) Bases

Q. Which of the following is an example of an aromatic amine used in the textile industry?

a) Morpholine b) Aniline c) Glycine d) Formamide Answer: b) Aniline

Q. Which of the following amines is used in the production of dyes?

a) Tryptamine b) Ethanolamine c) Caffeine d) Aniline Answer: d) Aniline

Q. The reaction between a primary amine and an aldehyde forms:

a) An amine oxide b) An amide c) An imine d) A nitrile Answer: c) An imine

Q. Which of the following is an example of a cyclic amine used as a solvent?

a) Dimethylamine b) Ethylamine c) Pyrrolidine d) Benzylamine Answer: c) Pyrrolidine

Q. Which of the following is an example of an aliphatic amine used in medicine as a vasodilator?

a) Ethanolamine b) Ammonium chloride c) Methylamine d) Isosorbide dinitrate Answer: d) Isosorbide dinitrate

Q. Which of the following is a property of aromatic amines?

a) High solubility in water b) Low boiling point c) Low toxicity d) Low reactivity Answer: b) Low boiling point

Q. Amino acids are amphoteric in nature, meaning they can act as:

a) Acids b) Bases c) Both acids and bases d) Neither acids nor bases Answer: c) Both acids and bases

Chapter 14 Biomolecules

Q. Which of the following carbohydrates is a monosaccharide?

a) Glucose b) Sucrose c) Starch d) Cellulose Answer: a) Glucose

Q. Which of the following is the correct formula for glucose?

a) C12H22O11 b) C6H12O6 c) C4H10O2 d) C5H10O5 Answer: b) C6H12O6

Q. Proteins are made up of

a) Amino acids b) Nucleic acids c) Fatty acids d) Lipids Answer: a) Amino acids

Q. Which of the following is an example of a nucleic acid?

a) DNA b) Glucose c) Insulin d) Cholesterol Answer: a) DNA

Q. The process of converting a sugar into alcohol is called

a) Carboxylation b) Fermentation c) Decarboxylation d) Polymerization Answer: b) Fermentation

Q. The structural unit of proteins is

a) Monosaccharide b) Amino acid c) Nucleotide d) Fatty acid Answer: b) Amino acid

Q. Which of the following is not a type of biomolecule?

a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Lipids d) Gases Answer: d) Gases

Q. The building blocks of nucleic acids are

a) Fatty acids b) Amino acids c) Nucleotides d) Carbohydrates Answer: c) Nucleotides

Q. Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of which two monosaccharides?

a) Glucose and fructose b) Glucose and galactose c) Glucose and lactose d) Glucose and maltose Answer: a) Glucose and fructose

Q. The process by which polymers are broken down into monomers is called

a) Dehydration synthesis b) Hydrolysis c) Condensation d) Polymerization Answer: b) Hydrolysis

Q. Which of the following is a function of proteins in the human body?

a) Store and provide energy b) Provide structural support c) Act as enzymes d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?

a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Starch d) Sucrose Answer: c) Starch

Q. Enzymes are a type of

a) Lipid b) Carbohydrate c) Nucleic acid d) Protein Answer: d) Protein

Q. Which of the following is a characteristic of lipids?

a) Insoluble in water b) Soluble in water c) Formed by sugar molecules d) Act as enzymes Answer: a) Insoluble in water

Q. DNA and RNA are examples of

a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Nucleic acids d) Lipids Answer: c) Nucleic acids

Q. The primary function of carbohydrates is to

a) Provide energy b) Build cell walls c) Store genetic information d) Regulate body temperature Answer: a) Provide energy

Q. Which of the following is not a type of lipid?

a) Cholesterol b) Phospholipids c) Steroids d) Amino acids Answer: d) Amino acids

Q. Which of the following is a complex carbohydrate?

a) Glucose b) Galactose c) Sucrose d) Glycogen Answer: d) Glycogen

Q. Which of the following is a simple carbohydrate?

a) Cellulose b) Lactose c) Maltose d) Starch Answer: c) Maltose

Q. Amino acids are linked together by a bond known as a

a) Peptide bond b) Ionic bond c) Covalent bond d) Hydrogen bond Answer: a) Peptide bond

Q. Which of the following is not a property of water?

a) High boiling point b) Low density as a solid c) Universal solvent d) Low heat capacity Answer: d) Low heat capacity

Q. The functional group present in all carbohydrates is the

a) Hydroxyl group b) Carboxyl group c) Amino group d) Phosphate group Answer: a) Hydroxyl group

Q. The process of converting monomers into polymers is called

a) Hydrolysis b) Dehydration synthesis c) Condensation d) Polymerization Answer: b) Dehydration synthesis

Q. Which of the following is a monomer of nucleic acids?

a) Amino acid b) Nucleotide c) Glucose d) Fatty acid Answer: b) Nucleotide

Q. Which of the following is an example of a complex carbohydrate?

a) Glucose b) Fructose c) Sucrose d) Cellulose Answer: d) Cellulose

Q. Lipids are mainly composed of

a) Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen b) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen c) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and phosphorus d) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and sulfur Answer: a) Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

Q. Which of the following is a function of nucleic acids in the human body

? a) Provide energy b) Provide structural support c) Store genetic information d) Act as enzymes Answer: c) Store genetic information

Q. Which of the following is not a monomer of proteins?

a) Glucose b) Amino acid c) Peptide d) Polypeptide Answer: a) Glucose

Q. Which of the following is an example of a monosaccharide?

a) Starch b) Lactose c) Maltose d) Galactose Answer: d) Galactose

Q. Which of the following is a property of nucleic acids?

a) High solubility in water b) Insolubility in water c) Ability to absorb ultraviolet light d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is a function of carbohydrates in the human body

? a) Provide energy b) Provide structural support c) Store genetic information d) All of the above Answer: a) Provide energy

Q. The molecule shown below is an example of a

H H H H | | | | H-C-C-O-C-C-H | | | | H H H OH a) Monosaccharide b) Disaccharide c) Polysaccharide d) Protein Answer: b) Disaccharide

Q. The process of converting glucose into glycogen is called

a) Glycolysis b) Glycogenesis c) Glycogenolysis d) Gluconeogenesis Answer: b) Glycogenesis

Q. The function of cellulose in plants is to

a) Store energy b) Provide structural support c) Act as an enzyme d) Regulate temperature Answer: b) Provide structural support

Q. The process of converting glycogen into glucose is called

a) Glycolysis b) Glycogenesis c) Glycogenolysis d) Gluconeogenesis Answer: c) Glycogenolysis

Q. The structure of a phospholipid consists of a hydrophilic head and ______________.

a) A hydrophobic tail b) A hydrophilic tail c) A charged tail d) A polar tail Answer: a) A hydrophobic tail

Q. Which of the following is not a function of lipids in the human body?

a) Store and provide energy b) Insulate and protect organs c) Act as enzymes d) Act as signaling molecules Answer: c) Act as enzymes

Q. Which of the following is a function of nucleic acids in the human body?

a) Provide energy b) Provide structural support c) Store genetic information d) Act as enzymes Answer: c) Store genetic information

Q. Which of the following is the correct formula for fructose?

a) C12H22O11 b) C6H12O6 c) C6H12O6 d) C5H10O5 Answer: c) C6H12O6

Q. The central dogma of molecular biology states that genetic information flows from ________ to _____ ___.

a) DNA, RNA b) RNA, DNA c) DNA, protein d) Protein, DNA Answer: c) DNA, protein

Q. A molecule that has both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions is called ________.

a) Amphipathic b) Monopolar c) Bipolar d) Amphibiotic Answer: a) Amphipath

Chapter 15 Polymers

Q. What is a polymer?

Answer: A polymer is a large molecule made up of repeating units called monomers.

Q. What is the process called in which two or more monomers combine to form a polymer?

Answer: Polymerization.

Q. Which of the following is an example of a naturally occurring polymer?

a) PVC b) Teflon c) Polyethylene d) Protein Answer: d) Protein

Q. Which type of bond holds the monomers together in a polymer chain?

a) Covalent bond b) Ionic bond c) Metallic bond d) Hydrogen bond Answer: a) Covalent bond

Q. Which of the following polymers is commonly used for making clothing fibers?

a) PVC b) PET c) PP d) PTFE Answer: b) PET

Q. What is the full form of PVC?

Answer: Polyvinyl chloride.

Q. Which polymer is used as a substitute for human blood plasma in emergency situations?

a) PVC b) Polyacrylonitrile c) Polystyrene d) PVA Answer: b) Polyacrylonitrile

Q. Which type of polymer is formed by the combination of two different monomers?

a) Copolymer b) Homopolymer c) Polyester d) Polyamide Answer: a) Copolymer

Q. What is the process called in which a polymer is broken down into its monomers?

Answer: Depolymerization.

Q. Which of the following polymers is commonly used as a packaging material?

a) Polystyrene b) Polyethylene c) Polypropylene d) Polyacrylic Answer: b) Polyethylene

Q. What is the most common method used for polymer synthesis?

a) Condensation polymerization b) Addition polymerization c) Free radical polymerization d) Emulsion polymerization Answer: b) Addition polymerization

Q. Which polymer is used in making non-stick cookware?

a) PVC b) PET c) PTFE d) PS Answer: c) PTFE

Q. Nylon is an example of:

a) Natural polymer b) Synthetic polymer c) Copolymer d) Homopolymer Answer: b) Synthetic polymer

Q. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

a) PVC b) Nylon c) Polyethylene d) Polylactic acid Answer: d) Polylactic acid

Q. What is the chemical structure of polypropylene?

a) (-CH2-CHCl-)n b) (-CH2-CH2-)n c) (-CH2-CH(CH3)-)n d) (-CH2-COOH-)n Answer: c) (-CH2-CH(CH3)-)n

Q. Which factor affects the density of a polymer?

a) The length of the polymer chain b) The atomic number of the monomers c) The molecular weight of the polymer d) The number of hydrogen bonds in the polymer Answer: a) The length of the polymer chain

Q. Which of the following polymers is commonly used as insulation for electrical wires?

a) PVC b) PET c) PTFE d) PE Answer: a) PVC

Q. What is the main monomer unit of natural rubber?

a) Isoprene b) Ethylene c) Propylene d) Butadiene Answer: a) Isoprene

Q. Which type of polymer is commonly used in the production of contact lenses?

a) Silicone-based polymer b) Acrylic-based polymer c) Polyester d) Polyamide Answer: b) Acrylic-based polymer

Q. What is the process called in which one or more monomers react to form a polymer without the produ ction of any byproducts?

a) Electrolysis b) Oxidation c) Dehydrogenation d) Addition polymerization Answer: d) Addition polymerization

Q. Which of the following polymers is commonly used in the manufacturing of bottles and containers? a) PVC

b) PET c) PS d) ABS Answer: b) PET

Q. What is the chemical structure of polyvinyl chloride (PVC)?

a) (-CH2-CHCl-)n b) (-CH2-CH2-)n c) (-CH2-CH(CH3)-)n d) (-CH2-COOH-)n Answer: a) (-CH2-CHCl-)n

Q. What property makes cross-linked polymers different from linear polymers?

a) Melting point b) Solubility c) Flexibility d) Elasticity Answer: d) Elasticity

Q. What is the function of a plasticizer in polymers?

a) To increase transparency b) To increase strength c) To increase flexibility d) To increase melting point Answer: c) To increase flexibility

Q. Which type of polymerization reaction involves the loss of a small molecule like water or alcohol?

a) Condensation polymerization b) Addition polymerization c) Free radical polymerization d) Emulsion polymerization Answer: a) Condensation polymerization

Q. Which polymer is used in the production of synthetic fibers like polyester and nylon?

a) Polystyrene b) Polypropylene c) Polyethylene d) Polyethylene terephthalate Answer: d) Polyethylene terephthalate

Q. Which of the following polymers is used in the production of bulletproof vests and helmets?

a) PVC b) PET c) Kevlar d) Polycarbonate Answer: c) Kevlar

Q. What is the main component of bakelite, the first synthetic polymer?

a) Urea b) Phthalic acid c) Phenol d) Terephthalic acid Answer: c) Phenol

Q. What is the process called in which a polymer becomes soft and flexible when heated and then harde ns upon cooling?

a) Vulcanization b) Distillation c) Crystallization d) Plasticization Answer: d) Plasticization

Q. Which type of polymer is commonly used in medical sutures and artificial organs?

a) Silicone-based polymer b) Polyester c) Polyamide d) Polyurethane Answer: a) Silicone-based polymer

Q. What is the chemical structure of polyethylene terephthalate (PET)?

a) (-CH2-CHCl-)n b) (-CH2-CH2-)n c) (-CH2-CH(CH3)-)n d) (-CO-O-C6H4-CO-)n Answer: d) (-CO-O-C6H4-CO-)n

Q. Which polymer is used in the production of transparent and shatterproof windows and screens?

a) PVC b) PET c) Polycarbonate d) Polypropylene Answer: c) Polycarbonate

Q. What is the function of a cross-linking agent in polymer chemistry?

a) To increase transparency b) To increase strength c) To increase flexibility d) To increase melting point Answer: b) To increase strength

Q. Which of the following polymers is commonly used in making disposable cups and cutlery?

a) PVC b) PET c) PS d) ABS Answer: c) PS

Q. What is the process called in which a polymer is exposed to high-energy radiation to modify its propert ies?

a) Vulcanization b) Cross-linking c) Degradation d) Sterilization Answer: b) Cross-linking

Q. Which polymer is commonly used in dental fillings and protective coatings?

a) PVC b) PET c) PMMA d) PVA Answer: c) PMMA

Q. What is the chemical structure of polystyrene?

a) (-CH2-CHCl-)n b) (-CH2-CH2-)n c) (-CH2-CH(CH3)-)n d) (-CH2-C6H5-)n Answer: d) (-CH2-C6H5-)n

Q. Which type of polymer is commonly used in the production of rubber tires?

a) Natural polymer b) Synthetic polymer c) Copolymer d) Homopolymer Answer: b) Synthetic polymer

Q. What is the process called in which a polymer is heated to a high temperature and then rapidly cooled to enhance its mechanical properties?

a) Vulcanization b) Distillation c) Quenching d) Crystallization Answer: c) Quenching

Q. Which polymer is used in the production of bulletproof glass and riot shields?

a) PVC b) PET c) Polycarbonate d) Polypropylene Answer: c) Polycarbonate

Q. What is the chemical structure of polypropylene?

a) (-CH2-CHCl-)n b) (-CH2-CH2-)n c) (-CH2-CH(CH3)-)n d) (-CH2-COOH-)n Answer: c) (-CH2-CH(CH3)-)n

Chapter 16 Chemistry in Everyday Life

Q. Which of the following is an example of a drug used for analgesic purposes?

a) Aspirin b) Urea c) Glucose d) Acetic acid Answer: a) Aspirin

Q. Which of the following is considered as an inactive drug?

a) Prodrug b) Active drug c) Placebo d) Inhibitor Answer: c) Placebo

Q. In the context of drug regulations, what does the term "OTC" stand for?

a) Open-To-Close b) On-The-Clock c) Over-The-Counter d) Out-of-The-Country Answer: c) Over-The-Counter

Q. Which of the following groups of drugs helps in relieving pain and reducing inflammation?

a) Antihistamines b) Analgesics c) Antibiotics d) Antacids Answer: b) Analgesics

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding antibiotics?

a) They are used to treat fungal infections. b) They are used to treat viral infections. c) They are used to treat bacterial infections. d) They are used to treat allergies. Answer: c) They are used to treat bacterial infections.

Q. Which of the following is an example of an antacid?

a) Codeine b) Paracetamol c) Ranitidine d) Aluminum hydroxide Answer: d) Aluminum hydroxide

Q. Which of the following drugs is commonly used as an antiseptic?

a) Ammonia b) Sodium bicarbonate c) Hydrogen peroxide d) Ethanol Answer: c) Hydrogen peroxide

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to relieve symptoms of depression?

a) Antihistamines b) Antidepressants c) Antacids d) Antibiotics Answer: b) Antidepressants

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding biodegradable substances?

a) They cannot be broken down by living organisms. b) They can only be broken down by physical methods. c) They can be easily broken down by microorganisms. d) They can be broken down by chemical reactions. Answer: c) They can be easily broken down by microorganisms.

Q. Which of the following is an artificial sweetener? a) Lactose b) Fructose c) Saccharin d) Glucose Answer: c) Saccharin

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding preservatives?

a) They enhance the growth of microorganisms. b) They prevent the growth of microorganisms. c) They improve the nutritional value of food. d) They have no impact on food spoilage. Answer: b) They prevent the growth of microorganisms.

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to treat allergies?

a) Penicillin b) Ibuprofen c) Antihistamines d) Paracetamol Answer: c) Antihistamines

Q. Which of the following is an example of a drug used as a tranquilizer?

a) Paracetamol b) Omeprazole c) Lorazepam d) Ampicillin Answer: c) Lorazepam

Q. Which of the following is NOT a therapeutic drug category?

a) Analgesics b) Anesthetics c) Antipyretics d) Antibiotic-resistant drugs Answer: d) Antibiotic-resistant drugs

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to treat heartburn and stomach ulcers?

a) Aspirin b) Insulin c) Methamphetamine d) Omeprazole Answer: d) Omeprazole

Q. Which of the following is an example of a drug used as a diuretic?

a) Doxycycline b) Prednisone c) Furosemide d) Acetaminophen Answer: c) Furosemide

Q. Which of the following drugs is used as an anti-seizure medication?

a) Glimepiride b) Phenytoin c) Loratadine d) Amlodipine Answer: b) Phenytoin

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to lower blood pressure?

a) Salbutamol b) Diphenhydramine c) Atenolol d) Caffeine Answer: c) Atenolol

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to treat asthma?

a) Digoxin b) Lovastatin c) Montelukast d) Metformin Answer: c) Montelukast

Q. Which of the following is an example of a drug used as an anticoagulant?

a) Naproxen b) Warfarin c) Clonidine d) Gemfibrozil Answer: b) Warfarin

Q. Which type of chemical reaction is used in the synthesis of drugs?

a) Addition reaction b) Substitution reaction c) Elimination reaction d) Oxidation-Reduction reaction Answer: b) Substitution reaction

Q. Which type of drug delivery system provides a controlled release of medication over an extended peri od?

a) Conventional tablets b) Capsules c) Transdermal patches d) Ointments Answer: c) Transdermal patches

Q. What does LD50 stand for in toxicology studies?

a) Limited Dose 50 b) Lethal Dose 50 c) Longitudinal Duration 50 d) Low Density 50 Answer: b) Lethal Dose 50

Q. Which of the following is a disease caused by an insect bite?

a) Cholera b) Malaria c) Tuberculosis d) Typhoid Answer: b) Malaria

Q. Which of the following is NOT a common drug classification based on the organism they target?

a) Antifungal b) Antihistamine c) Antiviral d) Antibiotic Answer: b) Antihistamine

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to control seizures in epilepsy?

a) Dopamine b) Insulin c) Gabapentin d) Cetirizine Answer: c) Gabapentin

Q. What is the role of an emulsifier in medicine?

a) To enhance dissolving abilities b) To increase shelf life c) To prevent microbial growth d) To stabilize the mixture of immiscible substances Answer: d) To stabilize the mixture of immiscible substances

Q. Which of the following metal compounds is used in antacids?

a) Iron oxide b) Copper sulfate c) Magnesium hydroxide d) Zinc chloride Answer: c) Magnesium hydroxide

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder?

a) Lithium carbonate b) Sodium bicarbonate c) Potassium hydroxide d) Calcium sulfate Answer: a) Lithium carbonate

Q. What is the function of a surfactant in a toothpaste?

a) To provide a pleasant flavor b) To enhance foaming c) To prevent tooth decay d) To add color Answer: b) To enhance foaming

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to treat high cholesterol levels in the blood?

a) Methotrexate b) Simvastatin c) Aspirin d) Methadone Answer: b) Simvastatin

Q. What is the purpose of a buffer solution in pharmaceutical formulations?

a) To stabilize pH b) To enhance taste c) To improve solubility d) To prevent oxidation Answer: a) To stabilize pH

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to reduce fever and pain?

a) Pantoprazole b) Metronidazole c) Paracetamol d) Atenolol Answer: c) Paracetamol

Q. What is the function of a plasticizer in pharmaceutical tablets?

a) To enhance durability b) To improve taste c) To increase solubility d) To improve elasticity Answer: d) To improve elasticity

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to treat high blood pressure and heart failure?

a) Amitriptyline b) Tacrolimus c) Ramipril d) Carbamazepine Answer: c) Ramipril

Q. What is the purpose of a chelating agent in pharmaceutical formulations?

a) To improve stability b) To enhance absorption c) To increase shelf life d) To prevent microbial growth Answer: a) To improve stability

Q. Which of the following drugs is used to treat acid reflux and stomach ulcers?

a) Acarbose b) Ranitidine c) Celecoxib d) Propranolol Answer: b) Ranitidine

Q. What is the function of a humectant in cosmetic products?

a) To improve viscosity b) To enhance fragrance c) To prevent spoilage d) To retain moisture Answer: d) To retain moisture

Chapter 1 Electric Charges and Fields

Q. Which of the following is a basic property of electric charge?

a) It can flow through conductors b) It attracts objects with a magnetic field c) It can be positive or negative d) It is only found in metals Answer: c) It can be positive or negative

Q. What is the SI unit of electric charge?

a) Coulomb b) Ampere c) Ohm d) Volt Answer: a) Coulomb

Q. Which of the following particles has a positive charge?

a) Proton b) Electron c) Neutron d) All of the above Answer: a) Proton

Q. What happens when two like charges are brought close to each other?

a) They attract each other b) They repel each other c) Their charges cancel out d) Nothing, they remain neutral Answer: b) They repel each other

Q. What is the force of attraction or repulsion between two charges called?

a) Electric field b) Electric potential c) Electric force d) Electric flux Answer: c) Electric force

Q. What is the equation for the Coulomb’s law of electric force?

a) F = q/d b) F = kq1q2/d^2 c) F = ma d) F = mv Answer: b) F = kq1q2/d^2

Q. The term ’k’ in Coulomb’s law is known as the:

a) Electric force constant b) Charge constant c) Field constant d) Charge to mass ratio Answer: a) Electric force constant

Q. An electric field is:

a) A region where electric charge is concentrated b) A region where there is no electric charge c) A region where electric forces are felt by other charges d) A region where electric charge is destroyed Answer: c) A region where electric forces are felt by other charges

Q. How is the direction of an electric field defined?

a) By convention, from positive to negative charges b) By convention, from negative to positive charges c) Always radially outward from any charge d) Always radially inward towards any charge Answer: a) By convention, from positive to negative charges

Q. The electric field intensity is directly proportional to the:

a) Magnitude of the charge producing the field b) Distance from the charge producing the field c) Both magnitude of the charge and distance from the charge d) None of the above Answer: a) Magnitude of the charge producing the field

Q. What is the unit of electric field intensity?

a) N/C b) V/m c) C/m^2 d) J/C Answer: b) V/m

Q. What happens to the electric field intensity as you move away from a charge?

a) It increases linearly b) It decreases linearly c) It remains constant d) It becomes zero Answer: b) It decreases linearly

Q. What is the force experienced by a charge in an electric field called?

a) Electric potential energy b) Electric potential c) Electric potential difference d) Electric force Answer: d) Electric force

Q. What is the formula for electric potential energy?

a) PE = Fd b) PE = mgh c) PE = kq1q2/d d) PE = 1/2 mv^2 Answer: c) PE = kq1q2/d

Q. What is the SI unit of electric potential?

a) Joule b) Volt c) Coulomb d) Ohm Answer: b) Volt

Q. What is the equation for electric potential difference?

a) V = W/q b) V = I/R c) V = q/d d) V = kq/d Answer: c) V = q/d

Q. What is the potential difference across a resistor with a current of 2A and resistance of 3Ω?

a) 1V b) 2V c) 3V d) 6V Answer: b) 2V

Q. Capacitors are used to store:

a) Electric current b) Electric charge c) Electric potential d) Electric force Answer: b) Electric charge

Q. What is the formula for capacitance?

a) C = q/V b) C = V/q c) C = R/I d) C = I/R Answer: a) C = q/V

Q. Which of the following is not a factor affecting capacitance?

a) Area of the plates b) Distance between the plates c) Dielectric constant of the material between the plates d) Charge stored in the plates Answer: d) Charge stored in the plates

Q. Which material has the highest dielectric constant?

a) Vacuum b) Air c) Glass d) Copper Answer: c) Glass

Q. Which of the following is an insulator?

a) Aluminum b) Copper c) Rubber d) Silver Answer: c) Rubber

Q. What is the unit of electric flux?

a) N/C b) V/m c) C/m^2 d) J/C Answer: c) C/m^2

Q. What is Gauss' law used to calculate?

a) Electric field b) Electric potential c) Electric flux d) Electric charge Answer: c) Electric flux

Q. Which of the following is true according to Gauss' law?

a) The net electric flux through a closed surface is zero for any distribution of charges outside the surface b) The net electric flux through a closed surface is zero for any distribution of charges within the surface c) The net electric flux through a closed surface is always nonzero d) The net electric flux cannot be calculated using Gauss' law Answer: a) The net electric flux through a closed surface is zero for any distribution of charges outside the surface

Q. What is the formula for the electric field due to a point charge?

a) E = kq b) E = kq/d^2 c) E = q/d^2 d) E = q/kd^2 Answer: b) E = kq/d^2

Q. What is the electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell?

a) Zero, there is no field inside the shell b) Non-zero, but not uniform throughout the shell c) Uniform, directed radially towards the center d) Uniform, directed radially away from the center Answer: a) Zero, there is no field inside the shell

Q. What is the unit of electric potential energy?

a) N/C b) W/m^2 c) J/C d) V/m Answer: c) J/C

Q. A positive charge is released in an electric field. In which direction will it move?

a) From low potential to high potential b) From high potential to low potential c) From negative charge to positive charge d) From positive charge to negative charge Answer: b) From high potential to low potential

Q. What is the potential energy of a positive charge in an electric field?

a) Zero b) Positive c) Negative d) Cannot be determined Answer: c) Negative

Q. The electric potential difference between two points in an electric field is 10V. If the distance between t he points is doubled, what is the new potential difference?

a) 2V b) 5V c) 10V d) 20V Answer: c) 10V

Q. What is the work done in moving a charge of +2C through a potential difference of 5V?

a) 10J b) 2J c) 5J d) 7J Answer: a) 10J

Q. Which statement is true about equipotential surfaces?

a) Electric field is zero at all points on an equipotential surface b) Equipotential surfaces are always parallel to each other c) Equipotential surfaces can never intersect each other d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Electric field lines always point towards positive charges b) Electric field lines always point towards negative charges c) Electric field lines are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces d) Electric field lines are always parallel to conductor surfaces Answer: c) Electric field lines are always perpendicular to equipotential surfaces

Q. Which of the following materials is a good conductor?

a) Plastic b) Glass c) Aluminum d) Rubber Answer: c) Aluminum

Q. What is the direction of the electric field lines within a conductor?

a) Towards the surface of the conductor b) Away from the surface of the conductor c) Random direction within the conductor d) Varies with the charge distribution Answer: a) Towards the surface of the conductor

Q. What is the purpose of an electrostatic precipitator?

a) To remove dust particles from the air using electric fields b) To generate electricity by static charges c) To store electric charge in a capacitor d) To measure the electric field Answer: a) To remove dust particles from the air using electric fields

Chapter 2 Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

Q. Two point charges +Q and -Q are placed at a certain distance apart. What is the electric potential at the midpoint between them?

a) 0 b) Q c) -Q d) Infinite Answer: a) 0

Q. The electrostatic potential at a point is 2V. What does this mean?

a) The electric field at that point is 2V/C b) Work done to bring a charge from infinity to that point is 2V c) Electric potential energy at that point is 2J d) None of the above Answer: b) Work done to bring a charge from infinity to that point is 2V

Q. The electric potential of a point charge at a distance 'r' from it is given by _______.

a) V = kQ^2/r b) V = kQ/r c) V = kQ/r^2 d) V = kQ^2/r^2 Answer: b) V = kQ/r

Q. The electric potential due to a point charge is inversely proportional to _______.

a) Square of the distance from the charge b) Distance from the charge c) Cube of the distance from the charge d) None of the above Answer: a) Square of the distance from the charge

Q. What is the equation for the electric potential due to a uniformly charged solid sphere?

a) V = kQ/r b) V = kQ/r^2 c) V = kQ/r^3 d) V = kQ/r^2 - kQ/R Answer: b) V = kQ/r^2

Q. The unit of electric potential is _______.

a) Volt b) Joule c) Tesla d) Coulomb Answer: a) Volt

Q. The relationship between electric field and electric potential is given by _______.

a) E V b) E = V c) E = V/r d) E = V^2 Answer: c) E = V/r

Q. Electric potential due to a dipole at any point on its axial line is given by _______.

a) V = kQ/d^2 b) V = kQ/d c) V = kP/d^2 d) V = kP/d^3 Answer: c) V = kP/d^2

Q. The electric potential energy of a point charge is zero at _______.

a) Infinity b) The center of the charge c) The surface of the charge d) None of the above Answer: a) Infinity

Q. Capacitance is defined as _______.

a) The ability of a conductor to store charge b) The potential difference between two points in a circuit c) The amount of charge stored in a conductor d) The ability of a conductor to resist the flow of current Answer: a) The ability of a conductor to store charge

Q. The unit of capacitance is _______.

a) Ohm b) Ampere c) Farad d) Volt Answer: c) Farad

Q. The energy stored in a capacitor is given by _______.

a) E = CV b) E = IV c) E = C/V d) E = QV Answer: a) E = CV

Q. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is given by _______.

a) C = Q/V b) C = Q/V^2 c) C = Q/V^3 d) C = V/Q Answer: a) C = Q/V

Q. The permittivity of free space is denoted by _______.

a) ε b) c) σ d) ρ Answer: a) ε

Q. The formula for the effective capacitance of capacitors in parallel is _______.

a) C = C1 + C2 b) C = C1C2/(C1 + C2) c) C = C1C2 d) C = C1 - C2 Answer: a) C = C1 + C2

Q. What happens to the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor if the distance between the plates is dou bled?

a) Doubles b) Halves c) Quadruples d) Remains the same Answer: b) Halves

Q. The formula for the effective capacitance of capacitors in series is _______.

a) C = C1 + C2 b) C = C1C2/(C1 + C2) c) C = C1C2 d) C = C1 - C2 Answer: b) C = C1C2/(C1 + C2)

Q. The energy stored in a capacitor can also be written as _______.

a) E = 1/2CV^2 b) E = 1/2CQ^2 c) E = 1/2V^2 d) E = 1/2Q^2 Answer: a) E = 1/2CV^2

Q. What happens to the capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor if the area of the plates is doubled?

a) Doubles b) Halves c) Quadruples d) Remains the same Answer: c) Quadruples

Q. The electric field between the plates of a capacitor is _______.

a) Zero b) Maximum c) Minimum d) Random Answer: a) Zero

Q. A dielectric material inserted between the plates of a capacitor _______.

a) Increases the capacitance b) Decreases the capacitance c) Has no effect on the capacitance d) Completely changes the capacitance Answer: a) Increases the capacitance

Q. The dielectric constant of a dielectric material is a measure of _______.

a) The ability of the material to store charge b) The ability of the material to conduct electricity c) The ability of the material to resist electric field d) The ability of the material to polarize Answer: d) The ability of the material to polarize

Q. The formula for the capacitance of a capacitor with a dielectric material is _______.

a) C = εkA/d b) C = εA/d c) C = εk/d d) C = εkd Answer: a) C = εkA/d

Q. The energy stored in a capacitor with a dielectric material can be written as _______.

a) E = 1/2CV^2 b) E = 1/2CQ^2 c) E = 1/2CV^2k d) E = 1/2Q^2 Answer: c) E = 1/2CV^2k

Q. What happens to the capacitance of a capacitor if both the distance between the plates and the dielec tric constant are doubled?

a) Doubles b) Halves c) Quadruples d) Remains the same Answer: a) Doubles

Q. The concept of electrostatic shielding is based on _______.

a) Conductors b) Dielectrics c) Insulators d) Semiconductors Answer: a) Conductors

Q. Two capacitors, one of capacitance C and the other of capacitance 2C, are connected in parallel. Wha t is the equivalent capacitance?

a) C/3 b) 3C c) 2C/3 d) 3C/2 Answer: d) 3C/2

Q. Two capacitors, one of capacitance C and the other of capacitance 2C, are connected in series. What is the equivalent capacitance?

a) C/3 b) 3C c) 2C/3 d) 3C/2 Answer: c) 2C/3

Q. The breakdown voltage of a capacitor is _______.

a) The maximum potential difference it can handle without breaking down b) The amount of charge it can store c) The time it takes to charge or discharge d) The resistance of the capacitor Answer: a) The maximum potential difference it can handle without breaking down

Q. The energy stored in a capacitor is directly proportional to _______.

a) The capacitance b) The potential difference across the plates c) The area of the plates d) The charge stored Answer: a) The capacitance

Chapter 3 Current Electricity

Q. What is the SI unit of electric current?

a. Watt b. Volt c. Ampere d. Ohm Answer: c. Ampere

Q. What is the formula to calculate electric current?

a. I = V/R b. I = P/V c. I = R/V d. I = V/P Answer: a. I = V/R

Q. What is the resistance of a conductor if it carries a current of 4 A when a voltage of 20 V is applied?

a. 20 Ω b. 5 Ω c. 8 Ω d. 0.2 Ω Answer: b. 5 Ω

Q. What is the potential difference across a resistor if a current of 2 A flows through it and the resistance is 10 Ω?

a. 2 V b. 12 V c. 5 V d. 20 V Answer: c. 20 V

Q. What is the voltage drop across a 50 Ω resistor if a current of 2 A flows through it?

a. 50 V b. 100 V c. 25 V d. 0.04 V Answer: a. 100 V

Q. Which of the following materials has the lowest resistance?

a. Copper b. Silver c. Aluminum d. Gold Answer: b. Silver

Q. What is the formula to calculate power dissipated in a resistor?

a. P = V/I b. P = I/V c. P = R/I d. P = I/R Answer: d. P = I/R

Q. What is the unit of electrical energy?

a. Ampere b. Volt c. Coulomb d. Watt-hour Answer: d. Watt-hour

Q. A 100 W bulb operates at a voltage of 220 V. What is the current passing through it?

a. 0.5 A b. 2 A c. 100 A d. 220 A Answer: a. 0.5 A

Q. What is Kirchhoff's first law?

a. The sum of current entering a junction is equal to the sum of current leaving that junction. b. The sum of voltage drops in a series circuit is equal to the total voltage. c. The sum of voltage drops in a parallel circuit is equal to the total voltage. d. The sum of resistances in a circuit is always equal to the sum of voltages. Answer: a. The sum of current entering a junction is equal to the sum of current leaving that junction.

Q. What is Kirchhoff's second law?

a. The sum of voltage drops in a series circuit is equal to the total voltage. b. The sum of voltage drops in a parallel circuit is equal to the total voltage. c. The sum of resistances in a circuit is always equal to the sum of voltages. d. The algebraic sum of potential differences in any closed loop in a network is zero. Answer: d. The algebraic sum of potential differences in any closed loop in a network is zero.

Q. A series circuit consists of two resistors, R1 = 5 Ω and R2 = 8 Ω, connected to a voltage source. What is the total resistance?

a. 13 Ω b. 40 Ω c. 13/8 Ω d. 5/8 Ω Answer: a. 13 Ω

Q. In a parallel circuit, the total resistance is equal to:

a. The sum of the individual resistances. b. The reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances. c. The square root of the sum of the squares of the individual resistances. d. The product of the individual resistances. Answer: b. The reciprocal of the sum of the reciprocals of the individual resistances.

Q. A parallel circuit consists of two resistors, R1 = 6 Ω and R2 = 12 Ω, connected to a voltage source. W hat is the total resistance?

a. 18 Ω b. 2 Ω c. 4 Ω d. 72 Ω Answer: c. 4 Ω

Q. What is the unit of electrical power?

a. Ampere b. Volt c. Coulomb d. Watt Answer: d. Watt

Q. Which law relates the current, voltage, and resistance in a circuit?

a. Newton's Law b. Ohm's Law c. Coulomb's Law d. Kirchhoff's Law Answer: b. Ohm's Law

Q. The resistance of a wire depends on which of the following factors?

a. Length only b. Cross-sectional area only c. Both length and cross-sectional area d. None of the above Answer: c. Both length and cross-sectional area

Q. What is the resistance of a wire of length 2 m and area of cross-section 0.5 cm², given that the resistiv ity of the material is 1.7 x 10 Ωm?

a. 6.8 Ω b. 0.68 Ω c. 0.085 Ω d. 0.085 x 10 Ω Answer: d. 0.085 x 10 Ω

Q. Which material is used as a fuse wire?

a. Copper b. Aluminum c. Silver d. Tungsten Answer: b. Aluminum

Q. What is the effect of adding more resistors in a parallel circuit?

a. Increases the overall resistance of the circuit b. Decreases the overall resistance of the circuit c. Has no effect on the overall resistance of the circuit d. None of the above Answer: b. Decreases the overall resistance of the circuit

Q. What is the effect of adding more resistors in a series circuit?

a. Increases the overall resistance of the circuit b. Decreases the overall resistance of the circuit c. Has no effect on the overall resistance of the circuit d. None of the above Answer: a. Increases the overall resistance of the circuit

Q. Which statement about a voltmeter is correct?

a. It is connected in series in a circuit. b. It measures current. c. It measures potential difference. d. It has a low resistance. Answer: c. It measures potential difference.

Q. Which bulb would be the brightest in a series circuit consisting of five identical bulbs connected to a b attery?

a. The first bulb b. The middle bulb c. The last bulb d. All bulbs will be equally bright Answer: a. The first bulb

Q. Which bulb would be the brightest in a parallel circuit consisting of five identical bulbs connected to a battery?

a. The first bulb b. The middle bulb c. The last bulb d. All bulbs will be equally bright Answer: d. All bulbs will be equally bright

Q. What is the effect of decreasing the resistance in a circuit with a constant voltage?

a. Increases the current b. Decreases the current c. Does not affect the current d. None of the above Answer: a. Increases the current

Q. What is the effect of increasing the voltage in a circuit with a constant resistance?

a. Increases the current b. Decreases the current c. Does not affect the current d. None of the above Answer: a. Increases the current

Q. Which of the following materials is a good insulator?

a. Copper b. Aluminum c. Silver d. Rubber Answer: d. Rubber

Q. A wire of length 2 m has a resistance of 10 Ω. What would be the resistance of a wire of the same mat erial but two times the length?

a. 5 Ω b. 10 Ω c. 20 Ω d. 40 Ω Answer: c. 20 Ω

Q. Which component is used to store electrical energy in a circuit?

a. Resistor b. Capacitor c. Diode d. Inductor Answer: b. Capacitor

Q. What is the unit of electrical charge?

a. Ampere b. Volt c. Coulomb d. Watt Answer: c. Coulomb

Q. Which of the following devices converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?

a. Motor b. Generator c. Transformer d. Transistor Answer: b. Generator

Q. Which of the following materials has the highest resistivity?

a. Copper b. Aluminum c. Silver d. Rubber Answer: d. Rubber

Q. Which of the following is true for a superconductor?

a. It has zero resistance. b. It has infinite resistance. c. It has negative resistance. d. It has variable resistance. Answer: a. It has zero resistance.

Q. What is the unit of electric potential?

a. Ampere b. Volt c. Coulomb d. Ohm Answer: b. Volt

Chapter 4 Moving Charges and Magnetism

Q. Which of the following particles is responsible for magnetic fields?

a) Protons b) Electrons c) Neutrons d) Positrons Answer: b) Electrons

Q. What happens when a charged particle moves in a magnetic field?

a) Its electric field is nullified b) Its magnetic field becomes stronger c) It experiences a force d) It becomes neutral Answer: c) It experiences a force

Q. According to Fleming's left-hand rule, the thumb represents:

a) Magnetic field b) Moving charge c) Force d) Velocity Answer: c) Force

Q. What is the SI unit of magnetic field strength?

a) Tesla b) Weber c) Coulomb d) Joule Answer: a) Tesla

Q. Which of the following is a fundamental principle of magnetic fields?

a) Magnetic resistance b) Magnetic induction c) Magnetic monopole d) Magnetic dipole Answer: c) Magnetic monopole

Q. In a magnetic field, a charged particle follows:

a) A straight line b) A circular path c) A parabolic trajectory d) An S-shaped curve Answer: b) A circular path

Q. The force experienced by a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is maximum when:

a) The particle's velocity is maximum b) The magnetic field strength is maximum c) The angle between velocity and magnetic field is minimum d) The charge of the particle is maximum Answer: c) The angle between velocity and magnetic field is minimum

Q. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

a) Electric current b) Magnetic field c) Magnetic flux d) Magnetic induction Answer: b) Magnetic field

Q. In a region with a uniform magnetic field, the force experienced by a moving charged particle is

: a) Proportional to its speed b) Independent of its speed c) Inversely proportional to its speed d) Proportional to the square root of its speed Answer: a) Proportional to its speed

Q. What is Ampere's Law used to calculate?

a) Magnetic flux b) Magnetic field strength c) Magnetic moment d) Magnetic force Answer: b) Magnetic field strength

Q. The motion of a charged particle perpendicular to a magnetic field is called:

a) Circular motion b) Linear motion c) Oscillatory motion d) Random motion Answer: a) Circular motion

Q. A charged particle moving parallel to a magnetic field experiences:

a) No force b) Maximum force c) Force in the same direction as its velocity d) Force in the opposite direction to its velocity Answer: a) No force

Q. The magnitude of the force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is given by:

a) F = m × B b) F = q × B c) F = q × v d) F = q × E Answer: b) F = q × B

Q. The angular frequency of a charged particle moving in a magnetic field depends on its:

a) Mass b) Charge c) Velocity d) Acceleration Answer: b) Charge

Q. The work done by the magnetic force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) infinity Answer: c) Zero

Q. Which of the following affects the magnetic force on a charged particle in a magnetic field?

a) Mass of the particle b) Charge of the particle c) Speed of the particle d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Magnetic force can change the:

a) Kinetic energy of a charged particle b) Potential energy of a charged particle c) Both kinetic and potential energy d) Neither kinetic nor potential energy Answer: d) Neither kinetic nor potential energy

Q. The magnetic force on a charged particle is perpendicular to:

a) The direction of motion b) The magnetic field c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above Answer: c) Both a) and b)

Q. The direction of the force experienced by a positive charge moving in a magnetic field depends on the :

a) Velocity of the charge b) Magnetic field c) Charge's polarity d) None of the above Answer: c) Charge's polarity

Q. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the magnetic field lines near a straight current-c arrying wire?

a) They are parallel to the wire b) They form concentric circles around the wire c) They radiate outward from the wire d) They converge towards the wire Answer: b) They form concentric circles around the wire

Q. Magnetic field lines are always:

a) Straight lines b) Circular lines c) Parallel lines d) Curved lines Answer: d) Curved lines

Q. Which of the following factors does the strength of the magnetic force on a charged particle in a magn etic field depend on?

a) Charge of the particle b) Magnetic field strength c) Velocity of the particle d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the relationship between the magnetic field and the magnetic force?

a) The magnetic field creates the magnetic force b) The magnetic force creates the magnetic field c) They are independent of each other d) None of the above Answer: a) The magnetic field creates the magnetic force

Q. The magnetic field lines around a bar magnet:

a) Run from North pole to South pole b) Run from South pole to North pole c) Do not exist d) Are parallel to each other Answer: a) Run from North pole to South pole

Q. The magnetic field inside a current-carrying solenoid is:

a) Zero b) Weak c) Strong d) Infinite Answer: c) Strong

Q. Ampere's circuital law is based on the principle of conservation of:

a) Charge b) Energy c) Magnetic flux d) Magnetic field Answer: c) Magnetic flux

Q. According to Ampere's circuital law, the magnetic field inside a current-carrying wire is:

a) Directly proportional to current b) Inversely proportional to current c) Independent of current d) Zero Answer: a) Directly proportional to current

Q. Magnetic field lines never:

a) Cross each other b) Touch each other c) Split into two branches d) None of the above Answer: a) Cross each other

Q. The strength of a magnetic field at a point depends on:

a) The distance from the magnet b) The orientation of the magnet c) The size of the magnet d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The magnetic field around a solenoid resembles the field around a:

a) Bar magnet b) Sphere c) Cylinder d) None of the above Answer: a) Bar magnet

Q. What is the direction of the magnetic field inside a solenoid?

a) From North to South b) From South to North c) There is no field inside the solenoid d) It depends on the direction of current Answer: d) It depends on the direction of current

Q. Magnetic field lines around a bar magnet:

a) Converge towards the North pole b) Converge towards the South pole c) Are parallel to the length of the bar magnet d) None of the above Answer: b) Converge towards the South pole

Q. The magnetic field around a straight current-carrying conductor is:

a) Concentric circles b) S-shaped curves c) Straight lines d) None of the above Answer: a) Concentric circles

Q. The strength of the magnetic field inside a solenoid depends on:

a) The number of turns per unit length b) The current flowing through the solenoid c) The permeability of the material inside the solenoid d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Magnetic field lines around a current-carrying solenoid are similar to:

a) Straight lines b) Concentric circles c) Helical lines d) Parallel lines Answer: c) Helical lines

Q. The magnetic field inside a current-carrying solenoid is:

a) Stronger at the ends b) Weaker at the ends c) Absent at the ends d) Varying at the ends Answer: a) Stronger at the ends

Q. What is the relation between magnetic field strength and magnetic flux density?

a) They are the same quantity b) Magnetic field strength is the rate of change of magnetic flux density c) Magnetic flux density is the magnetic field strength per unit area d) There is no relation between them Answer: c) Magnetic flux density is the magnetic field strength per unit area

Q. The angle between the velocity of a charged particle and the magnetic field affects the:

a) Strength of the magnetic field b) Magnetic force experienced by the particle c) Velocity of the particle d) None of the above Answer: b) Magnetic force experienced by the particle

Chapter 5 Magnetism and Matter

Q. Which of the following property is not related to magnets?

a) Magnetic property b) Electrical property c) Elastic property d) Mechanical property Answer: c) Elastic property

Q. The phenomenon of the attraction or repulsion of magnetic materials is called:

a) Magnetosphere b) Polarization c) Magnetization d) Magnetic effect of electric current Answer: d) Magnetic effect of electric current

Q. The property of a substance that enables it to conduct magnetic lines of force is known as:

a) Magnetic induction b) Diamagnetism c) Paramagnetism d) Permeability Answer: d) Permeability

Q. The shape of the magnetic field lines around a bar magnet is:

a) Straight lines b) Elliptical lines c) Circular lines d) Zigzag lines Answer: c) Circular lines

Q. The magnetic field due to a straight conductor carrying current:

a) Increases with the current and decreases with the distance b) Decreases with the current and decreases with the distance c) Increases with the current and increases with the distance d) Decreases with the current and increases with the distance Answer: a) Increases with the current and decreases with the distance

Q. Magnetic lines of force are:

a) Open curves b) Closed curves c) Straight lines d) None of the above Answer: b) Closed curves

Q. The area around a magnet where its magnetic influence can be felt is called:

a) Magnetic field b) Magnetic moment c) Magnetic domain d) Magnetic intensity Answer: a) Magnetic field

Q. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is:

a) Uniform b) Non-uniform c) Zero d) Indeterminate Answer: a) Uniform

Q. The north-seeking pole of a bar magnet can be identified using:

a) Compass needle b) South-seeking pole c) Iron fillings d) All of the above Answer: a) Compass needle

Q. The strength of the magnetic field produced by an electromagnet depends on:

a) Length of the wire b) Current flowing through the wire c) Number of turns in the coil d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The natural magnet is a:

a) Ferromagnetic material b) Paramagnetic material c) Diamagnetic material d) Non-magneticmaterial Answer: a) Ferromagnetic material

Q. The material that does not retain its magnetism permanently is:

a) Soft iron b) Steel c) Cobalt d) Nickel Answer: a) Soft iron

Q. The magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying conductor at any point is:

a) Proportional to the current b) Inversely proportional to the distance from the wire c) Perpendicular to the direction of current flow d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet:

a) Travel from the north pole to the south pole b) Travel from the south pole to the north pole c) Do not exist inside the magnet d) None of the above Answer: a) Travel from the north pole to the south pole

Q. The magnetic field inside a current-carrying solenoid:

a) Increases with the number of turns in the solenoid b) Increases with the current passing through the solenoid c) Is directly proportional to the length of the solenoid d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The property of a substance that does not allow it to be easily magnetized is called:

a) Ferromagnetism b) Diamagnetism c) Paramagnetism d) Magnetic permeability Answer: b) Diamagnetism

Q. A current-carrying coil of wire behaves as:

a) Electromagnet b) Magnet c) Solenoid d) None of the above Answer: a) Electromagnet

Q. When a bar magnet is broken into two halves:

a) Only one half will be magnetic b) Both halves will be magnetic c) None of the halves will be magnetic d) It is not possible to break a bar magnet Answer: b) Both halves will be magnetic

Q. The magnetic field lines always form: a) Closed loops b) Open loops c) Straight lines d) None of the above Answer: a) Closed loops

Q. The value of the magnetic field intensity inside a superconductor is:

a) Zero b) Infinite c) Same as the value outside the superconductor d) Cannot be determined Answer: a) Zero

Q. Which of the following materials is not ferromagnetic?

a) Iron b) Steel c) Nickel d) Aluminum Answer: d) Aluminum

Q. The space around the magnet in which its magnetic effect can be felt is called:

a) Magnetic field b) Magnetic moment c) Magnetic domain d) Magnetic intensity Answer: a) Magnetic field

Q. The gauss is the unit of:

a) Magnetic field strength b) Magnetic induction c) Magnetic flux density d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The angle between the magnetic field lines at a point on a magnet and the tangent drawn at that point is known as:

a) Magnetic induction b) Magnetic permeability c) Magnetic declination d) Magnetic inclination Answer: d) Magnetic inclination

Q. A test charge is placed in a magnetic field. It will experience a force when its velocity is:

a) Parallel to the magnetic field b) Perpendicular to the magnetic field c) Opposite to the magnetic field d) None of the above Answer: b) Perpendicular to the magnetic field

Q. The unit of the magnetic field strength is:

a) Tesla b) Weber c) Gauss d) Ampere Answer: a) Tesla

Q. The magnetic field inside a toroid is:

a) Zero b) Non-uniform c) Uniform d) Indeterminate Answer: c) Uniform

Q. Which of the following materials are expected to have the highest value of relative permeability?

a) Ferromagnetic material b) Diamagnetic material c) Paramagnetic material d) Superconductor Answer: a) Ferromagnetic material

Q. The strength of an electromagnet can be increased by:

a) Increasing the number of turns in the coil b) Increasing the current flowing through the coil c) Decreasing the length of the coil d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The phenomenon of induced magnetism due to an external magnetic field is called:

a) Magnetization b) Permeability c) Inductance d) Mutual induction Answer: a) Magnetization

Q. The phenomenon of magnetization of a magnetic material in a direction opposite to the applied magne tic field is called:

a) Ferromagnetism b) Diamagnetism c) Paramagnetism d) Electromagnetism Answer: b) Diamagnetism

Q. The magnetic domain is:

a) A region of space with a large number of atoms aligned in a particular direction b) The area around a magnet where its magnetic influence can be felt c) The direction in which a compass needle points d) None of the above Answer: a) A region of space with a large number of atoms aligned in a particular direction

Q. The magnetic field produced by a straight current-carrying conductor is:

a) Circular b) Elliptical c) Concentric circles d) Straight lines Answer: c) Concentric circles

Q. The region of space around a magnet where its magnetic effect can be detected is called:

a) Electric field b) Magnetic field c) Gravitational field d) None of the above Answer: b) Magnetic field

Q. The magnetic field inside a solenoid is:

a) Non-uniform b) Zero c) Uniform d) Indeterminate Answer: c) Uniform

Chapter 6 Electromagnetic Induction

Q. According to Faraday's law, electromagnetic induction occurs when there is a change in:

a. Magnetic field strength b. Electric field strength c. Both magnetic and electric field strength d. None of the above Answer: a. Magnetic field strength

Q. The phenomenon in which a changing magnetic field induces an electric current in a coil of wire is calle d:

a. Transformer b. Electromagnetic induction c. Electromagnetism d. Electromotive force Answer: b. Electromagnetic induction

Q. The direction of the induced current in a wire depends on:

a. Resistance of the wire b. Length of the wire c. Direction of the magnetic field d. None of the above Answer: c. Direction of the magnetic field

Q. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:

a. Weber b. Tesla c. Joule d. Ampere Answer: a. Weber

Q. Lenz's law states that the direction of the induced current is always such that it:

a. Opposes the change producing it b. Enhances the change producing it c. Is perpendicular to the magnetic field d. None of the above Answer: a. Opposes the change producing it

Q. The process of producing an induced current in a coil by changing the magnetic field around it is known as:

a. Self-induction b. Mutual induction c. Inductive reactance d. Faraday's induction Answer: a. Self-induction

Q. The device used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy using electromagnetic induction is called a:

a. Generator b. Transformer c. Motor d. Solenoid Answer: a. Generator

Q. The electromagnetic induction was discovered by:

a. Michael Faraday b. Nikola Tesla c. James Clerk Maxwell d. Isaac Newton Answer: a. Michael Faraday

Q. A transformer works on the principle of:

a. Mutual induction b. Self-induction c. Ohm's law d. Faraday's law Answer: a. Mutual induction

Q. The primary coil of a transformer is connected to a 220V AC power supply. If the turn ratio of the trans former is 1:5, the voltage across the secondary coil will be:

a. 44V b. 220V c. 660V d. 1100V Answer: c. 660V

Q. The efficiency of an ideal transformer is:

a. 0% b. 50% c. 80% d. 100% Answer: d. 100%

Q. The work done in rotating a coil in a magnetic field is converted into:

a. Electric potential energy b. Magnetic potential energy c. Mechanical energy d. Thermal energy Answer: a. Electric potential energy

Q. A wire loop is moving perpendicular to a magnetic field. The induced current will be maximum when th e loop moves:

a. Parallel to the magnetic field b. Perpendicular to the magnetic field c. Opposite to the magnetic field d. Any direction, it does not matter Answer: b. Perpendicular to the magnetic field

Q. The magnitude of the induced current in a coil is directly proportional to:

a. Resistance of the coil b. Length of the coil c. Number of turns in the coil d. None of the above Answer: c. Number of turns in the coil

Q. Flemming's right-hand rule is used to determine the:

a. Direction of the induced current b. Magnitude of the induced current c. Resistance of the coil d. None of the above Answer: a. Direction of the induced current

Q. The self-inductance of a coil increases with:

a. Increase in current b. Increase in resistance c. Increase in frequency d. Decrease in temperature Answer: a. Increase in current

Q. The process of producing an induced emf by changing the magnetic field linked with a nearby circuit is known as:

a. Magnetic induction b. Mutual induction c. Self-induction d. Electromagnetic induction Answer: b. Mutual induction

Q. The unit of inductance is:

a. Ohm b. Henry c. Farad d. Weber Answer: b. Henry

Q. A step-up transformer has:

a. More turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil b. Less turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil c. Equal number of turns in both the primary and secondary coils d. No turns in the secondary coil Answer: a. More turns in the secondary coil than in the primary coil

Q. The speed of an electric motor can be increased by:

a. Decreasing the electric current b. Increasing the electric current c. Decreasing the resistance d. Increasing the resistance Answer: b. Increasing the electric current

Q. An electric generator converts:

a. Mechanical energy into electrical energy b. Electrical energy into mechanical energy c. Magnetic energy into electrical energy d. Electrical energy into magnetic energy Answer: a. Mechanical energy into electrical energy

Q. An electric motor converts:

a. Mechanical energy into electrical energy b. Electrical energy into mechanical energy c. Magnetic energy into electrical energy d. Electrical energy into magnetic energy Answer: b. Electrical energy into mechanical energy

Q. The frequency of the induced current in a coil can be increased by:

a. Increasing the magnetic field strength b. Decreasing the resistance of the coil c. Increasing the speed of rotation of the coil d. All of the above Answer: c. Increasing the speed of rotation of the coil

Q. The period of the induced current in a coil is the reciprocal of its:

a. Wavelength b. Frequency c. Amplitude d. Velocity Answer: b. Frequency

Q. The voltage induced in a coil is directly proportional to:

a. The magnetic field strength b. The number of turns in the coil c. The angle between the coil and the magnetic field d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above

Q. A wire loop is moved out of a magnetic field. The induced current in the loop will be:

a. Zero b. Maximum c. Constant d. Decreasing Answer: a. Zero

Q. Mutual inductance is a measure of:

a. The resistance to change in current in a coil b. The self-inductance of a coil c. The coupling between two coils d. The efficiency of a transformer Answer: c. The coupling between two coils

Q. The ratio of the output power to the input power of a transformer is called its:

a. Efficiency b. Power factor c. Load resistance d. Voltage ratio Answer: a. Efficiency

Q. The emf induced in a coil is given by:

a. e = L × di/dt b. e = R × di/dt c. e = V × di/dt d. e = C × di/dt Answer: a. e = L × di/dt

Q. The back emf in a motor:

a. Is always equal to the applied voltage b. Decreases with an increase in speed c. Increases with an increase in speed d. Remains constant under all conditions Answer: c. Increases with an increase in speed

Q. A current-carrying coil behaves as a magnet due to:

a. Electromagnetic induction b. Lenz's law c. Ampere's law d. Coulomb's law Answer: a. Electromagnetic induction

Q. Central heating systems usually employ a:

a. Step-up transformer b. Step-down transformer c. Power transformer d. Auto-transformer Answer: b. Step-down transformer

Q. A transformer operates on:

a. Direct current b. Alternating current c. Both direct and alternating current d. None of the above Answer: b. Alternating current

Q. The core of a transformer is generally made of:

a. Aluminum b. Copper c. Iron d. Glass Answer: c. Iron

Q. A transformer is used to:

a. Change the magnitude of current b. Change the magnitude of voltage c. Change the direction of current d. Change the impedance of a circuit Answer: b. Change the magnitude of voltage

Chapter 7 Alternating Current

Q. In AC circuits, the magnitude of current and voltage

a) remains constant b) oscillates c) varies linearly d) decreases with time Answer: b) oscillates

Q. The peak value of an AC voltage is 100V. What is its RMS value?

a) 50V b) 70.7V c) 100V d) 141.4V Answer: b) 70.7V

Q. The phase difference between current and voltage in an inductor in an AC circuit is:

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees Answer: c) 90 degrees

Q. Which of the following devices can change the current frequency in an AC circuit?

a) Inductor b) Capacitor c) Transformer d) Resistor Answer: c) Transformer

Q. The power factor of a purely resistive circuit is:

a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) Infinity Answer: c) 1

Q. What is the reactance of a capacitor in an AC circuit?

a) Inductive b) Capacitive c) Resistive d) None of the above Answer: b) Capacitive

Q. In an AC circuit, what is the relationship between voltage and current?

a) Voltage leads current by 90 degrees b) Voltage lags current by 90 degrees c) Voltage is in phase with current d) Voltage is independent of current Answer: a) Voltage leads current by 90 degrees

Q. Which of the following quantities is constant in an AC circuit?

a) Voltage b) Current c) Power d) None of the above Answer: c) Power

Q. What is the frequency of AC mains in most countries?

a) 50 Hz b) 60 Hz c) 25 Hz d) 100 Hz Answer: a) 50 Hz

Q. What is the formula for the impedance of a series RLC circuit?

a) Z = R + XL b) Z = R + XC c) Z = R + √(XL + XC) d) Z = √(R^2 + (XL - XC)^2) Answer: d) Z = √(R^2 + (XL - XC)^2)

Q. What happens to the impedance of a parallel RLC circuit as the frequency increases?

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) Depends on the components used Answer: b) Decreases

Q. The power consumed by an AC circuit is given by:

a) P = IV b) P = I^2R c) P = V^2/R d) P = VI cos θ Answer: d) P = VI cos θ

Q. What is the power factor of a purely inductive circuit?

a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) Depends on the frequency Answer: a) 0

Q. What is the unit of frequency?

a) Volts b) Amperes c) Hertz d) Watts Answer: c) Hertz

Q. What is the formula for the capacitive reactance (XC) in an AC circuit?

a) XC = 1 / (2πfC) b) XC = 2πfC c) XC = 1 / (2πLC) d) XC = 1 / (2πRC) Answer: a) XC = 1 / (2πfC)

Q. Which of the following is an example of a resistive load in an AC circuit?

a) Incandescent bulb b) Inductor c) Capacitor d) Diode Answer: a) Incandescent bulb

Q. What is the phase difference between current and voltage in a purely resistive circuit?

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees Answer: a) 0 degrees

Q. What is the purpose of a transformer in an AC circuit?

a) Change the frequency b) Change the voltage c) Change the power factor d) Change the power consumption Answer: b) Change the voltage

Q. Which of the following is an example of an inductive load in an AC circuit?

a) Electric heater b) Resistor c) Capacitor d) Motor Answer: d) Motor

Q. What is the formula for the reactance of an inductor (XL) in an AC circuit?

a) XL = 2πfL b) XL = 1 / (2πfL) c) XL = L / (2πf) d) XL = (2πf)^2L Answer: a) XL = 2πfL

Q. In an AC circuit, what is the relationship between power factor and phase angle?

a) Power factor is inversely proportional to the phase angle b) Power factor is directly proportional to the phase angle c) Power factor does not depend on the phase angle d) Power factor is equal to the phase angle Answer: a) Power factor is inversely proportional to the phase angle

Q. Which of the following is an example of a capacitive load in an AC circuit?

a) Inductor b) Transformer c) Motor d) Capacitor Answer: d) Capacitor

Q. What is the formula for the total impedance (Z) in a parallel RLC circuit?

a) 1/Z = 1/R + 1/XL + 1/XC b) 1/Z = R + XL + XC c) Z = R + 1/XL + 1/XC d) Z = R + XL + XC Answer: a) 1/Z = 1/R + 1/XL + 1/XC

Q. What is the phase difference between current and voltage in a purely capacitive circuit?

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees Answer: c) 90 degrees

Q. Which of the following components is used to measure the voltage in an AC circuit?

a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Oscilloscope d) Galvanometer Answer: b) Voltmeter

Q. What is the formula for the total RMS current (I) in a series RLC circuit?

a) I = √(IR^2 + (IXL - IXC)^2) b) I = √(IR^2 + (IXL + IXC)^2) c) I = √(IR^2 + IXL^2 + IXC^2) d) I = √(IR^2 - (IXL - IXC)^2) Answer: c) I = √(IR^2 + IXL^2 + IXC^2)

Q. What is the unit of power?

a) Pascal b) Joule c) Newton d) Watt Answer: d) Watt

Q. What is the formula for the inductive reactance (XL) in an AC circuit?

a) XL = 2πfL b) XL = 1 / (2πfL) c) XL = L / (2πf) d) XL = (2πf)^2L Answer: a) XL = 2πfL

Q. What is the phase difference between current and voltage in a purely capacitive circuit?

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees Answer: c) 90 degrees

Q. Which of the following components is used to measure the current in an AC circuit?

a) Ammeter b) Voltmeter c) Oscilloscope d) Galvanometer Answer: a) Ammeter

Q. What is the formula for the total impedance (Z) in a parallel RLC circuit?

a) 1/Z = 1/R + 1/XL + 1/XC b) 1/Z = R + XL + XC c) Z = R + 1/XL + 1/XC d) Z = R + XL + XC Answer: a) 1/Z = 1/R + 1/XL + 1/XC

Q. What is the phase difference between current and voltage in a purely resistive circuit?

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees Answer: a) 0 degrees

Chapter 8 Electromagnetic Waves

Q. Which of the following waves require a medium to propagate?

a) Electromagnetic waves b) Mechanical waves c) Light waves d) Sound waves Answer: d) Sound waves

Q. The wavelength of an electromagnetic wave is:

a) The distance covered by the wave in one second b) The distance between two crests of the wave c) The distance between two consecutive points in phase d) The distance between two troughs of the wave Answer: b) The distance between two crests of the wave

Q. Which of the following waves is not an electromagnetic wave?

a) X-rays b) Gamma rays c) Sound waves d) Infrared waves Answer: c) Sound waves

Q. What is the speed of light in a vacuum?

a) Zero b) 3 x 10^8 m/s c) 1 m/s d) 9.8 m/s^2 Answer: b) 3 x 10^8 m/s

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the shortest wavelength?

a) Radio waves b) X-rays c) Gamma rays d) Infrared waves Answer: c) Gamma rays

Q. The electromagnetic spectrum consists of:

a) Light waves only b) Radio waves only c) All types of electromagnetic waves d) X-rays only Answer: c) All types of electromagnetic waves

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest frequency?

a) Microwaves b) Radio waves c) Infrared waves d) Ultraviolet rays Answer: d) Ultraviolet rays

Q. The electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave are:

a) Parallel to each other b) Perpendicular to each other c) In the same direction d) None of the above Answer: b) Perpendicular to each other

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the lowest frequency?

a) Ultraviolet rays b) Gamma rays c) X-rays d) Radio waves Answer: d) Radio waves

Q. The energy of an electromagnetic wave is directly proportional to its:

a) Frequency b) Wavelength c) Velocity d) Amplitude Answer: a) Frequency

Q. The unit of frequency is:

a) Meters per second b) Hertz c) Joule d) Newton Answer: b) Hertz

Q. Which of the following statements about the speed of electromagnetic waves is correct?

a) It increases with frequency b) It decreases with wavelength c) It is constant in vacuum d) It is the same for all types of waves Answer: c) It is constant in vacuum

Q. What is the wavelength of a wave with a frequency of 2.4 GHz?

a) 1.25 x 10^8 m b) 1.25 x 10^5 m c) 1.25 x 10^3 m d) 1.25 x 10^-3 m Answer: d) 1.25 x 10^-3 m

Q. Which of the following devices are used to generate and detect electromagnetic waves of a specific fr equency?

a) Transistor b) Antenna c) Transformer d) Capacitor Answer: b) Antenna

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in television broadcasting?

a) X-rays b) Ultraviolet rays c) Gamma rays d) Radio waves Answer: d) Radio waves

Q. Which of the following statements about polarized waves is correct?

a) They have magnetic fields that are perpendicular to the direction of propagation b) They have electric fields that are perpendicular to the direction of propagation c) They have electric and magnetic fields that are parallel to each other d) They can only be produced by mechanical waves Answer: c) They have electric and magnetic fields that are parallel to each other

Q. When an electromagnetic wave enters a denser medium, its:

a) Speed and wavelength increase b) Speed and wavelength decrease c) Speed decreases and wavelength increases d) Speed increases and wavelength decreases Answer: c) Speed decreases and wavelength increases

Q. The bending of light waves around obstacles is known as:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: a) Diffraction

Q. How does the frequency of an electromagnetic wave change when it enters a denser medium?

a) It increases b) It decreases c) It remains constant d) It depends on the wavelength Answer: c) It remains constant

Q. Which of the following statements is true about the intensity of an electromagnetic wave?

a) It is directly proportional to the amplitude b) It is inversely proportional to the square of the amplitude c) It is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude d) It is independent of the amplitude Answer: c) It is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves can ionize atoms and molecules?

a) Infrared waves b) Radio waves c) Ultraviolet rays d) Microwaves Answer: c) Ultraviolet rays

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in communication systems like cell phones? a) X-rays

b) Infrared waves c) Ultraviolet rays d) Microwaves Answer: d) Microwaves

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the highest energy?

a) Radio waves b) X-rays c) Ultraviolet rays d) Infrared waves Answer: b) X-rays

Q. Which of the following materials is transparent to visible light?

a) Wood b) Paper c) Glass d) Metal Answer: c) Glass

Q. Which of the following uses of electromagnetic waves is not related to medical imaging?

a) X-rays b) Ultrasound c) MRI d) CT scan Answer: b) Ultrasound

Q. The process of converting electromagnetic waves into electrical signals is known as:

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Absorption d) Detection Answer: d) Detection

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used for sterilizing medical equipment?

a) Infrared waves b) Ultraviolet rays c) Gamma rays d) X-rays Answer: c) Gamma rays

Q. Which of the following is not an application of electromagnetic waves in everyday life?

a) Television b) Cell phones c) Microwave ovens d) Cars Answer: d) Cars

Q. Which of the following statements is true about the speed of electromagnetic waves in a medium?

a) It depends on the frequency of the wave b) It depends on the wavelength of the wave c) It depends on the amplitude of the wave d) It depends on the medium only Answer: d) It depends on the medium only

Q. Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic waves produced by the Sun is true?

a) They have the same frequency and wavelength as X-rays b) They have the same frequency and wavelength as ultraviolet rays c) They have the same frequency and wavelength as visible light d) They have the same frequency and wavelength as radio waves Answer: c) They have the same frequency and wavelength as visible light

Q. The electromagnetic waves produced by an antenna are generally:

a) Transverse waves b) Longitudinal waves c) Standing waves d) Mechanical waves Answer: a) Transverse waves

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in remote control devices?

a) X-rays b) Radio waves c) Infrared waves d) Ultraviolet rays Answer: c) Infrared waves

Q. Which of the following statements about electromagnetic waves is incorrect?

a) They can travel through a vacuum b) They can travel through a medium c) They transfer energy without the movement of matter d) They require a medium to propagate Answer: d) They require a medium to propagate

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in photoelectric effect experiments?

a) Infrared waves b) Gamma rays c) X-rays d) Ultraviolet rays Answer: d) Ultraviolet rays

Q. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used in heat lamps?

a) X-rays b) Radio waves c) Infrared waves d) Ultraviolet rays Answer: c) Infrared waves

Chapter 9 Ray Optics and Optical Instruments

Q. The phenomenon by which light changes its direction when it passes from one medium to another is ca lled

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Interference Answer: b) Refraction

Q. The refractive index of a medium with respect to air is always

a) Less than 1 b) Greater than 1 c) Equal to 1 d) Zero Answer: b) Greater than 1

Q. When a ray of light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium, it

a) Bends away from the normal b) Bends towards the normal c) Does not bend d) Depends on the angle of incidence Answer: b) Bends towards the normal

Q. Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from

a) Denser to rarer medium at a small angle of incidence b) Rarer to denser medium at a small angle of incidence c) Denser to rarer medium at a large angle of incidence d) Rarer to denser medium at a large angle of incidence Answer: c) Denser to rarer medium at a large angle of incidence

Q. The critical angle is the angle of incidence for which the angle of refraction is

a) 45 degrees b) 90 degrees c) Zero degrees d) 180 degrees Answer: b) 90 degrees

Q. A concave mirror always forms a

a) Real and inverted image b) Virtual and upright image c) Real and upright image d) Virtual and inverted image Answer: a) Real and inverted image

Q. The focal length of a concave mirror is

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinity Answer: b) Negative

Q. The mirror formula is given by

a) 1/f = 1/v - 1/u b) 1/f = 1/u + 1/v c) f = u + v d) f = u - v Answer: b) 1/f = 1/u + 1/v

Q. The power of a lens is measured in

a) Diopters b) Watts c) Joules d) Newtons Answer: a) Diopters

Q. The lens formula is given by

a) 1/f = 1/v - 1/u b) 1/f = 1/u + 1/v c) f = u + v d) f = u - v Answer: a) 1/f = 1/v - 1/u

Q. An object placed between F and 2F of a concave lens forms an image

a) At F b) At 2F c) Beyond 2F d) Between F and 2F Answer: c) Beyond 2F

Q. An object placed at the center of curvature of a concave mirror will have an image

a) At the center of curvature b) Beyond the center of curvature c) At the focus d) Between the center of curvature and the focus Answer: a) At the center of curvature

Q. A concave lens always forms an image that is

a) Real and inverted b) Virtual and upright c) Real and upright d) Virtual and inverted Answer: b) Virtual and upright

Q. When an object is placed at infinity in front of a convex lens, the image is formed at

a) The focus b) The center of curvature c) Beyond the center of curvature d) At infinity Answer: a) The focus

Q. The apparent shift in the position of an object when viewed from different angles is called

a) Dispersion b) Diffraction c) Parallax d) Polarization Answer: c) Parallax

Q. Which type of lens is used to correct a person's nearsightedness?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Bifocal lens d) Cylindrical lens Answer: b) Concave lens

Q. The critical angle for a glass-air interface is 42 degrees. If the angle of incidence is 60 degrees, what will be the angle of refraction?

a) 60 degrees b) 30 degrees c) 18 degrees d) 48 degrees Answer: c) 18 degrees

Q. The power of a convex lens is +4D. What is its focal length?

a) 0.25 m b) 0.5 m c) 2 m d) 4 m Answer: a) 0.25 m

Q. A concave mirror with a focal length of -10 cm is used to form an image. If the object is placed 20 cm i n front of the mirror, what will be the position and nature of the image formed?

a) At 10 cm in front of the mirror, real and inverted b) At 20 cm in front of the mirror, virtual and upright c) At 10 cm in front of the mirror, virtual and upright d) At 20 cm in front of the mirror, real and inverted Answer: b) At 20 cm in front of the mirror, virtual and upright

Q. Which instrument is used to measure small angles with great precision?

a) Telescope b) Microscope c) Vernier caliper d) Spherometer Answer: a) Telescope

Q. The phenomenon of splitting of white light into its constituent colors is called

a) Dispersion b) Diffraction c) Scattering d) Polarization Answer: a) Dispersion

Q. A concave lens of focal length -10 cm is placed in contact with a convex lens of focal length +20 cm. What will be the effective focal length of the combination?

a) -30 cm b) -5 cm c) +5 cm d) +30 cm Answer: b) -5 cm

Q. The distance between the principal focus and the optical center of a lens is called its

a) Aperture b) Focal length c) Magnification d) Radius of curvature Answer: b) Focal length

Q. In a simple magnifying glass, the image formed is

a) Real and inverted b) Virtual and upright c) Real and upright d) Virtual and inverted Answer: b) Virtual and upright

Q. What is the power of a lens with a focal length of 0.2 m?

a) +0.2 D b) -0.2 D c) +5 D d) -5 D Answer: c) +5 D

Q. An object is placed 10 cm in front of a convex lens of focal length +20 cm. What will be the nature and position of the image formed?

a) Virtual and upright, at 10 cm behind the lens b) Real and inverted, at 10 cm behind the lens c) Virtual and upright, at 20 cm behind the lens d) Real and inverted, at 20 cm behind the lens Answer: a) Virtual and upright, at 10 cm behind the lens

Q. When a coin is placed at the bottom of a beaker filled with water, it appears to be raised due to

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Dispersion Answer: b) Refraction

Q. The phenomenon of bending of light around an obstacle or through a small opening is called

a) Dispersion b) Diffraction c) Refraction d) Reflection Answer: b) Diffraction

Q. A person wearing a concave lens of power -2D can see objects clearly up to a maximum distance of

a) 0.5 m b) 1.0 m c) 2.0 m d) 5.0 m Answer: c) 2.0 m

Q. The speed of light in a medium with refractive index 1.5 is

a) Faster than in vacuum b) Slower than in vacuum c) Equal to the speed in vacuum d) Zero Answer: b) Slower than in vacuum

Chapter 10 Wave Optics

Q. What is the phenomenon where light waves change direction as they pass through an opening or aroun d an obstacle?

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: a) Diffraction

Q. Which of the following is the color with the longest wavelength?

a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) Violet Answer: a) Red

Q. The bending of light when it passes from one medium to another is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: c) Refraction

Q. The color with the highest frequency is:

a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) Violet Answer: d) Violet

Q. The phenomenon where two or more waves combine to create a new wave is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: d) Interference

Q. Which of the following best describes the Huygens principle?

a) Every point on a wavefront acts as a source of a new wavelet b) The speed of light is constant in all mediums c) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection d) The wavelength of light determines its color Answer: a) Every point on a wavefront acts as a source of a new wavelet

Q. Which of the following colors has the shortest wavelength?

a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) Violet Answer: d) Violet

Q. The amount of bending a wave experiences as it passes through a medium is determined by:

a) Frequency of the wave b) Amplitude of the wave c) Wavelength of the wave d) Speed of the wave Answer: c) Wavelength of the wave

Q. The spreading out of waves as they pass through an opening or around an obstacle is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: a) Diffraction

Q. Which of the following best describes the concept of polarization?

a) The ability of light waves to change direction upon passing through a medium b) The bending of light waves as they pass from one medium to another c) The separation of light waves into different colors d) The orientation of the electric field of a light wave Answer: d) The orientation of the electric field of a light wave

Q. The angle between the incident ray and the normal to a surface is called the:

a) Angle of reflection b) Angle of incidence c) Angle of refraction d) Angle of diffraction Answer: b) Angle of incidence

Q. Which of the following best describes the phenomenon of total internal reflection?

a) The bending of light as it passes through an opening or around an obstacle b) The separation of light into different colors c) The reflection of light waves off a surface d) The reflection of light waves within a medium Answer: d) The reflection of light waves within a medium

Q. The process of light waves bouncing off a surface is called:

a) Diffraction b) Refraction c) Reflection d) Interference Answer: c) Reflection

Q. The change in direction of a wave as it passes from one medium to another is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: c) Refraction

Q. The phenomenon where two waves combine to create a larger amplitude is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: d) Interference

Q. The ability of a medium to slow down or speed up light waves is determined by its:

a) Frequency b) Amplitude c) Wavelength d) Refractive index Answer: d) Refractive index

Q. The angle between the reflected ray and the normal to a surface is called the:

a) Angle of reflection b) Angle of incidence c) Angle of refraction d) Angle of diffraction Answer: a) Angle of reflection

Q. In which direction does light usually bend when it passes from a denser medium to a less dense medi um?

a) Towards the normal b) Away from the normal c) It does not bend d) It depends on the frequency of the light Answer: b) Away from the normal

Q. The phenomenon where light waves combine to cancel each other out is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: d) Interference

Q. The shortest distance between two points on a wave that are in phase is called:

a) Wavelength b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Period Answer: a) Wavelength

Q. Which type of waves have both electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to the direction of wave pro pagation?

a) Transverse waves b) Longitudinal waves c) Mechanical waves d) Electromagnetic waves Answer: a) Transverse waves

Q. The bending of light waves around sharp corners or edges is an example of:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: a) Diffraction

Q. The angle at which light is incident on a surface is 40 degrees. If the angle of refraction is 30 degrees, what is the refractive index of the medium?

a) 0.75 b) 1.33 c) 1.5 d) 2 Answer: b) 1.33

Q. The maximum displacement of a wave from its equilibrium position is called its:

a) Wavelength b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Period Answer: b) Amplitude

Q. The change in frequency or wavelength of waves as a result of motion is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Doppler effect Answer: d) Doppler effect

Q. Which of the following would result in the colors of a rainbow?

a) Refraction and reflection b) Refraction and diffraction c) Reflection and interference d) Diffraction and interference Answer: b) Refraction and diffraction

Q. The ratio of the speed of light in a vacuum to the speed of light in a medium is called the:

a) Frequency b) Amplitude c) Wavelength d) Refractive index Answer: d) Refractive index

Q. The distance between two consecutive points with maximum displacement in a wave is called its:

a) Wavelength b) Amplitude c) Frequency d) Period Answer: a) Wavelength

Q. The process of light waves passing through a narrow slit and spreading out on the other side is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: a) Diffraction

Q. Which of the following best describes constructive interference?

a) The waves combine to create a larger amplitude b) The waves combine to cancel each other out c) The waves change direction as they pass through an opening d) The waves reflect off a surface Answer: a) The waves combine to create a larger amplitude

Q. Which of the following colors has the highest frequency?

a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) Violet Answer: d) Violet

Q. The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately:

a) 300,000 km/s b) 150,000 km/s c) 100,000 km/s d) 50,000 km/s Answer: a) 300,000 km/s

Q. The ability of a medium to transmit light waves is determined by its:

a) Frequency b) Amplitude c) Wavelength d) Transparency Answer: d) Transparency

Q. The process of light waves bouncing off a surface is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: b) Reflection

Q. The process of light waves changing direction as they pass through an opening or around an obstacle is called:

a) Diffraction b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Interference Answer: a) Diffraction

Q. Which of the following best describes destructive interference?

a) The waves combine to create a larger amplitude b) The waves combine to cancel each other out c) The waves change direction as they pass through an opening d) The waves reflect off a surface Answer: b) The waves combine to cancel each other out

Q. Which of the following best describes the concept of superposition?

a) The ability of light waves to change direction upon passing through a medium b) The bending of light waves as they pass from one medium to another c) The separation of light waves into different colors d) The combination of two or more waves to create a new wave Answer: d) The combination of two or more waves to create a new wave

Q. A transparent medium has a refractive index of 1.5. What is the speed of light in this medium?

a) 200,000 km/s b) 150,000 km/s c) 100,000 km/s d) 50,000 km/s Answer: c) 100,000 km/s Chapter 11 Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

Q. The phenomenon of emission of electrons when light of suitable frequency falls on a metal surface is c alled:

a) Electromagnetic radiation b) Photoelectric effect c) Compton scattering d) Quantum mechanics Answer: b) Photoelectric effect

Q. The energy associated with a photon of light is directly proportional to its:

a) Wavelength b) Frequency c) Amplitude d) Velocity Answer: b) Frequency

Q. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons depends on the:

a) Frequency of incident light b) Intensity of incident light c) Wavelength of incident light d) Amplitude of incident light Answer: a) Frequency of incident light

Q. The threshold frequency is the minimum frequency of light required to cause:

a) Photoelectric effect b) Compton scattering c) Pair production d) Photo emission Answer: a) Photoelectric effect

Q. The work function of a metal is defined as the minimum amount of energy required to:

a) Eject a photoelectron b) Absorb a photon c) Reflect a photon d) Scatter a photon Answer: a) Eject a photoelectron

Q. For photoelectric effect to occur, the incident light must have energy:

a) Greater than the work function b) Less than the work function c) Equal to the work function d) Unrelated to the work function Answer: a) Greater than the work function

Q. The photoelectric current is directly proportional to the:

a) Intensity of incident light b) Frequency of incident light c) Wavelength of incident light d) Amplitude of incident light Answer: a) Intensity of incident light

Q. The stopping potential is the minimum potential difference required to:

a) Stop the flow of current in a circuit b) Create a photoelectric effect c) Stop the emission of photons d) Stop the emission of electrons Answer: d) Stop the emission of electrons

Q. The stopping potential depends on the:

a) Frequency of incident light b) Intensity of incident light c) Wavelength of incident light d) Energy of incident light Answer: a) Frequency of incident light

Q. Einstein explained the photoelectric effect by proposing that light is composed of particles called:

a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Photons Answer: d) Photons

Q. The work function of a metal depends on its:

a) Atomic number b) Atomic mass c) Electronic configuration d) Crystalline structure Answer: d) Crystalline structure

Q. The photoelectric effect cannot be explained by:

a) Wave theory of light b) Quantum theory of light c) Particle theory of light d) Interference theory of light Answer: a) Wave theory of light

Q. The momentum of a photon is given by:

a) p = mv b) p = mc c) p = hf d) p = h/λ Answer: d) p = h/λ

Q. According to the wave-particle duality, light exhibits both:

a) Wave nature only b) Particle nature only c) Wave and particle nature d) Neither wave nor particle nature Answer: c) Wave and particle nature

Q. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its:

a) Mass b) Velocity c) Momentum d) Frequency Answer: c) Momentum

Q. The de Broglie wavelength is applicable to particles having:

a) Rest mass only b) Zero mass only c) Non-zero mass and velocity d) Non-zero mass and zero velocity Answer: c) Non-zero mass and velocity

Q. The wavelength associated with an electron moving with high velocity is:

a) Long b) Short c) Variable d) Impossible to determine Answer: b) Short

Q. The concept of wave-particle duality was proposed by:

a) Albert Einstein b) Max Planck c) Louis de Broglie d) Werner Heisenberg Answer: c) Louis de Broglie

Q. The wave nature of matter was experimentally demonstrated by:

a) Max Planck b) Albert Einstein c) Erwin Schrödinger d) Clinton Davisson and Lester Germer Answer: d) Clinton Davisson and Lester Germer

Q. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a proton is equal to the wavelength of an electron if they h ave the same:

a) Energy b) Mass c) Velocity d) Charge Answer: c) Velocity

Q. The Davisson-Germer experiment provided evidence for the:

a) Absorption of photons b) Emission of electrons c) Reflection of electrons d) Diffraction of electrons Answer: d) Diffraction of electrons

Q. The diffraction pattern obtained in the Davisson-Germer experiment proves the wave nature of particle s due to their:

a) Interference b) Reflection c) Scattering d) Polarization Answer: a) Interference

Q. The phenomenon of electron diffraction can be explained by the:

a) Wave theory of light b) Particle theory of light c) Quantum theory of light d) Wave-particle duality of light Answer: d) Wave-particle duality of light

Q. The wave nature of matter is prominent when the size of the object is:

a) Large compared to the de Broglie wavelength b) Small compared to the de Broglie wavelength c) Comparable to the de Broglie wavelength d) Irrelevant to the de Broglie wavelength Answer: b) Small compared to the de Broglie wavelength

Q. The wave-particle duality of matter was confirmed by the:

a) Davisson-Germer experiment b) Millikan oil drop experiment c) Rutherford gold foil experiment d) Thomson cathode ray experiment Answer: a) Davisson-Germer experiment

Q. In the photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy of emitted electrons can be increased by increasing the:

a) Intensity of incident light b) Frequency of incident light c) Wavelength of incident light d) Work function of the material Answer: b) Frequency of incident light

Q. The photoelectric effect occurs only if the incident light has energy greater than the:

a) Frequency of incident light b) Work function of the material c) Velocity of light d) Intensity of incident light Answer: b) Work function of the material

Q. A photocell is used to convert light energy into:

a) Electrical energy b) Mechanical energy c) Thermal energy d) Potential energy Answer: a) Electrical energy

Q. The graph between the stopping potential and frequency of incident light is:

a) Linear with zero slope b) Linear with positive slope c) Linear with negative slope d) Non-linear Answer: c) Linear with negative slope

Q. Which of the following metals exhibits the highest photoelectric effect?

a) Silver b) Aluminum c) Copper d) Gold Answer: a) Silver

Q. The kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted in the photoelectric effect is proportional to the:

a) Frequency of incident light b) Intensity of incident light c) Wavelength of incident light d) Amplitude of incident light Answer: a) Frequency of incident light

Q. The stopping potential required to stop the emission of electrons is:

a) Independent of the intensity of light b) Inversely proportional to the intensity of light c) Proportional to the intensity of light d) Unrelated to the intensity of light Answer: a) Independent of the intensity of light

Q. Which of the following quantities is conserved in photoelectric effect?

a) Mass b) Momentum c) Energy d) Charge Answer: c) Energy

Q. The work function of a metal depends on the:

a) Frequency of incident light b) Intensity of incident light c) Composition of the metal d) Temperature of the metal Answer: c) Composition of the metal

Q. The photoelectric effect is not observed for light of wavelength longer than the:

a) Threshold wavelength b) De Broglie wavelength c) Compton wavelength d) Wien's wavelength Answer: a) Threshold wavelength

Q. The energy of a photon is directly proportional to its:

a) Frequency b) Wavelength c) Velocity d) Momentum Answer: a) Frequency

Q. Which of the following statements is not true about the photoelectric effect?

a) It is instantaneous b) It depends on the intensity of light c) It depends on the frequency of light d) The energy of emitted electrons is quantized Answer: b) It depends on the intensity of light

Q. The kinetic energy of a photoelectron is given by the equation:

a) KE = hf b) KE = hf - W c) KE = mv^2/2 d) KE = mc^2 Answer: b) KE = hf - W

Q. The ratio of the charge to the mass of an electron is constant and is denoted by:

a) h b) c c) q d) e/m Answer: d) e/m

Chapter 12 Atoms

Q. Which of the following is the smallest constituent of matter?

a) Quark b) Nucleus c) Proton d) Atom Answer: d) Atom

Q. Who discovered the electron?

a) J.J. Thomson b) Ernest Rutherford c) John Dalton d) Niels Bohr Answer: a) J.J. Thomson

Q. What is the charge of an electron?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) None of the above Answer: b) Negative

Q. Neutrons possess which charge?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) None of the above Answer: c) Neutral

Q. The atomic number of an atom represents the number of which particles?

a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Nucleons Answer: b) Protons

Q. Who formulated the modern atomic theory?

a) Albert Einstein b) Isaac Newton c) Robert Oppenheimer d) John Dalton Answer: d) John Dalton

Q. The mass number of an atom is determined by the total number of which particles?

a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Nucleons Answer: d) Nucleons

Q. Which of the following is a subatomic particle?

a) Water molecule b) Sodium atom c) Oxygen ion d) Neutron Answer: d) Neutron

Q. The atomic mass of an atom is mainly determined by the number of which particles?

a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Nucleons Answer: d) Nucleons

Q. The nucleus of an atom is mainly composed of which particles?

a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Photons Answer: c) Neutrons

Q. Who proposed the planetary model of the atom?

a) Albert Einstein b) Isaac Newton c) Erwin Schrödinger d) Niels Bohr Answer: d) Niels Bohr

Q. The Bohr model of the atom states that electrons exist in specific energy levels or __________.

a) Shells b) Subshells c) Orbitals d) Nuclei Answer: a) Shells

Q. Which of the following is not a postulate of the Bohr model?

a) Electrons occupy only certain orbits around the nucleus. b) Electrons emit or absorb energy when they transition between orbits. c) Electrons can exist in between energy levels. d) The energy of an electron in an orbit is quantized. Answer: c) Electrons can exist in between energy levels.

Q. The quantum mechanical model of the atom was proposed by __________.

a) Isaac Newton b) Erwin Schrödinger c) J.J. Thomson d) John Dalton Answer: b) Erwin Schrödinger

Q. Which of the following statements is true regarding the quantum mechanical model?

a) Electrons exist in fixed orbits around the nucleus. b) Electrons have both particle-like and wave-like properties. c) Electrons can have any amount of energy. d) Electrons are always found within the nucleus. Answer: b) Electrons have both particle-like and wave-like properties.

Q. The electronic configuration of an atom is determined by __________.

a) The atomic mass b) The atomic number c) The atomic radius d) The atomic weight Answer: b) The atomic number

Q. How many electrons can be accommodated in the first electron shell of an atom?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 8 Answer: b) 2

Q. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the d subshell?

a) 2 b) 6 c) 10 d) 14 Answer: c) 10

Q. The valence electrons of an atom are located in the __________.

a) Innermost shell b) Outermost shell c) Nucleus d) Subshell Answer: b) Outermost shell

Q. The chemical properties of an atom are mainly determined by its __________.

a) Atomic number b) Atomic mass c) Atomic radius d) Atomic weight Answer: a) Atomic number

Q. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity value?

a) Hydrogen b) Carbon c) Oxygen d) Fluorine Answer: d) Fluorine

Q. Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization energy?

a) Lithium b) Oxygen c) Iron d) Neon Answer: d) Neon

Q. The atomic radius generally __________ across a period and __________ down a group.

a) Increases, increases b) Increases, decreases c) Decreases, increases d) Decreases, decreases Answer: c) Decreases, increases

Q. An ion is formed when an atom __________ or __________ electrons.

a) Gains, loses b) Gains, gains c) Loses, gains d) Loses, loses Answer: a) Gains, loses

Q. The process of gaining electrons is called __________.

a) Ionization b) Excitation c) Electron affinity d) Electronegativity Answer: c) Electron affinity

Q. What is the charge of a cation?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) None of the above Answer: a) Positive

Q. What is the charge of an anion?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) None of the above Answer: b) Negative

Q. What is the total charge of an atom?

a) +1 b) -1 c) 0 d) None of the above Answer: c) 0

Q. The process of removing an electron from an atom is called __________.

a) Ionization b) Excitation c) Electron affinity d) Electronegativity Answer: a) Ionization

Q. The energy required to remove an electron from an atom is known as __________.

a) Ionization energy b) Excitation energy c) Electron affinity d) Electronegativity Answer: a) Ionization energy

Q. What is the ionization energy for noble gases?

a) Low b) High c) Medium d) Variable Answer: b) High

Q. Which of the following atoms has the highest electronegativity value?

a) Sodium b) Silicon c) Nitrogen d) Fluorine Answer: d) Fluorine

Q. What is the octet rule? a) Atoms tend to lose or gain electrons to achieve a stable electron configuration.

b) Atoms tend to combine to form ions. c) Atoms tend to combine in fixed ratios to form compounds. d) Atoms tend to have eight valence electrons in their outermost shell. Answer: d) Atoms tend to have eight valence electrons in their outermost shell.

Q. Which of the following is an example of an ionic bond?

a) H2O b) CO2 c) NaCl d) O3 Answer: c) NaCl

Q. Which of the following is an example of a covalent bond?

a) NaF b) CH4 c) KCl d) CaO Answer: b) CH4

Q. The Lewis dot structure represents the __________.

a) Electron configuration of an atom b) Total number of electrons in an atom c) Distribution of valence electrons in an atom d) Orbital shape of an atom Answer: c) Distribution of valence electrons in an atom

Q. What is the molecular geometry of methane (CH4)?

a) Linear b) Trigonal planar c) Tetrahedral d) Octahedral Answer: c) Tetrahedral

Q. What is the molecular geometry of ammonia (NH3)?

a) Linear b) Trigonal planar c) Tetrahedral d) Trigonal pyramidal Answer: d) Trigonal pyramidal

Q. What is the molecular geometry of water (H2O)?

a) Linear b) Trigonal planar c) Tetrahedral d) Bent Answer: d) Bent

Q. What is the molecular geometry of carbon dioxide (CO2)?

a) Linear b) Trigonal planar c) Tetrahedral d) Bent Answer: a) Linear

Q. What is the molecular geometry of methane?

a) Linear b) Planar c) Tetrahedral d) Bent Answer: c) Tetrahedral

Q. Which of the following molecules exhibits resonance?

a) CO2 b) NH3 c) O2 d) H2O Answer: a) CO2

Q. What is the hybridization of the carbon atom in methane (CH4)?

a) sp b) sp2 c) sp3 d) sp3d Answer: c) sp3

Chapter 13 Nuclei

Q. What is the smallest unit in an atom?

a) Electron b) Proton c) Neutron d) Nucleus Answer: d) Nucleus

Q. The charge of a proton is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) Both positive and negative Answer: a) Positive

Q. The charge of a neutron is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) Both positive and negative Answer: c) Neutral

Q. The charge of an electron is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) Both positive and negative Answer: b) Negative

Q. The number of protons in an atom determines its:

a) Proton number b) Neutron number c) Atomic mass d) Atomic number Answer: d) Atomic number

Q. What is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in an atom?

a) Atomic number b) Atomic mass c) Neutron number d) Proton number Answer: b) Atomic mass

Q. What is the unit used to measure atomic mass?

a) Dalton b) Kilogram c) Ampere d) Watt Answer: a) Dalton

Q. Isotopes of an element have the same number of:

a) Protons b) Neutrons c) Electrons d) Protons and neutrons Answer: a) Protons

Q. Radioactive decay is a spontaneous process that involves the emission of:

a) Alpha particles b) Beta particles c) Gamma rays d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the half-life of a radioactive substance?

a) The time taken for half of the radioactive atoms to decay b) The time taken for all the radioactive atoms to decay c) The time taken for stable atoms to form d) The time taken for radioactive decay to start Answer: a) The time taken for half of the radioactive atoms to decay

Q. Which of the following is not a type of radioactive decay?

a) Alpha decay b) Beta decay c) Gamma decay d) Omega decay Answer: d) Omega decay

Q. The binding energy of a nucleus is the energy required to:

a) Break a nucleus into protons and neutrons b) Hold a nucleus together c) Create a nucleus from scratch d) None of the above Answer: a) Break a nucleus into protons and neutrons

Q. The stability of a nucleus depends on the balance between:

a) Proton-neutron ratio b) Neutron-electron ratio c) Proton-electron ratio d) None of the above Answer: a) Proton-neutron ratio

Q. What is the maximum number of electrons that a p subshell can hold?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8 Answer: c) 6

Q. If an atom gains an electron, it becomes:

a) Positively charged b) Negatively charged c) Neutral d) Nucleus Answer: b) Negatively charged

Q. What is the charge on an alpha particle?

a) +2e b) +1e c) -1e d) -2e Answer: a) +2e

Q. Which type of radiation has the highest penetrating power?

a) Alpha particles b) Beta particles c) Gamma rays d) They all have the same penetrating power Answer: c) Gamma rays

Q. Which of the following particles has the greatest mass?

a) Proton b) Neutron c) Electron d) They all have the same mass Answer: b) Neutron

Q. The decay constant of a radioactive substance determines its:

a) Half-life b) Atomic mass c) Atomic number d) Binding energy Answer: a) Half-life

Q. The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of:

a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Nucleons Answer: b) Protons

Q. Which of the following elements is not radioactive?

a) Uranium b) Plutonium c) Oxygen d) Americium Answer: c) Oxygen

Q. Which of the following particles has the least mass?

a) Proton b) Neutron c) Electron d) They all have the same mass Answer: c) Electron

Q. The nucleus of an atom is made up of:

a) Electrons and neutrons b) Protons and neutrons c) Electrons and protons d) Electrons, protons, and neutrons Answer: b) Protons and neutrons

Q. Which of the following is used to measure the activity of a radioactive substance?

a) Curie b) Pascal c) Joule d) Coulomb Answer: a) Curie

Q. The energy released during nuclear fusion comes from:

a) The conversion of mass into energy b) The collision of nuclei c) The rearrangement of electrons d) None of the above Answer: a) The conversion of mass into energy

Q. The atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as:

a) 1/12th the mass of a carbon-12 atom b) 1/10th the mass of a hydrogen atom c) The mass of a proton d) The mass of a neutron Answer: a) 1/12th the mass of a carbon-12 atom

Q. What happens to the charge and mass of an atom when it undergoes alpha decay?

a) Charge decreases and mass increases b) Charge increases and mass decreases c) Charge and mass remain the same d) Charge and mass both decrease Answer: b) Charge increases and mass decreases

Q. What is the principle of radioactive dating based on?

a) Radioactive decay b) Nuclear fusion c) Nuclear fission d) Ionization Answer: a) Radioactive decay

Q. What is the approximate radius of the nucleus compared to the overall size of the atom?

a) 1/1000th b) 1/100th c) 1/10th d) 1/1,000,000th Answer: a) 1/1000th

Q. How many protons and neutrons are present in a helium nucleus?

a) 1 proton and 1 neutron b) 2 protons and 1 neutron c) 1 proton and 2 neutrons d) 2 protons and 2 neutrons Answer: d) 2 protons and 2 neutrons

Q. Which of the following is a characteristic of gamma rays?

a) Positive charge b) Negative charge c) No charge d) Both positive and negative charge Answer: c) No charge

Q. Nuclear power plants generate electricity through the process of:

a) Nuclear fusion b) Nuclear fission c) Alpha decay d) Beta decay Answer: b) Nuclear fission

Q. What is the process of converting a mass into energy called?

a) Nuclear fusion b) Nuclear fission c) Mass defect d) E=mc² Answer: d) E=mc²

Q. Which of the following is used to detect alpha particles?

a) Bubble chamber b) Cloud chamber c) Geiger-Muller counter d) Scintillation detector Answer: b) Cloud chamber

Q. Which of the following is a cause of radioactivity?

a) Internal energy b) External energy c) Nuclear energy d) Both internal and external energy Answer: c) Nuclear energy

Q. The number of neutrons in an atom is:

a) Atomic number b) Atomic mass c) Neutron number d) Proton number Answer: c) Neutron number

Q. The process of combining small atomic nuclei to form a larger nucleus is called:

a) Nuclear fission b) Nuclear fusion c) Alpha decay d) Beta decay Answer: b) Nuclear fusion

Q. Which of the following is a characteristic of alpha particles?

a) High penetrating power b) Positive charge c) Low ionizing power d) Short half-life Answer: b) Positive charge

Q. Which of the following is NOT a type of radioactive decay?

a) Alpha decay b) Beta decay c) Gamma decay d) Delta decay Answer: d) Delta decay

Q. What happens to the mass of a nucleus after it undergoes beta decay?

a) Mass increases b) Mass decreases c) Mass remains the same d) No change in mass Answer: c) Mass remains the same

Q. Which of the following particles has the smallest size?

a) Proton b) Neutron c) Electron d) They all have the same size Answer: c) Electron

Q. Which of the following is a cause of artificial radioactivity?

a) Natural radioactive decay b) Nuclear reactions c) Cosmic rays d) Sunlight Answer: b) Nuclear reactions

Chapter 14 Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits

Q. What is the most commonly used semiconductor material?

a) Silicon b) Copper c) Aluminum d) Gold Answer: a) Silicon

Q. What is the basic unit of a semiconductor device?

a) Transistor b) Diode c) Integrated circuit d) Microprocessor Answer: b) Diode

Q. The process of adding impurities to a semiconductor material is called:

a) Doping b) Isolation c) Amplification d) Integration Answer: a) Doping

Q. Which impurity is added to a semiconductor to create an N-type material?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Arsenic d) Indium Answer: b) Phosphorus

Q. Which impurity is added to a semiconductor to create a P-type material?

a) Boron b) Phosphorus c) Arsenic d) Indium Answer: a) Boron

Q. A diode allows current to flow in which direction?

a) One direction only b) Both directions c) Only in the presence of light d) None of the above Answer: a) One direction only

Q. Which of the following is true about a P-N junction?

a) It acts as a barrier to current flow b) It allows current to flow freely in both directions c) It only allows current to flow in the presence of light d) It does not affect the flow of current Answer: a) It acts as a barrier to current flow

Q. A transistor is made up of how many layers of semiconductor material?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c) 3

Q. What are the three layers of a transistor called?

a) Base, collector, and emitter b) Anode, cathode, and gate c) Source, drain, and gate d) Base, emitter, and collector Answer: d) Base, emitter, and collector

Q. A transistor can either be in which two states?

a) On and off b) Open and closed c) High and low d) N-type and P-type Answer: a) On and off

Q. What is the purpose of an amplifier circuit?

a) To increase the voltage or current of a signal b) To decrease the voltage or current of a signal c) To convert AC to DC d) To generate a continuous waveform Answer: a) To increase the voltage or current of a signal

Q. Which type of circuit is commonly used to amplify signals in audio devices?

a) Diode circuit b) Integrated circuit c) Transistor circuit d) Microprocessor circuit Answer: c) Transistor circuit

Q. What is the minimum number of diodes required to create a rectifier circuit?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b) 2

Q. A rectifier circuit is used to convert:

a) AC to DC b) DC to AC c) AC to AC d) DC to DC Answer: a) AC to DC

Q. What is the purpose of a capacitor in a rectifier circuit?

a) To store energy b) To smooth out the output voltage c) To amplify the signal d) To provide resistance Answer: b) To smooth out the output voltage

Q. Which electronic device is commonly used to control the flow of electric current?

a) Capacitor b) Diode c) Resistor d) Transistor Answer: d) Transistor

Q. What is the function of a capacitor in an electronic circuit?

a) To store energy b) To control the flow of current c) To control the flow of voltage d) To provide resistance Answer: a) To store energy

Q. An integrated circuit consists of:

a) Diodes only b) Transistors only c) Capacitors only d) Multiple components on a single chip Answer: d) Multiple components on a single chip

Q. Which type of logic gate produces a true output if and only if all of its inputs are true?

a) AND gate b) OR gate c) NOT gate d) XOR gate Answer: a) AND gate

Q. Which logic gate produces a true output if and only if one of its inputs is true?

a) AND gate b) OR gate c) NOT gate d) XOR gate Answer: d) XOR gate

Q. What is the purpose of a resistor in an electronic circuit?

a) To store energy b) To control the flow of current c) To control the flow of voltage d) To amplify the signal Answer: b) To control the flow of current

Q. Which material has the highest resistance?

a) Copper b) Silver c) Gold d) Iron Answer: d) Iron

Q. What is the formula to calculate the resistance of a resistor?

a) R = V/I b) R = I/V c) R = P/V d) R = V/P Answer: a) R = V/I

Q. The resistance of a conductor depends on which two factors?

a) Length and temperature b) Length and area c) Temperature and area d) Temperature and resistance Answer: b) Length and area

Q. How does the resistance of a conductor change with an increase in temperature?

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) Depends on the material Answer: a) Increases

Q. What is the unit of resistance?

a) Volt b) Ampere c) Ohm d) Watt Answer: c) Ohm

Q. The potential difference across a resistor is measured in which unit?

a) Volt b) Ampere c) Ohm d) Watt Answer: a) Volt

Q. What is the function of a thermistor?

a) To measure temperature b) To regulate current flow c) To store electrical energy d) To amplify signals Answer: a) To measure temperature

Q. What is the function of a light-dependent resistor (LDR)?

a) To measure light intensity b) To regulate current flow c) To store electrical energy d) To amplify signals Answer: a) To measure light intensity

Q. Which component is used to increase the amplitude of an electrical signal?

a) Amplifier b) Rectifier c) Resistor d) Capacitor Answer: a) Amplifier

Q. Which component is commonly used to protect an electronic circuit from excessive current?

a) Fuse b) Diode c) Transistor d) Capacitor Answer: a) Fuse

Q. What is the function of a transformer in an electronic circuit?

a) To convert AC to DC b) To control the flow of current c) To amplify signals d) To change the voltage level Answer: d) To change the voltage level

Q. Which property of a semiconductor allows it to control the flow of current?

a) Conductivity b) Resistance c) Capacitance d) Bandgap Answer: d) Bandgap

Q. A material with a large bandgap is:

a) Insulating b) Conducting c) Superconducting d) None of the above Answer: a) Insulating

Q. What is the purpose of a zener diode?

a) To rectify AC voltage b) To regulate DC voltage c) To amplify signals d) To convert light into electrical energy Answer: b) To regulate DC voltage

Q. A full-wave rectifier circuit produces a _________ output.

a) Pulsating DC b) AC c) Square wave d) Steady DC Answer: d) Steady DC

Q. Which type of circuit commonly uses a voltage divider?

a) Amplifier b) Oscillator c) Rectifier d) Transistor biasing Answer: d) Transistor biasing

Q. What is the function of a transistor in an amplifier circuit?

a) To convert AC to DC b) To control the flow of current c) To amplify signals d) To generate a continuous waveform Answer: c) To amplify signals

Q. Which component is commonly used to store and discharge electrical energy?

a) Capacitor b) Resistor c) Diode d) Transistor Answer: a) Capacitor

Q. How does a capacitor affect the flow of AC current?

a) Blocks it completely b) Allows it to flow freely c) Stores and releases it in a cyclic manner d) Converts it into DC Answer: c) Stores and releases it in a cyclic manner

Q. What is the purpose of a diode in a rectifier circuit?

a) To convert AC to DC b) To amplify the signal c) To control the flow of current d) To store electrical energy Answer: a) To convert AC to DC

Q. Which component is commonly used to block the flow of direct current in an AC circuit?

a) Resistor b) Capacitor c) Inductor d) Transistor Answer: c) Inductor

Chapter 1 Reproduction in Organisms

Q. Which of the following statements is true for asexual reproduction?

A) It involves the fusion of gametes. B) It leads to increased genetic diversity. C) Offspring are genetically identical to the parent. D) It occurs only in plants. Answer: C) Offspring are genetically identical to the parent.

Q. Which of the following is an example of a vegetative method of asexual reproduction?

A) Binary fission B) Budding C) Fragmentation D) Parthenogenesis Answer: B) Budding

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is known as:

A) Pollination B) Double fertilization C) Ovulation D) Fertilization Answer: A) Pollination

Q. Which of the following is a male reproductive structure in flowering plants?

A) Stamen B) Carpel C) Anther D) Ovary Answer: A) Stamen

Q. The fusion of male and female gametes is known as:

A) Fertilization B) Pollination C) Germination D) Dispersal Answer: A) Fertilization

Q. In humans, fertilization occurs in the:

A) Uterus B) Ovary C) Fallopian tube D) Vagina Answer: C) Fallopian tube

Q. Which of the following structures in the male reproductive system produces testosterone?

A) Penis B) Vas deferens C) Testes D) Urethra Answer: C) Testes

Q. Which of the following is responsible for the release of an egg from the ovary in females?

A) FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone) B) LH (Luteinizing hormone) C) Estrogen D) Progesterone Answer: B) LH (Luteinizing hormone)

Q. The release of mature eggs from the ovary is known as:

A) Menstruation B) Ovulation C) Fertilization D) Implantation Answer: B) Ovulation

Q. Which of the following is a natural method of contraception?

A) Condoms B) Oral contraceptive pills C) Tubectomy D) Calendar method Answer: D) Calendar method

Q. Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is caused by bacteria?

A) Genital herpes B) HIV/AIDS C) Syphilis D) Hepatitis B Answer: C) Syphilis

Q. Which of the following is true for external fertilization?

A) It occurs inside the female body. B) Offspring have low survival rates. C) It requires the presence of water. D) It is a characteristic of mammals. Answer: C) It requires the presence of water.

Q. In birds, the fertilized egg develops into a young one inside the:

A) Uterus B) Ovary C) Shell D) Crop Answer: C) Shell

Q. The fusion of gametes in plants leads to the formation of a:

A) Seed B) Zygote C) Embryo D) Flower Answer: B) Zygote

Q. Which of the following is a method of artificial vegetative propagation?

A) Budding B) Parthenogenesis C) Spore formation D) Grafting Answer: D) Grafting

Q. The process of seed formation without fertilization is known as:

A) Parthenocarpy B) Parthenogenesis C) Budding D) Binary fission Answer: A) Parthenocarpy

Q. Pollen grains are produced in the:

A) Anther B) Filament C) Stigma D) Ovary Answer: A) Anther

Q. Which of the following is a method of asexual reproduction in non-flowering plants?

A) Fragmentation B) Double fertilization C) Spore formation D) Germination Answer: C) Spore formation

Q. The process of growth and development of a seed into a new plant is called:

A) Germination B) Fertilization C) Pollination D) Pollen tube growth Answer: A) Germination

Q. In humans, the menstrual cycle is controlled by the secretion of hormones by the:

A) Pituitary gland B) Ovaries C) Uterus D) Hypothalamus Answer: A) Pituitary gland

Q. Which of the following structures in the ovary releases estrogen?

A) Graafian follicle B) Corpus luteum C) Ovum D) Endometrium Answer: A) Graafian follicle

Q. Which of the following is a method of artificial insemination?

A) Surrogacy B) In vitro fertilization C) IUI (Intrauterine insemination) D) Menstrual cycle monitoring Answer: C) IUI (Intrauterine insemination)

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is called:

A) Self-pollination B) Cross-pollination C) Double fertilization D) Ovulation Answer: A) Self-pollination

Q. Which of the following is a form of internal fertilization?

A) Frog laying eggs in water B) Fish releasing eggs and sperm in water simultaneously C) Birds laying eggs D) Mammals giving birth to live young Answer: D) Mammals giving birth to live young

Q. The fusion of sperm and egg to form a zygote occurs in the:

A) Ovary B) Oviduct C) Uterus D) Vagina Answer: B) Oviduct

Q. The primary sex organs in males are the:

A) Testes B) Ovaries C) Uterus D) Fallopian tubes Answer: A) Testes

Q. The inner lining of the uterus is called the:

A) Vagina B) Endometrium C) Cervix D) Ovum Answer: B) Endometrium

Q. Which of the following is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males ?

A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Testosterone D) FSH Answer: C) Testosterone

Q. The process of shedding the lining of the uterus is known as:

A) Fertilization B) Ovulation C) Menstruation D) Gestation Answer: C) Menstruation

Q. Which of the following is an example of a viviparous animal?

A) Fish B) Frog C) Kangaroo D) Turtle Answer: C) Kangaroo

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is known as:

A) Autogamy B) Cleistogamy C) Geitonogamy D) Xenogamy Answer: C) Geitonogamy

Q. Which of the following is a sexually transmitted infection caused by a virus?

A) Chlamydia B) Gonorrhea C) Herpes D) Syphilis Answer: C) Herpes

Q. Fungal spores are an example of which type of reproduction?

A) Asexual reproduction B) Binary fission C) Sexual reproduction D) Parthenogenesis Answer: A) Asexual reproduction

Q. Which of the following structures in the flower contains the female reproductive organs?

A) Pistil B) Stamen C) Petal D) Sepal Answer: A) Pistil

Q. The process of the development of a diploid zygote into a multicellular diploid individual is known as:

A) Asexual reproduction B) Sexual reproduction C) Embryogenesis D) Gametogenesis Answer: C) Embryogenesis

Q. Which of the following structures in the male reproductive system is responsible for the storage and m aturation of sperm?

A) Testes B) Epididymis C) Vas deferens D) Urethra Answer: B) Epididymis

Q. Which of the following methods involve the transfer of a small piece of tissue from a plant onto anothe r plant?

A) Budding B) Grafting C) Layering D) Fragmentation Answer: B) Grafting

Q. Which of the following is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in femal es?

A) Estrogen B) Progesterone C) Testosterone D) FSH Answer: A) Estrogen

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a different flower on a different plant is c alled:

A) Autogamy B) Cleistogamy C) Geitonogamy D) Xenogamy Answer: D) Xenogamy

Q. Which of the following is a method of artificial contraception for males?

A) Condoms B) Copper-T C) Oral contraceptive pills D) Tubectomy Answer: A) Condoms

Q. The fusion of the male and female gametes in flowering plants leads to the formation of a:

A) Pollen tube B) Embryo sac C) Zygote D) Sporophyte Answer: C) Zygote

Q. In humans, the release of an egg from the ovary is triggered by a surge in the levels of:

A) FSH B) LH C) Estrogen D) Progesterone Answer: B) LH

Q. The structure that connects the ovary to the uterus in humans is called the:

A) Cervix B) Fallopian tube C) Oviduct D) Uterine wall Answer: C) Oviduct

Q. Which of the following is a method of contraception that involves surgical sterilization of males?

A) Oral contraceptive pills B) Vasectomy C) Tubectomy D) IUD (Intrauterine device) Answer: B) Vasectomy

Q. Which of the following is a method of artificial propagation in fish?

A) Cuttings B) Layering C) Hatchery D) Grafting Answer: C) Hatchery

Q. The process of the fusion of two genetically different individuals to form offspring is known as:

A) Sexual reproduction B) Asexual reproduction C) Binary fission D) Fragmentation Answer: A) Sexual reproduction

Q. In plants, the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is called:

A) Autogamy B) Cleistogamy C) Geitonogamy D) Trematogamy Answer: B) Cleistogamy

Q. Which of the following is a method of contraception that involves the use of hormones to prevent preg nancy?

A) Barrier methods B) Surgical methods C) Natural methods D) Hormonal methods Answer: D) Hormonal methods

Q. Which of the following is a method of vegetative propagation in plants?

A) Spore formation B) Seed formation C) Tissue culture D) Fertilization Answer: C) Tissue culture

Q. The process of the growth and development of a multicellular diploid organism into a sexually mature adult is called:

A) Regeneration B) Metamorphosis C) Reproduction D) Fertilization Answer: B) Metamorphosis

Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Q. Which structure in plants carries the male gametes?

a) Anther b) Filament c) Ovary d) Stigma Answer: a) Anther

Q. Which of the following is not a part of the female reproductive organ in a flower?

a) Carpel b) Stigma c) Style d) Stamen Answer: d) Stamen

Q. What is the process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma called?

a) Fertilization b) Pollination c) Germination d) Imbibition Answer: b) Pollination

Q. What is the male gametophyte in plants called?

a) Embryo b) Pollen c) Zygote d) Ovule Answer: b) Pollen

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower of the same s pecies is known as:

a) Self-pollination b) Cross-pollination c) Vegetative propagation d) Pollenation Answer: b) Cross-pollination

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is known as:

a) Self-pollination b) Cross-pollination c) Vegetative propagation d) Pollenation Answer: a) Self-pollination

Q. The union of male and female gametes is known as:

a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Ovulation Answer: b) Fertilization

Q. What is the correct sequence of events during double fertilization?

a) Pollination, fertilization, germination b) Germination, pollination, fertilization c) Fertilization, pollination, germination d) Pollination, germination, fertilization Answer: a) Pollination, fertilization, germination

Q. In plants, the process of fusion of male and female gametes leads to the formation of:

a) Seed b) Fruit c) Embryo d) Zygote Answer: a) Seed

Q. In flowering plants, the female gametophyte is commonly referred to as the:

a) Embryo b) Ovule c) Pollen d) Endosperm Answer: b) Ovule

Q. Which part of a carpel contains the female gametes?

a) Ovary b) Style c) Stigma d) Filament Answer: a) Ovary

Q. What is the function of the endosperm in flowering plants?

a) Protection b) Nutrient storage c) Pollen production d) Photosynthesis Answer: b) Nutrient storage

Q. What is the process of seed formation without fertilization called?

a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Apomixis d) Germination Answer: c) Apomixis

Q. Which of the following is a method of artificial vegetative propagation in plants?

a) Grafting b) Pollination c) Fertilization d) Double fertilization Answer: a) Grafting

Q. Which of the following is a method of sexual reproduction in flowering plants other than pollination?

a) Vegetative propagation b) Apomixis c) Double fertilization d) Fertilization Answer: b) Apomixis

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the same flower is an example of:

a) Autogamy b) Geitonogamy c) Xenogamy d) Apomixis Answer: a) Autogamy

Q. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of self-pollination?

a) High genetic variation b) Low genetic variation c) No genetic variation d) More than one correct option Answer: c) No genetic variation

Q. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of cross-pollination?

a) High genetic variation b) Low genetic variation c) No genetic variation d) More than one correct option Answer: a) High genetic variation

Q. Which part of the flower develops into a fruit after fertilization?

a) Ovary b) Stigma c) Anther d) Filament Answer: a) Ovary

Q. What is the process of fruit and seed development called after fertilization?

a) Germination b) Fertilization c) Double fertilization d) Embryogenesis Answer: d) Embryogenesis

Q. Which plant hormone is responsible for the growth and enlargement of cells during pollination?

a) Auxin b) Gibberellin c) Cytokinin d) Abscisic acid Answer: b) Gibberellin

Q. Which of the following structures are found within the ovule of a flowering plant?

a) Embryo sac b) Antipodal cells c) Synergids d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from one flower to another flower on a different plant is called:

a) Monogamy b) Autogamy c) Geitonogamy d) Xenogamy Answer: d) Xenogamy

Q. In flowering plants, double fertilization involves the fusion of:

a) Two male gametes with two polar nuclei b) One male gamete with two polar nuclei c) Two male gametes with an egg cell and a polar nucleus d) One male gamete with one polar nucleus Answer: c) Two male gametes with an egg cell and a polar nucleus

Q. The primary end product of double fertilization in flowering plants is:

a) Fruit b) Zygote c) Seed d) Embryo sac Answer: c) Seed

Q. In which part of the flower does the process of pollination occur?

a) Anther b) Filament c) Stigma d) Ovary Answer: c) Stigma

Q. What is the process of the growth of a pollen tube called?

a) Germination b) Fertilization c) Double fertilization d) Embryogenesis Answer: a) Germination

Q. In flowering plants, the embryo sac is embedded in the:

a) Stigma b) Ovule c) Anther d) Style Answer: b) Ovule

Q. Which part of the flower produces the male gametes?

a) Anther b) Filament c) Stigma d) Ovary Answer: a) Anther

Q. What is the function of pollen tube in flowering plants?

a) Production of pollen grains b) Fertilization of the ovule c) Formation of the embryo sac d) Protection of the ovule Answer: b) Fertilization of the ovule

Q. Which of the following is an example of a unisexual flower?

a) Rose b) Lily c) Sunflower d) Apple Answer: c) Sunflower (in some species)

Q. The fusion of a male gamete with the egg cell results in the formation of the:

a) Seed b) Fruit c) Embryo d) Zygote Answer: d) Zygote

Q. The process of transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma within the same flower is called:

a) Self-pollination b) Cross-pollination c) Vegetative propagation d) Apomixis Answer: a) Self-pollination

Q. Which of the following is not a reproductive part of a flower?

a) Petal b) Stamen c) Carpels d) Sepal Answer: a) Petal

Q. What is the function of the pollen tube in flowering plants?

a) Nutrient absorption b) Protection of the ovule c) Transport of male gametes to the ovule d) Release of hormones for growth Answer: c) Transport of male gametes to the ovule

Q. Which of the following is not a method of natural vegetative propagation in plants?

a) Layering b) Budding c) Grafting d) Rhizomes Answer: c) Grafting

Q. Which part of the stamen produces and stores pollen grains?

a) Anther b) Filament c) Stigma d) Style Answer: a) Anther

Q. What is the process of the growth of a pollen tube called?

a) Germination b) Fertilization c) Double fertilization d) Embryogenesis Answer: a) Germination

Q. What is the correct sequence of floral whorls from the outermost to the innermost in a complete flower ?

a) Sepal, petal, stamen, carpel b) Petal, sepal, carpel, stamen c) Stamen, carpel, sepal, petal d) Sepal, stamen, carpel, petal Answer: a) Sepal, petal, stamen, carpel

Q. Which of the following is not a method of artificial vegetative propagation?

a) Layering b) Grafting c) Cutting d) Pollination Answer: d) Pollination

Q. In flowering plants, fertilization occurs in the:

a) Anther b) Ovule c) Carpel d) Stigma Answer: b) Ovule

Q. What is the process of the growth of a pollen tube called?

a) Germination b) Fertilization c) Double fertilization d) Embryogenesis Answer: a) Germination

Q. The female reproductive organ in a flower is called the:

a) Anther b) Filament c) Carpel d) Stigma Answer: c) Carpel

Q. What is the function of the stigma in flowering plants?

a) Production of pollen grains b) Protection of the ovule c) Fertilization of the ovule d) Reception of pollen grains Answer: d) Reception of pollen grains

Q. What is the term for the fusion of two gametes to form a zygote?

a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Pollenation Answer: b) Fertilization

Q. How many sperm cells are involved in double fertilization in flowering plants?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Answer: b) Two

Q. Which of the following is an example of a bisexual flower?

a) Rose b) Lily c) Sunflower d) Papaya Answer: a) Rose

Q. How many nuclei are found in a mature male gametophyte (pollen grain) of angiosperms?

a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four Answer: c) Three

Q. What is the process by which the ovule develops into a seed after fertilization?

a) Germination b) Fertilization c) Maturation d) Embryogenesis Answer: c) Maturation

Q. What is the significance of double fertilization in flowering plants?

a) It ensures the formation of a diploid zygote and a triploid endosperm b) It prevents self-pollination c) It increases genetic variability d) It helps in seed dispersal Answer: a) It ensures the formation of a diploid zygote and a triploid endosperm

Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Q. In humans, gametes are produced by:

a) Ovaries and testes b) Ovaries and prostate glands c) Uterus and ovaries d) Ovaries and seminal vesicles Answer: a) Ovaries and testes

Q. The primary male reproductive organ is:

a) Urethra b) Vas deferens c) Epididymis d) Testis Answer: d) Testis

Q. Spermatozoa are produced in which structure of the male reproductive system?

a) Epididymis b) Vas deferens c) Seminiferous tubules d) Prostate gland Answer: c) Seminiferous tubules

Q. The process of release of an ovum from mature ovarian follicle is called:

a) Fertilization b) Implantation c) Ovulation d) Menstruation Answer: c) Ovulation

Q. How many chromosomes does a human gamete contain?

a) 46 b) 23 c) 22 d) 24 Answer: b) 23

Q. Where does fertilization occur in humans?

a) Uterus b) Cervix c) Fallopian tube d) Vagina Answer: c) Fallopian tube

Q. The process of fusion of the sperm with the ovum is known as:

a) Fertilization b) Ovulation c) Meiosis d) Mitosis Answer: a) Fertilization

Q. Sperm cells are stored and matured in which part of the male reproductive system?

a) Vas deferens b) Seminiferous tubules c) Epididymis d) Prostate gland Answer: c) Epididymis

Q. The site of fertilization in the human female is:

a) Uterus b) Ovary c) Cervix d) Fallopian tube Answer: d) Fallopian tube

Q. Which hormone is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males?

a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: a) Testosterone

Q. The fusion of male and female gametes is termed as:

a) Cleavage b) Implantation c) Fertilization d) Placentation Answer: c) Fertilization

Q. The male gametes are:

a) Spermatozoa b) Ova c) Zygotes d) Gametophytes Answer: a) Spermatozoa

Q. The opening of the uterus into the vagina is called:

a) Urethra b) Cervix c) Ovary d) Uterine tube Answer: b) Cervix

Q. The development of female secondary sexual characteristics is due to the presence of:

a) Estrogen b) Testosterone c) Progesterone d) Gonadotropin Answer: a) Estrogen

Q. The fertilized egg is implanted in the:

a) Uterus b) Ovary c) Cervix d) Vagina Answer: a) Uterus

Q. Which hormone is responsible for the development of mammary glands?

a) Estrogen b) Testosterone c) Follicle-stimulating hormone d) Prolactin Answer: d) Prolactin

Q. Sperms are stored in the:

a) Urethra b) Vas deferens c) Seminal vesicles d) Epididymis Answer: d) Epididymis

Q. The menstrual cycle is regulated by:

a) Estrogen only b) Progesterone only c) Follicle-stimulating hormone only d) Both estrogen and progesterone Answer: d) Both estrogen and progesterone

Q. The gestation period in humans is approximately:

a) 8 months b) 9 months c) 10 months d) 11 months Answer: b) 9 months

Q. The removal of the embryo from the uterus is called:

a) Parturition b) Implantation c) Menstruation d) Ovulation Answer: a) Parturition

Q. The functional unit of the ovary is:

a) Graafian follicle b) Corpus luteum c) Ovum d) Ovarian ligament Answer: a) Graafian follicle

Q. Sperm cells are produced in the:

a) Epididymis b) Testis c) Seminiferous tubules d) Vas deferens Answer: c) Seminiferous tubules

Q. Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic in males?

a) Menstruation b) Enlargement of breasts c) Growth of facial hair d) Ovulation Answer: c) Growth of facial hair

Q. The release of FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone) is inhibited by:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Testosterone Answer: a) Estrogen

Q. Secretion of milk by mammary glands is called:

a) Lactation b) Menstruation c) Ovulation d) Cleavage Answer: a) Lactation

Q. The male reproductive system does not include:

a) Testis b) Epididymis c) Seminal vesicles d) Ovary Answer: d) Ovary

Q. During fertilization, the sperm enters the ovum through the:

a) Cytoplasm b) Cell membrane c) Nucleus d) Mitochondria Answer: b) Cell membrane

Q. The primary female reproductive organ is the:

a) Ovary b) Uterus c) Cervix d) Vagina Answer: a) Ovary

Q. The hormone responsible for the development of the endometrium is:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: b) Progesterone

Q. The menstrual cycle is initiated by the release of:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Follicle-stimulating hormone d) Luteinizing hormone Answer: c) Follicle-stimulating hormone

Q. Sperm cells are nourished by the secretion of which gland?

a) Prostate gland b) Cowper’s gland c) Seminal vesicles d) Pituitary gland Answer: c) Seminal vesicles

Q. Which of the following is a function of the placenta?

a) Production of sperm cells b) Hormone production c) Secretion of milk d) Transport of sperm cells Answer: b) Hormone production

Q. The release of an egg from the ovary is called:

a) Fertilization b) Ovulation c) Implantation d) Menstruation Answer: b) Ovulation

Q. Which hormone is responsible for the thickening of the endometrium?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: b) Progesterone

Q. The fertilized egg is called:

a) Zygote b) Embryo c) Blastocyst d) Gamete Answer: a) Zygote

Q. The primary function of the male reproductive system is to:

a) Produce and nourish gametes b) Produce hormones for secondary sexual characteristics c) Produce eggs for fertilization d) Produce and deliver sperm Answer: d) Produce and deliver sperm

Q. The process of the shedding of the uterine lining is called:

a) Ovulation b) Menopause c) Menstruation d) Fertilization Answer: c) Menstruation

Q. The structure that connects the testis to the urethra is called:

a) Vas deferens b) Seminiferous tubule c) Epididymis d) Prostate gland Answer: a) Vas deferens

Q. Which hormone is responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual char acteristics?

a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: b) Estrogen

Q. The outermost covering of a mammalian embryo is known as the:

a) Amnion b) Chorion c) Allantois d) Placenta Answer: b) Chorion

Q. Sperm cells are produced through a process called:

a) Oogenesis b) Mitosis c) Meiosis d) Binary fission Answer: c) Meiosis

Q. The hormone responsible for the development of the endometrium is:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: b) Progesterone

Q. The site of fertilization in humans is usually the:

a) Uterus b) Ovary c) Cervix d) Fallopian tube Answer: d) Fallopian tube

Q. The process of fusion of the sperm and egg is known as:

a) Ovulation b) Fertilization c) Implantation d) Menstruation Answer: b) Fertilization

Q. The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of male secondary sexual characteri stics is:

a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Prolactin Answer: a) Testosterone

Q. The process of release of an ovum from the ovary is called:

a) Ovulation b) Fertilization c) Menstruation d) Implantation Answer: a) Ovulation

Q. The process by which the fertilized egg gets embedded into the uterine wall is called:

a) Ovulation b) Menstruation c) Fertilization d) Implantation Answer: d) Implantation

Q. The hormone responsible for the development and release of eggs from the ovary is:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: c) Luteinizing hormone

Q. The process of development of ovum without fertilization is called:

a) Fertilization b) Ovulation c) Cleavage d) Parthenogenesis Answer: d) Parthenogenesis

Q. The cessation of menstrual cycle in women is known as:

a) Menarche b) Menopause c) Puberty d) Ovulation Answer: b) Menopause

Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Q. Which of the following is not a sexually transmitted infection (STI)?

a) Chlamydia b) Herpes c) Mumps d) Gonorrhea Answer: c) Mumps

Q. The term ’androcentric’ refers to:

a) A society dominated by males b) A method of contraception c) The study of male reproductive health d) A hormone involved in menstrual regulation Answer: a) A society dominated by males

Q. In humans, the primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis to form:

a) Spermatids b) Ova c) Secondary oocytes d) None of the above Answer: a) Spermatids

Q. Which of the following is not a barrier method of contraception?

a) Condom b) Diaphragm c) Estrogen pills d) Cervical cap Answer: c) Estrogen pills

Q. Fertilization of the ovum most commonly occurs in the:

a) Fallopian tube b) Uterus c) Vagina d) Ovaries Answer: a) Fallopian tube

Q. Human papillomavirus (HPV) is primarily responsible for:

a) Cervical cancer b) Breast cancer c) Prostate cancer d) Lung cancer Answer: a) Cervical cancer

Q. The hormone responsible for the secretion of milk in lactating females is:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Prolactin Answer: d) Prolactin

Q. Which of the following is an example of a reproductive health issue?

a) Infertility b) Asthma c) Diabetes d) Arthritis Answer: a) Infertility

Q. The surgical procedure for female sterilization is called:

a) Hysterectomy b) Vasectomy c) Tubectomy d) Orchidectomy Answer: c) Tubectomy

Q. In humans, the sex of the offspring is determined by:

a) The father’s genes b) The mother’s genes c) An equal contribution from both parents d) Environmental factors Answer: a) The father’s genes

Q. Emergency contraception is commonly known as the:

a) Morning-after pill b) Birth control pill c) Intrauterine device (IUD) d) Condom Answer: a) Morning-after pill

Q. PCOS (Polycystic Ovary Syndrome) is associated with:

a) Irregular menstrual cycles b) Male infertility c) Endometriosis d) Ovarian cancer Answer: a) Irregular menstrual cycles

Q. Testosterone is primarily produced by the:

a) Ovaries b) Adrenal glands c) Pituitary gland d) Testes Answer: d) Testes

Q. Which of the following is not a method of contraception?

a) Intrauterine device (IUD) b) Sterilization c) Abstinence d) Fertilization Answer: d) Fertilization

Q. The seminal vesicles secrete a fluid rich in:

a) Sperm b) Testosterone c) Fructose d) Estrogen Answer: c) Fructose

Q. Which contraceptive method provides protection against STIs?

a) Contraceptive pills b) Cervical cap c) Male condom d) IUD Answer: c) Male condom

Q. The hormone LH (luteinizing hormone) is responsible for:

a) Ovulation b) Fertilization c) Implantation d) Menstruation Answer: a) Ovulation

Q. Which of the following is an example of a barrier method of contraception?

a) Contraceptive patch b) Hormonal intrauterine system c) Diaphragm d) Copper-T IUD Answer: c) Diaphragm

Q. The ovary releases an egg each month during:

a) Ovarian cycle b) Menstrual cycle c) Embryonic development d) Ovulation cycle Answer: b) Menstrual cycle

Q. The first menstrual period in girls is called:

a) Menopause b) Ovulation c) Menarche d) Oogenesis Answer: c) Menarche

Q. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is produced by:

a) Ovaries b) Adrenal glands c) Placenta d) Pituitary gland Answer: c) Placenta

Q. Which of the following is not a type of assisted reproductive technology (ART)?

a) In vitro fertilization (IVF) b) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) c) Intrauterine insemination (IUI) d) Tubectomy Answer: d) Tubectomy

Q. Which term refers to the prevention of pregnancy after sexual intercourse?

a) Conception b) Fertilization c) Implantation d) Emergency contraception Answer: d) Emergency contraception

Q. The primary female reproductive organ is the:

a) Ovary b) Uterus c) Vagina d) Cervix Answer: a) Ovary

Q. Which hormone is responsible for the maturation of the ovarian follicles?

a) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b) Luteinizing hormone (LH) c) Estrogen d) Progesterone Answer: a) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Q. Which type of contraception method is reversible?

a) Sterilization b) Barrier methods c) Coitus interruptus d) Contraceptive pills Answer: d) Contraceptive pills

Q. The structure that connects the fetus to the placenta is called the:

a) Cord blood b) Placental vein c) Placental barrier d) Umbilical cord Answer: d) Umbilical cord

Q. The contraceptive method that involves tracking and avoiding fertile days is called:

a) Barrier method b) Rhythm method c) Emergency contraception d) Hormonal method Answer: b) Rhythm method

Q. Which of the following is not a method of natural contraception?

a) Calendar method b) Basal body temperature method c) Cervical mucus method d) Intrauterine device (IUD) Answer: d) Intrauterine device (IUD)

Q. The surgical procedure for male sterilization is called:

a) Hysterectomy b) Vasectomy c) Tubectomy d) Orchidectomy Answer: b) Vasectomy

Q. The release of an ovum from the ovary is called:

a) Implantation b) Fertilization c) Ovulation d) Menstruation Answer: c) Ovulation

Q. Which of the following is an example of a barrier method of contraception?

a) Contraceptive patch b) IUD c) Condom d) Hormonal implant Answer: c) Condom

Q. The maximum number of eggs produced by a human female in her lifetime is approximately:

a) 100 b) 500 c) 1,000 d) 1,000,000 Answer: c) 1,000

Q. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) primarily affects the:

a) Reproductive system b) Immune system c) Respiratory system d) Digestive system Answer: b) Immune system

Q. The stage of development from fertilization to implantation is called:

a) Gestation b) Embryogenesis c) Fertilization d) Menstruation Answer: b) Embryogenesis

Q. The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics i n females is:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: a) Estrogen

Q. The outermost layer of the uterus is called the:

a) Endometrium b) Myometrium c) Perimetrium d) Cervix Answer: c) Perimetrium

Q. Which of the following is an example of a hormonal method of contraception?

a) Condom b) Diaphragm c) Birth control pill d) Copper-T IUD Answer: c) Birth control pill

Q. The hormone responsible for the thickening of the uterine lining during the menstrual cycle is:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: b) Progesterone

Q. Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in females?

a) Syphilis b) Gonorrhea c) Herpes d) Chlamydia Answer: d) Chlamydia

Q. The process of the release of milk from the mammary glands is called:

a) Ovulation b) Lactation c) Menstruation d) Fertilization Answer: b) Lactation

Q. What is the average duration of the menstrual cycle in human females?

a) 28 days b) 30 days c) 32 days d) Varies from person to person Answer: d) Varies from person to person

Q. The female sex hormone responsible for the development and maturation of the ova is:

a) Testosterone b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Luteinizing hormone (LH) Answer: b) Estrogen

Q. Human sperms are produced in the:

a) Seminiferous tubules b) Prostate gland c) Vas deferens d) Urethra Answer: a) Seminiferous tubules

Q. Which of the following is not a barrier method of contraception?

a) Condom b) Diaphragm c) Oral contraceptives d) Cervical cap Answer: c) Oral contraceptives

Q. The release of eggs by a female is called:

a) Ovulation b) Menstruation c) Fertilization d) Implantation Answer: a) Ovulation

Q. Hormonal methods of contraception primarily work by:

a) Preventing ovulation b) Blocking sperm entry c) Changing the cervical mucus d) Creating a hostile uterine environment Answer: a) Preventing ovulation

Q. The period during which ovulation and menstruation cease is known as:

a) Puberty b) Menopause c) Climacteric d) Menarche Answer: b) Menopause

Q. The primary male reproductive organ is the:

a) Testis b) Epididymis c) Scrotum d) Prostate gland Answer: a) Testis

Q. Which of the following is not a symptom of sexually transmitted infections (STIs)?

a) Abdominal pain b) Genital ulcers c) Itching and rashes d) Vaginal odor Answer: d) Vaginal odor

Chapter 5 Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Q. Which scientist is responsible for establishing the laws of inheritance?

A) Charles Darwin B) Gregor Mendel C) Thomas Hunt Morgan D) Alfred Wallace Answer: B

Q. Mendel’s experiment was performed on which plant species?

A) Pea B) Rose C) Orchid D) Sunflower Answer: A

Q. What is the term used to describe an alternative form of a gene?

A) Trait B) Allele C) Genotype D) Phenotype Answer: B

Q. An organism with two identical alleles for a particular trait is called:

A) Dominant B) Recessive C) Homozygous D) Heterozygous Answer: C

Q. The phenotype of an organism refers to:

A) Its genetic makeup B) Its physical characteristics C) Its sex-linked traits D) Its mutation rate Answer: B

Q. In humans, what is the sex chromosome composition of males?

A) XX B) XY C) XYY D) XXYY Answer: B

Q. Hemophilia is a sex-linked disorder. Which chromosome is affected in this disorder?

A) 1st B) 4th C) 23rd D) All chromosomes Answer: C

Q. In incomplete dominance, what is the phenotype of a heterozygous individual?

A) Intermediate between the two homozygotes B) Identical to one of the homozygotes C) Different from both homozygotes D) Unable to determine without further information Answer: A

Q. What is the probability of getting a homozygous recessive offspring from a heterozygous individual?

A) 25% B) 50% C) 75% D) 100% Answer: A

Q. When a gene has multiple alleles in a population, it is called:

A) Codominance B) Multiple alleles C) Incomplete dominance D) Polygenic inheritance Answer: B

Q. What is the probability of having a boy in a family with three children?

A) 1/3 B) 1/4 C) 1/2 D) 2/3 Answer: C

Q. Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?

A) Blood type B) Eye color C) ABO system D) Sickle cell anemia Answer: B

Q. The presence of an extra chromosome in an individual is called:

A) Polyploidy B) Aneuploidy C) Monoploidy D) Trisomy Answer: B

Q. Which genetic disorder is caused by the deletion of a portion of chromosome 15?

A) Down syndrome B) Turner syndrome C) Klinefelter syndrome D) Prader-Willi syndrome Answer: D

Q. The crossing of two individuals having one gene in common is called:

A) Monohybrid cross B) Dihybrid cross C) Test cross D) Self-fertilization Answer: C

Q. Which law states that the inheritance of one trait does not influence the inheritance of another trait?

A) Law of Segregation B) Law of Independent Assortment C) Law of Dominance D) Law of Inheritance Answer: B

Q. Alleles of a gene separate from each other during the formation of gametes. This is known as:

A) Mendel’s Law of Segregation B) Incomplete Dominance C) Codominance D) Independent Assortment Answer: A

Q. Which type of inheritance pattern shows both phenotypes fully expressed in the heterozygote?

A) Incomplete dominance B) Codominance C) Dominance D) Recessiveness Answer: B

Q. Who proposed the Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance?

A) Alfred Wallace B) Charles Darwin C) Sutton and Boveri D) Watson and Crick Answer: C

Q. Genes located close to each other on the same chromosome tend to be inherited together. This is call ed:

A) Genetic linkage B) Gene mapping C) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium D) Crossing over Answer: A

Q. The genetic material in prokaryotes is contained in:

A) Nucleus B) Mitochondria C) Chloroplast D) Nucleoid Answer: D

Q. Which enzyme is responsible for DNA replication?

A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Helicase D) Ligase Answer: A

Q. What is the function of tRNA in protein synthesis?

A) Transcription B) Translation C) Replication D) Splicing Answer: B

Q. Which codon serves as the start codon in protein synthesis?

A) AUG B) UAA C) UAG D) UGA Answer: A

Q. The process of DNA fingerprinting is based on:

A) Genetic recombination B) DNA replication C) DNA sequencing D) Restriction fragment length polymorphism Answer: D

Q. Which technique is used to amplify specific DNA sequences?

A) PCR B) DNA profiling C) Gel electrophoresis D) Recombinant DNA technology Answer: A

Q. What is the function of the operator in gene regulation?

A) Activates gene transcription B) Inhibits gene transcription C) Prevents translation D) Modifies genetic code Answer: B

Q. Which of the following is an example of a transgenic organism?

A) A plant with resistance to pests B) A bacterium producing human insulin C) A mouse with a fluorescent protein gene D) All of the above Answer: D

Q. Which technique allows the introduction of a specific mutation into a gene?

A) Gene knockout B) Gene knock-in C) Gene silencing D) Gene splicing Answer: B

Q. What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?

A) To visualize DNA fragments B) To amplify DNA fragments C) To clone genes D) To sequence DNA Answer: A

Q. Who proposed the concept of "survival of the fittest" in evolution?

A) Charles Darwin B) Alfred Wallace C) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck D) Thomas Malthus Answer: A

Q. Genetic drift is more likely to occur in:

A) Small populations B) Large populations C) Stable environments D) Constant mutation rates Answer: A

Q. Evolution that occurs through the transfer of genes between different species is called:

A) Artificial selection B) Natural selection C) Genetic drift D) Horizontal gene transfer Answer: D

Q. Which type of speciation occurs due to geographic isolation?

A) Allopatric speciation B) Sympatric speciation C) Parapatric speciation D) Peripatric speciation Answer: A

Q. What is the name for a group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring?

A) Species B) Genotype C) Population D) Hybrid Answer: A

Q. Which process can cause a rapid increase in the frequency of a favorable allele in a population?

A) Genetic drift B) Mutation C) Gene flow D) Natural selection Answer: D

Q. Which type of selection favors extreme phenotypes and eliminates intermediate phenotypes?

A) Stabilizing selection B) Directional selection C) Disruptive selection D) Sexual selection Answer: C

Q. The wings of birds and the wings of bats are an example of:

A) Analogy B) Homology C) Convergent evolution D) Divergent evolution Answer: C

Q. Which era is known as the "Age of Mammals"?

A) Paleozoic Era B) Mesozoic Era C) Cenozoic Era D) Precambrian Era Answer: C

Q. The oldest fossils are from which era?

A) Paleozoic Era B) Mesozoic Era C) Cenozoic Era D) Precambrian Era Answer: D

Q. Who proposed the theory of punctuated equilibrium?

A) Charles Darwin B) Alfred Russell Wallace C) Niles Eldredge and Stephen Jay Gould D) Jean-Baptiste Lamarck Answer: C

Q. Which of the following is an example of an endothermic organism?

A) Fish B) Bird C) Frog D) Lizard Answer: B

Q. Which type of symbiotic relationship benefits both organisms involved?

A) Mutualism B) Commensalism C) Parasitism D) Predation Answer: A

Q. Which of the following is an abiotic factor?

A) Predation B) Temperature C) Competition D) Mutualism Answer: B

Q. The process by which nitrogen is converted into a usable form by certain bacteria is called:

A) Nitrogen fixation B) N

Chapter 6 Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Q. Which molecule carries genetic information in most organisms?

a) DNA b) RNA c) Protein d) Lipid Answer: a) DNA

Q. The structure of DNA was first described by:

a) Rosalind Franklin b) James Watson c) Francis Crick d) Maurice Wilkins Answer: b) James Watson

Q. Which nitrogenous base is not present in RNA?

a) Adenine b) Guanine c) Thymine d) Uracil Answer: c) Thymine

Q. The DNA replication in most organisms is:

a) Semiconservative b) Conservative c) Dispersive d) Random Answer: a) Semiconservative

Q. The enzyme responsible for DNA replication is:

a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Helicase d) Ligase Answer: a) DNA polymerase

Q. DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides in the:

a) 5’ to 3’ direction b) 3’ to 5’ direction c) Random direction d) Both 5’ to 3’ and 3’ to 5’ Answer: a) 5’ to 3’ direction

Q. The pairing of nucleotides in DNA follows the rule of:

a) G-C pairs with A-T b) A-T pairs with C-G c) G-T pairs with A-C d) A-U pairs with G-C Answer: b) A-T pairs with C-G

Q. The process of transcription results in the formation of:

a) DNA b) RNA c) Protein d) Lipid Answer: b) RNA

Q. Which enzyme is responsible for transcription?

a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Helicase d) Ligase Answer: b) RNA polymerase

Q. In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the:

a) Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) Mitochondria d) Golgi apparatus Answer: a) Nucleus

Q. The genetic code is universal, which means:

a) It is the same in all organisms b) It varies from one organism to another c) It is only present in eukaryotes d) It is unique to prokaryotes Answer: a) It is the same in all organisms

Q. Which of the following is not a codon?

a) ACC b) ATG c) UAC d) UGA Answer: d) UGA

Q. The process of translation takes place in the:

a) Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) Mitochondria d) Golgi apparatus Answer: b) Cytoplasm

Q. The molecule responsible for carrying amino acids during translation is:

a) mRNA b) tRNA c) rRNA d) DNA Answer: b) tRNA

Q. How many amino acids are there in the genetic code?

a) 20 b) 21 c) 22 d) 23 Answer: a) 20

Q. Which of the following mutations is the most harmful?

a) Silent mutation b) Missense mutation c) Nonsense mutation d) Frameshift mutation Answer: c) Nonsense mutation

Q. The process of synthesis of DNA from an RNA template is called:

a) Transcription b) Translation c) Replication d) Reverse transcription Answer: d) Reverse transcription

Q. Which of the following is not a type of RNA?

a) mRNA b) tRNA c) rRNA d) gRNA Answer: d) gRNA

Q. The process by which mRNA is synthesized from a DNA template is called:

a) Replication b) Transcription c) Translation d) Reverse transcription Answer: b) Transcription

Q. The DNA sequence that initiates transcription is called:

a) Exon b) Intron c) Promoter d) Operator Answer: c) Promoter

Q. In eukaryotes, introns are:

a) Present in genes and are noncoding regions b) Absent in genes and are noncoding regions c) Present in genes and are coding regions d) Absent in genes and are coding regions Answer: a) Present in genes and are noncoding regions

Q. The process of DNA replication is:

a) Bidirectional b) Unidirectional c) Random d) Multidirectional Answer: a) Bidirectional

Q. The enzyme responsible for breaking the hydrogen bonds between DNA strands during replication is:

a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Helicase d) Ligase Answer: c) Helicase

Q. The DNA strands being replicated are known as:

a) Leading strands b) Lagging strands c) Daughter strands d) Parental strands Answer: d) Parental strands

Q. The Okazaki fragments are formed on the:

a) Leading strand b) Lagging strand c) Daughter strand d) Parental strand Answer: b) Lagging strand

Q. The enzyme responsible for joining the Okazaki fragments during replication is:

a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Helicase d) Ligase Answer: d) Ligase

Q. DNA replication occurs during the:

a) G1 phase b) S phase c) G2 phase d) M phase Answer: b) S phase

Q. The process of DNA replication is:

a) Conservative b) Semiconservative c) Dispersive d) Random Answer: b) Semiconservative

Q. The enzyme responsible for proofreading and error correction during DNA replication is:

a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Exonuclease d) Ligase Answer: c) Exonuclease

Q. Hershey and Chase conducted experiments to prove that:

a) DNA is the genetic material b) RNA is the genetic material c) Protein is the genetic material d) Lipid is the genetic material Answer: a) DNA is the genetic material

Q. The Hershey-Chase experiment used which organism?

a) Bacteria b) Yeast c) Protozoa d) Virus Answer: d) Virus

Q. The molecule responsible for storing genetic information in some viruses is:

a) DNA b) RNA c) Protein d) Carbohydrate Answer: b) RNA

Q. The pairing of nucleotides in RNA follows the rule of:

a) G-C pairs with A-T b) A-T pairs with C-G c) G-T pairs with A-C d) A-U pairs with G-C Answer: d) A-U pairs with G-C

Q. The anticodon of tRNA determines the:

a) Amino acid it carries b) Type of ribosome it binds to c) Promoter sequence it recognizes d) Stop codon it recognizes Answer: a) Amino acid it carries

Q. During translation, the initiation codon is recognized by:

a) Start codon b) Stop codon c) tRNA d) mRNA Answer: c) tRNA

Q. The process of DNA repair involves the use of:

a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Exonuclease d) Ligase Answer: c) Exonuclease

Q. Which of the following is a post-transcriptional modification in eukaryotes?

a) Splicing b) Transcription c) Replication d) Translation Answer: a) Splicing

Q. The enzyme responsible for splicing introns in mRNA is:

a) DNA polymerase b) RNA polymerase c) Ribozyme d) Ligase Answer: c) Ribozyme

Q. Which of the following is an example of a hereditary disease caused by a mutation in DNA?

a) Sickle cell anemia b) Influenza c) Tuberculosis d) Malaria Answer: a) Sickle cell anemia

Q. The process by which DNA information is converted into RNA and proteins is known as:

a) Gene expression b) Gene mutation c) Gene cloning d) Gene splicing Answer: a) Gene expression

Q. The lac operon is a well-studied example of gene expression in:

a) Bacteria b) Yeast c) Plants d) Animals Answer: a) Bacteria

Q. The lac operon is turned on when:

a) Lactose is present b) Lactose is absent c) Glucose is present d) Glucose is absent Answer: a) Lactose is present

Q. The lac operon is regulated by a protein called:

a) Repressor b) Promoter c) Operator d) Inducer Answer: a) Repressor

Chapter 7 Evolution

Q. Which scientist proposed the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a) Charles Darwin b) Gregor Mendel c) Louis Pasteur d) Thomas Edison Answer: a) Charles Darwin

Q. Which of the following is the main driving force behind evolution?

a) Genetic drift b) Natural selection c) Genetic mutation d) Gene flow Answer: b) Natural selection

Q. Evolution is the process of:

a) Developing new species b) Adapting individuals to their environment c) Creating perfect organisms d) Extincting species Answer: b) Adapting individuals to their environment

Q. The theory of evolution is based on the concept of:

a) Gradualism b) Catastrophism c) Transformation d) Mutation Answer: a) Gradualism

Q. What is the source of genetic variation in a population?

a) Mutation b) Selection c) Inbreeding d) Hybridization Answer: a) Mutation

Q. Fossils are formed through:

a) Preservation of entire organisms b) Petrifaction of plant species c) Decomposition of organic matter d) Preservation of hard parts of organisms Answer: d) Preservation of hard parts of organisms

Q. Which of the following is an example of homologous structures?

a) Wings of a butterfly and wings of a bird b) Wings of a bat and wings of a bird c) Arms of a human and fins of a dolphin d) Wings of a butterfly and fins of a fish Answer: c) Arms of a human and fins of a dolphin

Q. The term "fitness" in the context of evolution refers to:

a) Physical strength b) Ability to reproduce c) Superior intelligence d) Long lifespan Answer: b) Ability to reproduce

Q. Which of the following is an example of convergent evolution?

a) Wings of birds and wings of bats b) Legs of humans and legs of dogs c) Trunk of an elephant and nose of an anteater d) Eyes of humans and eyes of insects Answer: a) Wings of birds and wings of bats

Q. The occurrence of genetic drift is more prominent in:

a) Small populations b) Large populations c) Stable populations d) Urban populations Answer: a) Small populations

Q. Which type of natural selection favors individuals at both extremes of a trait?

a) Stabilizing selection b) Directional selection c) Disruptive selection d) Artificial selection Answer: c) Disruptive selection

Q. The theory of Lamarckian evolution is based on the principle of:

a) Inheritance of acquired traits b) Natural selection c) Random mutations d) Gene flow Answer: a) Inheritance of acquired traits

Q. The presence of similar embryological stages in different species is evidence for:

a) Convergent evolution b) Divergent evolution c) Natural selection d) Artificial selection Answer: b) Divergent evolution

Q. Which of the following is an example of coevolution?

a) Bee and flower relationship b) Tiger and deer relationship c) Predator and prey relationship d) Parasite and host relationship Answer: a) Bee and flower relationship

Q. The study of fossils is called:

a) Paleontology b) Zoology c) Botany d) Entomology Answer: a) Paleontology

Q. The wings of birds and insects are an example of:

a) Analogous structures b) Homologous structures c) Vestigial structures d) Convergent structures Answer: a) Analogous structures

Q. What is the primary reason for extinction of species?

a) Climate change b) Competition with other species c) Genetic mutation d) Natural selection Answer: b) Competition with other species

Q. The process of evolution that occurs due to migration of individuals between populations is called:

a) Genetic drift b) Gene flow c) Natural selection d) Genetic mutation Answer: b) Gene flow

Q. Which of the following is an example of artificial selection?

a) Breeding dogs with desired traits b) Survival of the fittest in a wild population c) Extinction of a species due to environmental changes d) Rapid evolution of antibiotic-resistant bacteria Answer: a) Breeding dogs with desired traits

Q. The most accurate method of determining the age of fossils is:

a) Radiometric dating b) Relative dating c) Carbon dating d) Index fossil dating Answer: a) Radiometric dating

Q. Which type of evolution occurs when two or more species evolve in response to each other?

a) Convergent evolution b) Coevolution c) Divergent evolution d) Adaptive radiation Answer: b) Coevolution

Q. The process by which certain organisms have evolved to resemble the appearance of other organism s is called:

a) Camouflage b) Mimicry c) Speciation d) Fossilization Answer: b) Mimicry

Q. The development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of:

a) Genetic variation b) Artificial selection c) Natural selection d) Genetic drift Answer: c) Natural selection

Q. The "Red Queen hypothesis" states that:

a) Evolution is a continuous race for survival b) Genetic mutations play a major role in evolution c) Extinction is the result of competition between species d) Environmental changes are the main driving force behind evolution Answer: a) Evolution is a continuous race for survival

Q. Which of the following is an example of vestigial structure?

a) Appendix in humans b) Wings of birds c) Gills in fish d) Lungs in mammals Answer: a) Appendix in humans

Q. The process by which a new species evolves from an existing species is called:

a) Extinction b) Speciation c) Evolutionary equilibrium d) Genetic drift Answer: b) Speciation

Q. The phenomenon where a few individuals colonize a new habitat and establish a new population is ca lled:

a) Genetic variation b) Genetic drift c) Founder effect d) Bottleneck effect Answer: c) Founder effect

Q. The concept of "survival of the fittest" was proposed by:

a) Gregor Mendel b) Charles Darwin c) James Watson d) Francis Crick Answer: b) Charles Darwin

Q. Which of the following is an example of a vestigial organ?

a) Human tailbone b) Bird wings c) Fish gills d) Lion’s mane Answer: a) Human tailbone

Q. The study of the distribution of organisms and their geographic range is called:

a) Biogeography b) Genetics c) Systematics d) Evolutionary biology Answer: a) Biogeography

Q. "Survival of the fittest" refers to:

a) Survival of the largest individuals b) Survival of the strongest individuals c) Survival of the most adaptable individuals d) Survival of the fastest individuals Answer: c) Survival of the most adaptable individuals

Q. The process of natural selection leads to:

a) Preservation of all individuals in a population b) Preservation of only beneficial traits in a population c) Preservation of harmful traits in a population d) Preservation of all traits in a population Answer: b) Preservation of only beneficial traits in a population

Q. Which of the following is not a type of natural selection?

a) Disruptive selection b) Directional selection c) Stabilizing selection d) Artificial selection Answer: d) Artificial selection

Q. Which of the following is an example of genetic drift?

a) Population of fish splitting into two isolated ponds b) Birds with longer beaks having a higher chance of survival c) Antelopes with the ability to run faster than predators d) Humans developing resistance to a particular virus Answer: a) Population of fish splitting into two isolated ponds

Q. The process by which a species becomes extinct in a particular area but survives elsewhere is called:

a) Extinction b) Genetic drift c) Extirpation d) Adaptation Answer: c) Extirpation

Q. Which of the following is not a factor affecting the rate of evolution?

a) Mutation rate b) Migration rate c) Selection pressure d) Population size Answer: b) Migration rate

Q. Which of the following is an example of adaptive radiation?

a) Evolution of mammals after the extinction of dinosaurs b) Development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria c) Natural selection leading to the survival of only certain plant species d) Formation of new species due to geographic isolation Answer: a) Evolution of mammals after the extinction of dinosaurs

Q. The process of species formation that occurs due to geographical barriers is called:

a) Natural selection b) Genetic mutation c) Genetic drift d) Allopatric speciation Answer: d) Allopatric speciation

Q. Which of the following is not a piece of evidence for evolution?

a) Fossil records b) Comparative anatomy c) Genetic variation within a species d) Supernatural occurrences Answer: d) Supernatural occurrences

Chapter 8 Human Health and Disease

Q. Which of the following is not a component of the lymphatic system?

a) Thymus b) Spleen c) Kidney d) Tonsils Answer: c) Kidney

Q. Which type of immunity is present at birth and provides immediate but non-specific defense?

a) Passive immunity b) Innate immunity c) Acquired immunity d) Active immunity Answer: b) Innate immunity

Q. Which of the following is a viral disease?

a) Malaria b) Tuberculosis c) Cholera d) Influenza Answer: d) Influenza

Q. The disease caused due to the deficiency of Vitamin D is:

a) Scurvy b) Rickets c) Night blindness d) Pellagra Answer: b) Rickets

Q. Tuberculosis is caused by:

a) Bacteria b) Viruses c) Fungi d) Protozoa Answer: a) Bacteria

Q. What is the scientific name for the common cold?

a) Influenza b) Tuberculosis c) Rhinovirus d) Dengue Answer: c) Rhinovirus

Q. Which of the following is a non-communicable disease?

a) Tuberculosis b) Cholera c) Diabetes d) Malaria Answer: c) Diabetes

Q. Which of the following is a vector-borne disease?

a) Typhoid b) Influenza c) Hepatitis B d) Malaria Answer: d) Malaria

Q. Which type of immunity develops after recovering from a disease or through vaccination?

a) Passive immunity b) Innate immunity c) Acquired immunity d) Active immunity Answer: c) Acquired immunity

Q. Which organ produces insulin in the human body?

a) Liver b) Pancreas c) Kidney d) Stomach Answer: b) Pancreas

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of iron in the body?

a) Goiter b) Scurvy c) Anemia d) Jaundice Answer: c) Anemia

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C?

a) Rickets b) Beriberi c) Scurvy d) Pellagra Answer: c) Scurvy

Q. The causative agent of malaria is:

a) Plasmodium b) Influenza virus c) Salmonella d) Escherichia coli Answer: a) Plasmodium

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by improper functioning of the immune system?

a) AIDS b) Tuberculosis c) Malaria d) Cholera Answer: a) AIDS

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of iodine in the diet?

a) Goiter b) Scurvy c) Diabetes d) Anemia Answer: a) Goiter

Q. What is the primary function of white blood cells?

a) Transport oxygen b) Fight infection c) Digest food d) Produce hormones Answer: b) Fight infection

Q. What is the visible sign of an infectious disease called?

a) Symptom b) Red flag c) Syndrome d) Inflammation Answer: a) Symptom

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a fungus?

a) Influenza b) Malaria c) Tuberculosis d) Athlete’s foot Answer: d) Athlete’s foot

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus and affects the liver?

a) Cholera b) Typhoid c) Hepatitis d) Tuberculosis Answer: c) Hepatitis

Q. Which of the following diseases spreads through contaminated food and water?

a) Dengue b) Malaria c) Cholera d) Diabetes Answer: c) Cholera

Q. Which of the following diseases is a hereditary disorder affecting red blood cells?

a) Diabetes b) Sickle cell anemia c) Malaria d) Tuberculosis Answer: b) Sickle cell anemia

Q. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?

a) A b) B c) AB d) O Answer: d) O

Q. Which of the following is responsible for carrying oxygen in red blood cells?

a) Hemoglobin b) Insulin c) Prostaglandin d) Amylase Answer: a) Hemoglobin

Q. What is the medical term for high blood pressure?

a) Hypertension b) Hypotension c) Hemophilia d) Hyperglycemia Answer: a) Hypertension

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a parasite?

a) Influenza b) Malaria c) Tuberculosis d) Diabetes Answer: b) Malaria

Q. Which organ is affected by cirrhosis?

a) Kidney b) Liver c) Heart d) Lungs Answer: b) Liver

Q. What is the primary function of the kidneys?

a) Filtration of blood b) Production of insulin c) Digestion of food d) Transportation of oxygen Answer: a) Filtration of blood

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of vitamin A?

a) Scurvy b) Night blindness c) Pellagra d) Rickets Answer: b) Night blindness

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a mosquito-borne virus?

a) Tuberculosis b) Dengue c) Hepatitis B d) Cholera Answer: b) Dengue

Q. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infectious diseases?

a) Washing hands regularly b) Avoiding close contact with sick individuals c) Vaccination d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following immune cells produce antibodies?

a) T cells b) B cells c) Natural killer cells d) Red blood cells Answer: b) B cells

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B1?

a) Scurvy b) Beriberi c) Rickets d) Pellagra Answer: b) Beriberi

Q. Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B3?

a) Scurvy b) Beriberi c) Rickets d) Pellagra Answer: d) Pellagra

Q. Which disease is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

a) Cholera b) Tuberculosis c) AIDS d) Influenza Answer: c) AIDS

Q. Which of the following is not a symptom of diabetes?

a) Increased thirst b) Unexplained weight gain c) Frequent urination d) Fatigue Answer: b) Unexplained weight gain

Q. Which disease is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi?

a) Tuberculosis b) Cholera c) Malaria d) Chagas disease Answer: d) Chagas disease

Q. What is the largest organ in the human body?

a) Heart b) Brain c) Skin d) Lungs Answer: c) Skin

Q. Which disease is caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV)?

a) Tuberculosis b) Hepatitis c) Cervical cancer d) Diabetes Answer: c) Cervical cancer

Q. What is the medical term for low blood sugar?

a) Hyperglycemia b) Hypoglycemia c) Hypertension d) Hypotension Answer: b) Hypoglycemia

Q. Which type of cancer is characterized by uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the lungs?

a) Breast cancer b) Lung cancer c) Leukemia d) Brain cancer Answer: b) Lung cancer

Q. What is the medical term for a heart attack?

a) Stroke b) Myocardial infarction c) Coronary artery disease d) Aneurysm Answer: b) Myocardial infarction

Q. Which of the following is not a mode of transmission for HIV?

a) Sexual contact b) Sharing needles c) Mosquito bites d) Mother to child during childbirth or breastfeeding Answer: c) Mosquito bites

Q. Which of the following is a symptom of an allergic reaction?

a) Diarrhea b) Sneezing c) Fatigue d) Headache Answer: b) Sneezing

Q. Which disease is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin B12?

a) Scurvy b) Beriberi c) Rickets d) Pernicious anemia Answer: d) Pernicious anemia

Q. What is the medical term for the common cold sore?

a) Canker sore b) Fever blister c) Herpes simplex d) Cold sore Answer: c) Herpes simplex

Chapter 9 Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production

Q. Which of the following is not a method of crop improvement?

a) Hybridization b) Emasculation c) Mutation breeding d) Sustainable farming Answer: d) Sustainable farming

Q. What is the process of removing anthers from a flower called?

a) Emasculation b) Hybridization c) Fertilization d) Pollination Answer: a) Emasculation

Q. Which of the following is not a genetically modified organism (GMO)?

a) Bt cotton b) Golden rice c) Basmati rice d) Flavr Savr tomato Answer: c) Basmati rice

Q. What is the purpose of hybridization in crop improvement?

a) To increase crop yield b) To create genetically modified organisms c) To develop disease-resistant crops d) To promote organic farming Answer: a) To increase crop yield

Q. What is the primary source of fish in aquaculture?

a) Oceans b) Lakes c) Rivers d) Ponds Answer: d) Ponds

Q. Which of the following is not a method of animal breeding?

a) Inbreeding b) Outbreeding c) Hybridization d) Mutation breeding Answer: d) Mutation breeding

Q. Which of the following is not a type of plant breeding technique?

a) Mutation breeding b) Embryo transplantation c) Micropropagation d) Haemotoxin treatment Answer: d) Haemotoxin treatment

Q. Which of the following is a bacterial disease commonly found in poultry?

a) Coccidiosis b) Foot and mouth disease c) Marek’s disease d) Avian influenza Answer: a) Coccidiosis

Q. What is the purpose of cloning animals in biotechnology?

a) To increase genetic diversity b) To create identical copies of animals c) To enhance animal reproduction d) To develop disease-resistant animals Answer: b) To create identical copies of animals

Q. Which of the following is a traditional method of fish breeding?

a) Hormonal manipulation b) Artificial insemination c) Spawning d) In vitro fertilization Answer: c) Spawning

Q. Which hormone is responsible for the maturation of oocytes in females?

a) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) b) Luteinizing hormone (LH) c) Estrogen d) Progesterone Answer: a) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Q. What is the major drawback of inbreeding in animals?

a) It reduces genetic diversity b) It increases the risk of genetic disorders c) It decreases the fertility of animals d) It slows down the growth rate Answer: b) It increases the risk of genetic disorders

Q. Which of the following is a method of asexual reproduction in plants?

a) Cross-pollination b) Seed formation c) Vegetative propagation d) Fertilization Answer: c) Vegetative propagation

Q. Which of the following is not a requirement for successful artificial insemination in animals?

a) Collection of semen b) Storage of semen c) Induction of ovulation d) Natural mating Answer: d) Natural mating

Q. What is the technique used to produce a large number of plants through tissue culture?

a) Micropropagation b) In vitro fertilization c) Embryo transplantation d) Cloning Answer: a) Micropropagation

Q. Which of the following is an example of ruminant animal?

a) Goat b) Dog c) Rat d) Pigeon Answer: a) Goat

Q. What is the process of removing the male reproductive organs in plants called?

a) Emasculation b) Pollination c) Fertilization d) Germination Answer: a) Emasculation

Q. Which of the following is a benefit of using biofertilizers?

a) They improve soil fertility b) They reduce the need for chemical fertilizers c) They promote sustainable agriculture d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is not a method of fish breeding?

a) Artificial insemination b) Hormonal manipulation c) Spawning d) Micropropagation Answer: d) Micropropagation

Q. What is the process of transferring an embryo from one female to another called?

a) Embryo transplantation b) Embryo transfer c) Embryo development d) Embryo culture Answer: a) Embryo transplantation

Q. Which hormone is responsible for milk production in mammals?

a) Oxytocin b) Estrogen c) Progesterone d) Prolactin Answer: d) Prolactin

Q. Which of the following is an example of a self-pollinating plant?

b) Maize c) Tomato d) Sunflower Answer: a) Pea

Q. What is the primary source of animal feed in aquaculture?

a) Fish meal b) Algae c) Plankton d) Pellets Answer: a) Fish meal

Q. Which of the following is not a type of artificial insemination in animals?

a) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) b) Intravaginal insemination c) Intracervical insemination d) Intradermal insemination Answer: d) Intradermal insemination

Q. Which of the following is not a genetically modified crop?

a) Bt cotton b) Roundup Ready soybean c) Golden rice d) Organic wheat Answer: d) Organic wheat

Q. Which of the following is not a method of animal cloning?

a) Somatic cell nuclear transfer b) Embryo splitting c) In vitro fertilization d) Nanotechnology Answer: d) Nanotechnology

Q. Which of the following is not a type of selective breeding in animals?

a) Inbreeding b) Outbreeding c) Hybridization d) Induced breeding Answer: d) Induced breeding

Q. What is the process of transferring pollen from the stamen to the pistil called?

a) Fertilization b) Pollination c) Emasculation d) Germination Answer: b) Pollination

Q. Which of the following is not a method of plant tissue culture?

a) Micropropagation b) Embryo culture c) Callus culture d) In vitro fertilization Answer: d) In vitro fertilization

Q. Which hormone is responsible for promoting fruit development in plants?

a) Abscisic acid b) Ethylene c) Gibberellin d) Cytokinin Answer: c) Gibberellin

Q. What is the process of transferring genes from one organism to another called?

a) Genetic engineering b) Hybridization c) Mutation breeding d) Cloning Answer: a) Genetic engineering

Q. Which of the following is not a method of disease control in animals?

a) Vaccination b) Quarantine c) Antiseptic treatment d) Hormonal manipulation Answer: d) Hormonal manipulation

Q. What is the purpose of cryopreservation in biotechnology?

a) To store genetic material at extremely low temperatures b) To induce artificial hibernation in animals c) To enhance reproductive abilities of animals d) To produce genetically modified organisms Answer: a) To store genetic material at extremely low temperatures

Q. Which of the following is not a method of crop storage?

a) Cold storage b) Controlled atmosphere storage c) Drying d) Micropropagation Answer: d) Micropropagation

Q. What is the method of breeding in which plants with desirable traits are crossed to produce offspring with even more desirable traits called?

a) Hybridization b) Emasculation c) Inbreeding d) Outbreeding Answer: a) Hybridization

Q. Which of the following is not a benefit of using GMOs in agriculture?

a) Increased crop yield b) Improved nutritional content c) Reduced use of pesticides d) Accelerated natural evolution Answer: d) Accelerated natural evolution

Q. What is the primary advantage of using tissue culture in plant propagation?

a) Increased genetic diversity b) Reduced risk of genetic disorders c) Rapid production of large numbers of plants d) Lower cost of production Answer: c) Rapid production of large numbers of plants

Q. Which of the following is not a method of fish farming?

a) Cage culture b) Pond culture c) Raceway culture d) Clone culture Answer: d) Clone culture

Q. Which of the following is a fungal disease commonly found in crops?

a) Canker b) Scab c) Blight d) Wilt Answer: b) Scab

Q. What is the process of maturation and release of oocytes from the ovaries called?

a) Ovulation b) Fertilization c) Gestation d) Parturition Answer: a) Ovulation

Chapter 10 Microbes in Human Welfare

Q. Which of the following is not a microbe commonly used in industrial processes?

a) Lactobacillus b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Escherichia coli d) Penicillium Answer: d) Penicillium

Q. Microorganisms that live on dead organic matter and help in its decomposition are called:

a) Pathogens b) Saprophytes c) Protozoa d) Algae Answer: b) Saprophytes

Q. Which of the following microorganisms is extensively used in the dairy industry?

a) Lactobacillus b) Penicillium c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae d) Helicobacter pylori Answer: a) Lactobacillus

Q. Microbes that can fix atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form are called:

a) Nitrogen fixers b) Nitrogen reducers c) Nitrogen fixators d) Nitrogen oxidizers Answer: a) Nitrogen fixers

Q. Which of the following is an example of a biofertilizer?

a) NPK fertilizer b) Urea c) Azotobacter d) Potash Answer: c) Azotobacter

Q. Microbes that can break down oil spills and pollutants in the environment are called:

a) Bioremediators b) Detritivores c) Decomposers d) Producers Answer: a) Bioremediators

Q. The process of converting milk into curd is primarily carried out by:

a) Lactobacillus b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Escherichia coli d) Penicillium Answer: a) Lactobacillus

Q. Microbes that cause diseases are called:

a) Pathogens b) Saprophytes c) Beneficial microbes d) Biocontrol agents Answer: a) Pathogens

Q. The first antibiotic to be commercially produced was:

a) Tetracycline b) Penicillin c) Streptomycin d) Amoxicillin Answer: b) Penicillin

Q. Microorganisms that can survive in extreme conditions such as high temperatures are called:

a) Thermophiles b) Halophiles c) Xerophiles d) Mesophiles Answer: a) Thermophiles

Q. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia is called:

a) Denitrification b) Nitrification c) Nitrogen fixation d) Nitrogen assimilation Answer: c) Nitrogen fixation

Q. Microbes that live in the intestines and help in digestion are called:

a) Probiotics b) Parasites c) Pathogens d) Commensals Answer: a) Probiotics

Q. The process of production of alcohol from sugar by yeast is called:

a) Fermentation b) Photosynthesis c) Respiration d) Glycolysis Answer: a) Fermentation

Q. Microbes that can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrate are called:

a) Nitrogen reducers b) Nitrogen oxidizers c) Nitrogen fixers d) Nitrogen assimilators Answer: c) Nitrogen fixers

Q. Biopesticides are derived from:

a) Synthetic chemicals b) Minerals c) Plants d) Microorganisms Answer: d) Microorganisms

Q. The enzyme used in molecular biology that helps in creating DNA copies is called:

a) Restriction enzyme b) DNA polymerase c) Ligase d) Helicase Answer: b) DNA polymerase

Q. Microbes that can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrite are called:

a) Nitrogen fixers b) Nitrogen reducers c) Nitrogen oxidizers d) Nitrogen assimilators Answer: c) Nitrogen oxidizers

Q. The process of converting milk into cheese is primarily carried out by:

a) Lactobacillus b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Escherichia coli d) Penicillium Answer: d) Penicillium

Q. Microbes that can break down complex organic matter into simpler substances are called:

a) Parasites b) Saprophytes c) Beneficial microbes d) Biocontrol agents Answer: b) Saprophytes

Q. The process of converting plant material into biogas using microbes is called:

a) Composting b) Fermentation c) Bioremediation d) Anaerobic digestion Answer: d) Anaerobic digestion

Q. Microbes used in the production of bread and other bakery products are:

a) Lactobacillus b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Escherichia coli d) Penicillium Answer: b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Q. Which of the following is not a role of microbes in wastewater treatment?

a) Decomposition of organic matter b) Reduction of nitrates and phosphates c) Production of toxins d) Conversion of ammonia into nitrate Answer: c) Production of toxins

Q. Microbes that can break down oil spills and pollutants in the environment are called:

a) Detritivores b) Decomposers c) Bioremediators d) Producers Answer: c) Bioremediators

Q. The process of converting nitrogenous waste into harmless nitrogen gas by bacteria is called:

a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen fixation c) Denitrification d) Nitrogenous assimilation Answer: c) Denitrification

Q. Microbes that can fix atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form are called:

a) Nitrogen fixers b) Nitrogen reducers c) Nitrogen fixators d) Nitrogen oxidizers Answer: a) Nitrogen fixers

Q. The process of converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia is called:

a) Denitrification b) Nitrification c) Nitrogen fixation d) Nitrogen assimilation Answer: c) Nitrogen fixation

Q. Biopesticides are derived from:

a) Synthetic chemicals b) Minerals c) Plants d) Microorganisms Answer: d) Microorganisms

Q. Microbes that live in the intestines and help in digestion are called:

a) Probiotics b) Parasites c) Pathogens d) Commensals Answer: a) Probiotics

Q. The process of production of alcohol from sugar by yeast is called:

a) Fermentation b) Photosynthesis c) Respiration d) Glycolysis Answer: a) Fermentation

Q. Microbes that can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrate are called:

a) Nitrogen reducers b) Nitrogen oxidizers c) Nitrogen fixers d) Nitrogen assimilators Answer: c) Nitrogen fixers

Q. The enzyme used in molecular biology that helps in creating DNA copies is called:

a) Restriction enzyme b) DNA polymerase c) Ligase d) Helicase Answer: b) DNA polymerase

Q. Microbes that can convert atmospheric nitrogen into nitrite are called:

a) Nitrogen fixers b) Nitrogen reducers c) Nitrogen oxidizers d) Nitrogen assimilators Answer: c) Nitrogen oxidizers

Q. The process of converting milk into cheese is primarily carried out by:

a) Lactobacillus b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Escherichia coli d) Penicillium Answer: d) Penicillium

Q. Microbes that can break down complex organic matter into simpler substances are called:

a) Parasites b) Saprophytes c) Beneficial microbes d) Biocontrol agents Answer: b) Saprophytes

Q. The process of converting plant material into biogas using microbes is called:

a) Composting b) Fermentation c) Bioremediation d) Anaerobic digestion Answer: d) Anaerobic digestion

Q. Microbes used in the production of bread and other bakery products are:

a) Lactobacillus b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae c) Escherichia coli d) Penicillium Answer: b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Q. Which of the following is not a role of microbes in wastewater treatment?

a) Decomposition of organic matter b) Reduction of nitrates and phosphates c) Production of toxins d) Conversion of ammonia into nitrate Answer: c) Production of toxins

Q. Microbes that can break down oil spills and pollutants in the environment are called:

a) Detritivores b) Decomposers c) Bioremediators d) Producers Answer: c) Bioremediators

Q. The process of converting nitrogenous waste into harmless nitrogen gas by bacteria is called:

a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen fixation c) Denitrification d) Nitrogenous assimilation Answer: c) Denitrification

Chapter 11 Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

Q. What is the process of inserting a foreign gene into a host organism called?

A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Transfection D) Translocation Answer: A) Transformation

Q. Which of the following enzymes is used to cut DNA molecules at specific sequences?

A) DNA gyrase B) DNA ligase C) DNA polymerase D) Restriction endonuclease Answer: D) Restriction endonuclease

Q. What is the function of DNA ligase in recombinant DNA technology?

A) It cuts DNA molecules at specific sequences B) It joins DNA fragments together C) It replicates DNA molecules D) It introduces foreign DNA into a host organism Answer: B) It joins DNA fragments together

Q. The process of separating DNA fragments based on their size using gel electrophoresis is called:

A) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) B) DNA fingerprinting C) DNA sequencing D) Southern blotting Answer: B) DNA fingerprinting

Q. What is the product of reverse transcription?

A) RNA B) Protein C) DNA D) Lipid Answer: C) DNA

Q. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same or a different flower is called:

A) Self-pollination B) Cross-pollination C) Fertilization D) Germination Answer: B) Cross-pollination

Q. Which of the following is an example of an asexual mode of reproduction?

A) Budding B) Meiosis C) Binary fission D) Gametogenesis Answer: C) Binary fission

Q. The process of amplifying a specific region of DNA using PCR involves:

A) Denaturation, annealing, and extension B) Transcription, translation, and replication C) Replication, splicing, and reverse transcription D) Ligation, translocation, and fusion Answer: A) Denaturation, annealing, and extension

Q. What is the role of RNA polymerase in transcription?

A) It synthesizes mRNA from DNA template B) It replicates DNA molecules C) It translates mRNA into protein D) It joins DNA fragments together Answer: A) It synthesizes mRNA from DNA template

Q. The process of making multiple copies of a gene using a bacterial plasmid is called:

A) Cloning B) Transformation C) Transfection D) Transduction Answer: A) Cloning

Q. What is the purpose of antibiotic selection in genetic engineering?

A) To kill bacteria that do not contain recombinant DNA B) To introduce foreign DNA into a host organism C) To amplify a specific gene sequence D) To cut DNA molecules at specific sequences Answer: A) To kill bacteria that do not contain recombinant DNA

Q. Which of the following is a genetically modified organism (GMO)?

A) Hybrid crop plant B) Purebred dog C) Wild bird D) Organic fruit Answer: A) Hybrid crop plant

Q. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in reverse transcription?

A) It synthesizes DNA from RNA template B) It synthesizes RNA from DNA template C) It synthesizes protein from RNA template D) It synthesizes mRNA from DNA template Answer: A) It synthesizes DNA from RNA template

Q. Which of the following is used as the vector in recombinant DNA technology?

A) Virus B) Bacterium C) Fungus D) Plant Answer: B) Bacterium

Q. What does the acronym "PCR" stand for?

A) Polymerase chain reaction B) Protein coding region C) Protein confirmation response D) Polymerase collagen reaction Answer: A) Polymerase chain reaction

Q. Which enzyme is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from mRNA?

A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Reverse transcriptase D) Ligase Answer: C) Reverse transcriptase

Q. What is the purpose of electroporation in genetic engineering?

A) To introduce foreign DNA into a host organism B) To cut DNA molecules at specific sequences C) To replicate DNA molecules D) To produce recombinant proteins Answer: A) To introduce foreign DNA into a host organism

Q. What is the function of selectable markers in genetic engineering?

A) To amplify a specific gene sequence B) To join DNA fragments together C) To kill bacteria that do not contain recombinant DNA D) To introduce foreign DNA into a host organism Answer: C) To kill bacteria that do not contain recombinant DNA

Q. Which of the following is a technique used for gene sequencing?

A) Western blotting B) Southern blotting C) HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography) D) Sanger sequencing Answer: D) Sanger sequencing

Q. The technique used to determine the presence or absence of a specific DNA sequence in a sample is called:

A) PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) B) DNA profiling C) Microarray analysis D) Western blotting Answer: B) DNA profiling

Q. What is the function of Taq polymerase in PCR?

A) It cuts DNA molecules at specific sequences B) It synthesizes RNA from DNA template C) It synthesizes DNA from RNA template D) It synthesizes DNA from DNA template Answer: D) It synthesizes DNA from DNA template

Q. Which of the following is an application of recombinant DNA technology?

A) Producing insulin for diabetic patients B) Developing new drug formulations C) Creating transgenic animals with desired traits D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above

Q. What is the purpose of the selectable marker gene in a plasmid vector?

A) To join DNA fragments together B) To cut DNA molecules at specific sequences C) To amplify a specific gene sequence D) To kill bacteria that do not contain recombinant DNA Answer: D) To kill bacteria that do not contain recombinant DNA

Q. Genetic engineering involves the manipulation of:

A) Proteins B) Carbohydrates C) Lipids D) DNA Answer: D) DNA

Q. Which of the following is an example of a transgenic organism?

A) Hybrid crop plant B) Purebred dog C) Wild bird D) Genetically modified bacteria Answer: D) Genetically modified bacteria

Q. What is the purpose of DNA sequencing?

A) To determine the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule B) To amplify a specific gene sequence C) To create a DNA fingerprint D) To introduce foreign DNA into a host organism Answer: A) To determine the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule

Q. In genetic engineering, what is the purpose of the host organism?

A) To cut DNA molecules at specific sequences B) To introduce foreign DNA into its genome C) To join DNA fragments together D) To produce recombinant proteins Answer: B) To introduce foreign DNA into its genome

Q. Which of the following enzymes is used to join DNA fragments together in genetic engineering?

A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Restriction endonuclease D) DNA ligase Answer: D) DNA ligase

Q. The process of transferring DNA fragments from an agarose gel to a nitrocellulose membrane is calle d:

A) Transformation B) Transduction C) Southern blotting D) Gel electrophoresis Answer: C) Southern blotting

Q. What is the purpose of DNA hybridization in genetic engineering?

A) To cut DNA molecules at specific sequences B) To join DNA fragments together C) To replicate DNA molecules D) To detect the presence of a specific DNA sequence Answer: D) To detect the presence of a specific DNA sequence

Q. Which of the following is a technique used for gene expression analysis?

A) DNA fingerprinting B) Southern blotting C) Microarray analysis D) Polymerase chain reaction Answer: C) Microarray analysis

Q. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in recombinant DNA technology?

A) To synthesize DNA from RNA template B) To synthesize RNA from DNA template C) To synthesize protein from RNA template D) To synthesize mRNA from DNA template Answer: A) To synthesize DNA from RNA template

Q. Which of the following is an application of gene therapy?

A) Producing transgenic animals with desired traits B) Creating hybrid crop plants C) Correcting genetic defects in humans D) Developing new drug formulations Answer: C) Correcting genetic defects in humans

Q. What is the function of the terminator sequence in transcription?

A) To cut DNA molecules at specific sequences B) To join DNA fragments together C) To stop RNA synthesis D) To introduce foreign DNA into a host organism Answer: C) To stop RNA synthesis

Chapter 12 Biotechnology and its Applications

Q. Which of the following is not a application of biotechnology?

a) Production of recombinant insulin b) Genetically modified crops c) Cloning animals d) Production of penicillin Answer: d) Production of penicillin

Q. What is the purpose of using restriction enzymes in biotechnology?

a) To separate proteins b) To cut DNA into specific fragments c) To clone genes d) To make proteins Answer: b) To cut DNA into specific fragments

Q. What does PCR stand for in biotechnology?

a) Polymerase Chain Reaction b) Protein Conversion Reaction c) Purification and Cloning Reaction d) Protein Chain Replication Answer: a) Polymerase Chain Reaction

Q. Which technique is used to identify a specific DNA sequence in a large mixture of DNA molecules?

a) Electrophoresis b) DNA sequencing c) Polymerase Chain Reaction d) Southern blotting Answer: d) Southern blotting

Q. Why are bacteria often used as host organisms in genetic engineering?

a) Bacteria have large genomes b) Bacteria are easy to grow and manipulate c) Bacteria can produce complex proteins d) Bacteria are resistant to genetic modifications Answer: b) Bacteria are easy to grow and manipulate

Q. What is the process of introducing foreign DNA into host cells called?

a) Cloning b) Transduction c) Transformation d) Transcription Answer: c) Transformation

Q. Which of the following is an example of a genetically modified organism (GMO)?

a) A plant resistant to pests b) A dog with blue eyes c) A bird with a longer beak d) A cat with striped fur Answer: a) A plant resistant to pests

Q. What is the name of the technique used to determine the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule?

a) Polymerase Chain Reaction b) Southern blotting c) DNA sequencing d) Genetic engineering Answer: c) DNA sequencing

Q. What is the purpose of gene therapy? a) To produce transgenic organisms b) To clone animals c) To cure genetic disorders d) To generate genetically modified crops Answer: c) To cure genetic disorders

Q. What is the role of ligase in genetic engineering?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To join DNA fragments together c) To amplify DNA sequences d) To detect specific DNA sequences Answer: b) To join DNA fragments together

Q. Which enzyme is commonly used to generate complementary DNA (cDNA) from mRNA?

a) Ligase b) RNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) Restriction enzyme Answer: c) Reverse transcriptase

Q. What is the function of a vector in genetic engineering?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To join DNA fragments together c) To carry foreign DNA into host cells d) To amplify DNA sequences Answer: c) To carry foreign DNA into host cells

Q. What is the name of the process used to separate DNA fragments based on their size and charge?

a) Polymerase Chain Reaction b) DNA sequencing c) Electrophoresis d) Hybridization Answer: c) Electrophoresis

Q. What is the benefit of using genetically modified crops in agriculture?

a) Increased crop yield b) Improved taste of fruits and vegetables c) Reduced use of pesticides d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis in genetic engineering?

a) To amplify DNA sequences b) To determine the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule c) To separate DNA fragments based on size d) To clone genes Answer: c) To separate DNA fragments based on size

Q. Which of the following is an example of a transgenic organism?

a) A plant that produces its own insecticide b) A dog that can glow in the dark c) A bird that can mimic human speech d) A cat with blue fur Answer: b) A dog that can glow in the dark

Q. What is the purpose of DNA fingerprinting in forensics?

a) To determine the genetic relationship between individuals b) To identify suspects in criminal investigations c) To diagnose genetic disorders d) To clone genes Answer: b) To identify suspects in criminal investigations

Q. What is the role of Taq polymerase in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To amplify DNA sequences c) To join DNA fragments together d) To detect specific DNA sequences Answer: b) To amplify DNA sequences

Q. Which of the following is an example of a genetically modified animal?

a) A fish that glows in the dark b) A horse with wings c) A bird with a longer beak d) A cat with stripes Answer: a) A fish that glows in the dark

Q. What is the purpose of CRISPR/Cas9 in genetic engineering?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To amplify DNA sequences c) To join DNA fragments together d) To edit specific genes Answer: d) To edit specific genes

Q. What is the purpose of creating recombinant DNA in genetic engineering?

a) To produce transgenic organisms b) To clone animals c) To cure genetic disorders d) To develop new drugs Answer: a) To produce transgenic organisms

Q. What is the function of DNA ligase in genetic engineering?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To amplify DNA sequences c) To join DNA fragments together d) To detect specific DNA sequences Answer: c) To join DNA fragments together

Q. Which of the following is an application of biotechnology in agriculture?

a) Production of antibiotics b) Genetic modification of crops c) Cloning animals d) Production Answer: c) To join DNA fragments together

Q. Which of the following is an application of biotechnology in agriculture?

a) Production of antibiotics b) Genetic modification of crops c) Cloning animals d) Production of vaccines Answer: b) Genetic modification of crops

Q. What is the purpose of using green fluorescent protein (GFP) in biotechnology?

a) To produce transgenic organisms b) To clone animals c) To cure genetic disorders d) To visualize gene expression Answer: d) To visualize gene expression

Q. What is the function of reverse transcriptase in genetic engineering?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To amplify DNA sequences c) To join DNA fragments together d) To generate complementary DNA (cDNA) Answer: d) To generate complementary DNA (cDNA)

Q. What is the advantage of using genetically modified bacteria in biofuel production?

a) Bacteria can produce ethanol directly b) Bacteria are easy to grow and manipulate c) Bacteria can convert biomass into biofuels efficiently d) Bacteria are resistant to genetic modifications Answer: c) Bacteria can convert biomass into biofuels efficiently

Q. Which of the following is an example of a transgenic plant?

a) A plant that produces its own insecticide b) A plant with blue flowers c) A plant that can glow in the dark d) A plant that can mimic human speech Answer: a) A plant that produces its own insecticide

Q. What is the purpose of genetic engineering in medicine?

a) To produce transgenic organisms b) To clone animals c) To cure genetic disorders d) To develop new drugs Answer: c) To cure genetic disorders

Q. Which enzyme is used to insert foreign DNA into a plasmid during cloning?

a) Ligase b) RNA polymerase c) Reverse transcriptase d) Restriction enzyme Answer: a) Ligase

Q. What is the purpose of using CRISPR/Cas9 in gene editing?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To amplify DNA sequences c) To join DNA fragments together d) To edit specific genes Answer: d) To edit specific genes

Q. Which of the following is an application of biotechnology in forensics?

a) Production of antibiotics b) Genetic modification of crops c) DNA fingerprinting d) Production of vaccines Answer: c) DNA fingerprinting

Q. What is the function of a plasmid in genetic engineering?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To amplify DNA sequences c) To clone genes d) To carry foreign DNA into host cells Answer: d) To carry foreign DNA into host cells

Q. What is the purpose of using gel electrophoresis in DNA sequencing?

a) To amplify DNA sequences b) To determine the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA molecule c) To separate DNA fragments based on size d) To clone genes Answer: c) To separate DNA fragments based on size

Q. Which of the following is an example of an application of biotechnology in environment conservation?

a) Production of antibiotics b) Genetic modification of crops c) Cloning animals d) Bioremediation Answer: d) Bioremediation

Q. What is the role of DNA polymerase in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a) To cut DNA into specific fragments b) To amplify DNA sequences c) To join DNA fragments together d) To detect specific DNA sequences Answer: b) To amplify DNA sequences

Chapter 13 Organisms and Populations

Q. Which of the following is NOT a primary producer in an ecosystem?

a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Algae d) Plants Answer: b) Fungi

Q. The maximum number of individuals that an environment can sustain is called:

a) Carrying capacity b) Population growth c) Overcrowding d) Limiting factor Answer: a) Carrying capacity

Q. The population that is seen during the early stages of colonization is referred to as:

a) R-selected population b) K-selected population c) Opportunistic population d) Pioneer population Answer: d) Pioneer population

Q. The age structure of a population refers to:

a) The number of individuals in different age groups b) The number of individuals reaching reproductive age c) The ratio of males to females in a population d) The distribution of population over a particular area Answer: a) The number of individuals in different age groups

Q. The specific area in the environment where an organism lives is called its:

a) Habitat b) Population c) Community d) Ecosystem Answer: a) Habitat

Q. Which of the following is an example of abiotic factor?

a) Temperature b) Predators c) Disease d) Competition Answer: a) Temperature

Q. Which of the following is NOT a density-dependent factor?

a) Disease b) Predation c) Competition d) Natural disaster Answer: d) Natural disaster

Q. The process by which different species evolve adaptations in response to each other is referred to as:

a) Adaptive radiation b) Coevolution c) Convergent evolution d) Divergent evolution Answer: b) Coevolution

Q. The maximum number of individuals of a species that can be sustained by the resources in a particular habitat is known as:

a) Population density b) Carrying capacity c) Community structure d) Ecological niche Answer: b) Carrying capacity

Q. Which of the following is an example of an r-strategist organism?

a) Elephant b) Dog c) Mouse d) Giraffe Answer: c) Mouse

Q. The population growth pattern in which population size fluctuates but eventually stabilizes around carr ying capacity is known as:

a) Exponential growth b) Logistic growth c) Boom-bust cycle d) Invasive growth Answer: b) Logistic growth

Q. Which of the following is a pioneer species in ecological succession?

a) Oak trees b) Lichen c) Squirrels d) Wolves Answer: b) Lichen

Q. The movement of individuals into an area is called:

a) Immigration b) Emigration c) Natality d) Mortality Answer: a) Immigration

Q. The total number of organisms of the same species that live in the same area and can interbreed is kn own as:

a) Community b) Population c) Ecosystem d) Biosphere Answer: b) Population

Q. The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment is referred to as its:

a) Fitness b) Adaptation c) Biomass d) Ecology Answer: a) Fitness

Q. Which of the following is NOT a density-independent factor?

a) Temperature b) Drought c) Competition d) Natural disaster Answer: c) Competition

Q. The first organism to colonize a barren area is called a(n):

a) Predator b) Prey c) Pioneer d) Parasite Answer: c) Pioneer

Q. The increase in concentration of a toxin in organisms as it moves through the food chain is known as:

a) Biomagnification b) Biodiversity c) Bioaccumulation d) Biodegradation Answer: a) Biomagnification

Q. Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor?

a) Sunlight b) Soil pH c) Temperature d) Predators Answer: d) Predators

Q. The process of formation of a new species is called:

a) Speciation b) Extinction c) Immigration d) Emigration Answer: a) Speciation

Q. The relationship between two species in which one species benefits and the other is not affected is kn own as:

a) Mutualism b) Commensalism c) Parasitism d) Competition Answer: b) Commensalism

Q. The smallest unit of population where individuals of the same species interact with each other is calle d:

a) Community b) Ecosystem c) Niche d) Guild Answer: a) Community

Q. The concept that no two species can occupy the same niche at the same time is referred to as:

a) Competition exclusion principle b) Niche partitioning c) Competitive exclusion d) Competitive coexistence Answer: a) Competition exclusion principle

Q. The total number of different species in a given area is called:

a) Biodiversity b) Keystone species c) Biomass d) Ecological diversity Answer: a) Biodiversity

Q. The process by which new species develop from a common ancestor gradually over time is known as:

a) Divergent evolution b) Convergent evolution c) Parallel evolution d) Coevolution Answer: a) Divergent evolution

Q. Which of the following factors does NOT affect population growth?

a) Birth rate b) Death rate c) Emigration rate d) Immigration rate Answer: c) Emigration rate

Q. The relationship between two species in which one organism benefits at the expense of the other is c alled:

a) Mutualism b) Commensalism c) Parasitism d) Competition Answer: c) Parasitism

Q. The process by which an ecosystem changes over time due to natural or human disturbance is known as:

a) Ecological succession b) Biotic interaction c) Genetic drift d) Habitat fragmentation Answer: a) Ecological succession

Q. The main factor determining the distribution of terrestrial biomes is:

a) Temperature b) Precipitation c) Soil type d) Sunlight availability Answer: b) Precipitation

Q. The average number of individuals of a species per unit area is referred to as:

a) Population size b) Density c) Dispersion d) Clustering Answer: b) Density

Q. The process in which one species resembles another species to gain a selective advantage is known as:

a) Mimicry b) Camouflage c) Cryptic coloration d) Warning coloration Answer: a) Mimicry

Q. The process of natural selection acting on different traits to create new species is referred to as:

a) Adaptive radiation b) Coevolution c) Convergent evolution d) Divergent evolution Answer: a) Adaptive radiation

Q. The relationship between two species in which both species benefit is called:

a) Mutualism b) Commensalism c) Parasitism d) Competition Answer: a) Mutualism

Q. The study of the distribution and abundance of organisms and their interactions within an ecosystem i s called:

a) Ecology b) Biogeography c) Ecosystem d) Niche Answer: a) Ecology

Q. The process by which an organism moves from one place to another is called:

a) Immigration b) Emigration c) Natality d) Mortality Answer: a) Immigration

Q. The interaction between two species in which one species benefits and the other is harmed is known as:

a) Mutualism b) Commensalism c) Parasitism d) Competition Answer: c) Parasitism

Q. The gradual change in the composition of a community over time is known as:

a) Ecological succession b) Biotic interaction c) Natural selection d) Habitat fragmentation Answer: a) Ecological succession

Q. The process by which individuals that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to surviv e and reproduce is known as:

a) Natural selection b) Artificial selection c) Genetic drift d) Genetic variation Answer: a) Natural selection

Q. The area or surroundings in which an organism lives is referred to as its:

a) Niche b) Habitat c) Ecosystem d) Community Answer: b) Habitat

Q. Which of the following factors does NOT affect the population growth rate?

a) Births b) Deaths c) Immigration d) Emigration Answer: d) Emigration

Q. The specific role or function of an organism within an ecosystem is called its:

a) Niche b) Habitat c) Ecosystem d) Community Answer: a) Niche

Q. The total mass of living organisms present in a given area is referred to as:

a) Biodiversity b) Keystone species c) Biomass d) Ecological diversity Answer: c) Biomass

Chapter 14 Ecosystem

Q. Which of the following is the primary source of energy for most ecosystems?

a) Sun b) Wind c) Soil d) Water Answer: a) Sun

Q. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?

a) Soil b) Temperature c) Plants d) Minerals Answer: c) Plants

Q. What is the term used to describe the process by which green plants convert sunlight into chemical ene rgy?

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Decomposition d) Transpiration Answer: a) Photosynthesis

Q. Which of the following best defines an ecosystem?

a) A group of organisms that belong to the same species and live in the same area b) A community of organisms and the non-living factors of their environment c) The interaction between biotic and abiotic factors in a specific area d) The process of breaking down dead organisms into simpler substances Answer: c) The interaction between biotic and abiotic factors in a specific area

Q. Which of the following is an example of a decomposer in an ecosystem?

a) Lion b) Tree c) Earthworm d) Sunflower Answer: c) Earthworm

Q. Which of the following terms describes the relationship between two organisms where one benefits and the other is unaffected?

a) Mutualism b) Commensalism c) Parasitism d) Predation Answer: b) Commensalism

Q. Which of the following is an abiotic factor in an ecosystem?

a) Plants b) Animals c) Temperature d) Bacteria Answer: c) Temperature

Q. The process of converting waste materials into usable nutrients in the ecosystem is called:

a) Decomposition b) Photosynthesis c) Digestion d) Reproduction Answer: a) Decomposition

Q. Which of the following statements is true about the food chain?

a) It shows the flow of energy within an ecosystem b) It represents the relationship between predators and prey c) It is a complex network of interconnected food webs d) It only involves producers and herbivores Answer: a) It shows the flow of energy within an ecosystem

Q. What is the term used to describe the maximum population that an ecosystem can sustainably suppor t?

a) Carrying capacity b) Population density c) Growth rate d) Niche Answer: a) Carrying capacity

Q. Which of the following is an example of a primary consumer in an ecosystem?

a) Rabbit b) Hawk c) Grass d) Snake Answer: a) Rabbit

Q. Nitrogen fixation is the process by which:

a) Nitrogen gas is converted into ammonia by bacteria b) Nitrogen gas is released into the atmosphere by plants c) Ammonia is converted into nitrate by plants d) Nitrate is converted into nitrogen gas by decomposers Answer: a) Nitrogen gas is converted into ammonia by bacteria

Q. Which of the following is not a major nutrient required by plants?

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Carbon d) Potassium Answer: c) Carbon

Q. The process by which water is returned to the atmosphere from plants is called:

a) Transpiration b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: a) Transpiration

Q. Which of the following does not contribute to biodiversity in an ecosystem?

a) Number of different species b) Genetic variation within species c) Abiotic factors d) Habitats and niches Answer: c) Abiotic factors

Q. What is the term used to describe the gradual change in the species composition of an ecosystem ov er time?

a) Succession b) Competition c) Diversity d) Adaptation Answer: a) Succession

Q. Which of the following is an example of a keystone species?

a) Lion b) Zebra c) Elephant d) Sea otter Answer: d) Sea otter

Q. In a food web, which organisms are at the highest trophic level?

a) Producers b) Herbivores c) Carnivores d) Decomposers Answer: c) Carnivores

Q. Which of the following factors can determine the distribution and abundance of organisms in an ecosy stem?

a) Temperature b) Availability of resources c) Predation pressure d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The process by which nutrients are cycled between living organisms and the environment is called:

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Decomposition d) Nutrient cycling Answer: d) Nutrient cycling

Q. What is the term used to describe the conversion of organic matter into simpler compounds by decom posers?

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Decomposition d) Transpiration Answer: c) Decomposition

Q. Which of the following is an example of a pioneer species?

a) Moss b) Oak tree c) Lion d) Deer Answer: a) Moss

Q. The process of water vapor turning into liquid water is known as:

a) Transpiration b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: c) Condensation

Q. Which of the following is not a type of symbiotic relationship?

a) Mutualism b) Parasitism c) Predation d) Commensalism Answer: c) Predation

Q. The process by which water returns to the Earth in the form of rain, snow, or sleet is known as:

a) Transpiration b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: d) Precipitation

Q. What is the process by which plants release water vapor into the atmosphere?

a) Transpiration b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: a) Transpiration

Q. Which of the following is an example of a biotic factor in an ecosystem?

a) Sunlight b) Temperature c) Soil d) Plants Answer: d) Plants

Q. Which of the following is an example of a secondary consumer in a food chain?

a) Snake b) Grasshopper c) Mouse d) Sunflower Answer: a) Snake

Q. Which of the following is an example of a decomposer in a food chain?

a) Hawk b) Grasshopper c) Earthworm d) Rabbit Answer: c) Earthworm

Q. The process by which plants convert carbon dioxide into oxygen is called:

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Decomposition d) Transpiration Answer: a) Photosynthesis

Q. The process by which energy is transferred from one trophic level to another in a food chain is called:

a) Decomposition b) Photosynthesis c) Respiration d) Trophic transfer Answer: d) Trophic transfer

Q. Which of the following ecosystem services involves the purification of air and water by plants?

a) Provisioning services b) Regulating services c) Cultural services d) Supporting services Answer: b) Regulating services

Q. Which of the following is not a major biome?

a) Desert b) Rainforest c) Tundra d) Prairie Answer: d) Prairie

Q. The term biodiversity refers to:

a) The number of different species in an ecosystem b) The genetic variation within species c) The variety of ecosystems on Earth d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following factors can affect the biodiversity of an ecosystem?

a) Habitat loss b) Climate change c) Pollution d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is not a type of ecological pyramid?

a) Energy pyramid b) Biomass pyramid c) Trophic pyramid d) Abundance pyramid Answer: d) Abundance pyramid

Q. Which of the following human activities can negatively impact an ecosystem?

a) Deforestation b) Pollution c) Overfishing d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The interaction between organisms of the same species is known as:

a) Mutualism b) Competition c) Commensalism d) Parasitism Answer: b) Competition

Q. Which of the following is an example of a decomposer in an ecosystem?

a) Lion b) Vulture c) Flower d) Tree Answer: b) Vulture

Q. The process by which plants release oxygen into the atmosphere is called:

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Decomposition d) Transpiration Answer: a) Photosynthesis

Q. Which of the following is a pioneer species in primary succession?

a) Grass b) Moss c) Trees d) Shrubs Answer: b) Moss

Q. The process by which nutrients are lost from an ecosystem through runoff is called:

a) Nutrient cycling b) Nutrient depletion c) Nutrient pollution d) Nutrient leaching Answer: d) Nutrient leaching

Chapter 15 Biodiversity and Conservation

Q. Which of the following best defines biodiversity?

a) The variety of different organisms in a given area b) The number of different species in a given area c) The genetic variation within a species d) The variety of ecosystems in a given area Answer: a) The variety of different organisms in a given area

Q. What is the primary cause of the current loss of biodiversity?

a) Climate change b) Pollution c) Habitat destruction d) Overhunting Answer: c) Habitat destruction

Q. Which of the following is an example of genetic biodiversity?

a) The number of different species in a given area b) The variety of ecosystems in a given area c) The genetic variation within a species d) The number of different ecosystems in a given area Answer: c) The genetic variation within a species

Q. Why is biodiversity important for the functioning of ecosystems?

a) It ensures the stability of ecosystems b) It provides food and resources for organisms c) It helps in maintaining a balance in the natural world d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is an example of an invasive species?

a) A native tree in a forest b) A fish introduced to a lake from another region c) A bird species that migrates seasonally d) A plant species that is endemic to a specific area Answer: b) A fish introduced to a lake from another region

Q. Which of the following is an example of an endangered species?

a) Bald eagle b) House cat c) Common pigeon d) Domestic dog Answer: a) Bald eagle

Q. Which of the following is an example of an extinct species?

a) African elephant b) Dodo bird c) Bengal tiger d) Blue whale Answer: b) Dodo bird

Q. What is the purpose of the IUCN Red List?

a) To identify and list the threatened species b) To protect and conserve biodiversity c) To facilitate international cooperation on biodiversity issues d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is a direct value of biodiversity to humans?

a) Provision of food, medicine, and resources b) Enhancement of aesthetic beauty and spiritual values c) Maintenance of ecosystem services d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the primary cause of the sixth mass extinction?

a) Climate change b) Pollution c) Overhunting d) Habitat destruction Answer: d) Habitat destruction

Q. Which of the following is an example of an in situ conservation method?

a) Captive breeding programs b) Wildlife reserves c) Seed banks d) Cryopreservation Answer: b) Wildlife reserves

Q. Which legal framework aims to conserve biodiversity at the global level?

a) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) b) Endangered Species Act (ESA) c) Red Data Book d) World Conservation Strategy Answer: a) Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)

Q. What is the primary objective of community-based conservation initiatives?

a) To involve local communities in biodiversity conservation b) To create private conservation areas c) To establish captive breeding programs d) To promote ecotourism Answer: a) To involve local communities in biodiversity conservation

Q. Which of the following is an example of an ex situ conservation method?

a) Wildlife reserves b) Ecological restoration c) Seed banks d) Ecotourism Answer: c) Seed banks

Q. What is the concept of flagship species in biodiversity conservation?

a) Protecting key species to ensure the survival of other species b) Prioritizing the conservation of charismatic species c) Encouraging the conservation of endangered species d) Protecting species with high economic value Answer: b) Prioritizing the conservation of charismatic species

Q. Which of the following is not a threat to marine biodiversity?

a) Overfishing b) Pollution c) Coral bleaching d) Deforestation Answer: d) Deforestation

Q. What is the primary goal of habitat restoration projects?

a) To create new habitats for endangered species b) To conserve and restore damaged ecosystems c) To protect endangered species from extinction d) To promote sustainable agriculture practices Answer: b) To conserve and restore damaged ecosystems

Q. What is the purpose of a biodiversity hotspot?

a) To promote illegal wildlife trade b) To identify areas with high levels of biodiversity and endemism c) To establish protected areas for conservation d) To facilitate international cooperation on conservation efforts Answer: b) To identify areas with high levels of biodiversity and endemism

Q. What is the role of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) in biodiversity conservation?

a) To promote ecotourism b) To research and monitor endangered species c) To raise public awareness and advocate for conservation d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is an example of a sustainable development practice?

a) Clear-cutting of forests for timber production b) Overfishing in marine ecosystems c) Organic farming methods d) Industrial pollution Answer: c) Organic farming methods

Q. What is the main objective of the Ramsar Convention?

a) To protect endangered species b) To conserve wetlands and their resources c) To combat climate change d) To promote sustainable agriculture practices Answer: b) To conserve wetlands and their resources

Q. Which of the following is an example of an international organization working on biodiversity conservat ion?

a) International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) b) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) c) World Wildlife Fund (WWF) d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the primary cause of deforestation?

a) Mining activities b) Urbanization and infrastructure development c) Agricultural expansion d) Climate change Answer: c) Agricultural expansion

Q. Which of the following is an example of genetic erosion?

a) Loss of habitat due to deforestation b) Extinction of a species due to overhunting c) Loss of genetic diversity within a species d) Pollution in aquatic ecosystems Answer: c) Loss of genetic diversity within a species

Q. What is the role of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES)?

a) To facilitate sustainable trade of endangered species b) To protect and regulate the international trade of endangered species c) To promote ecotourism d) To raise public awareness about biodiversity conservation Answer: b) To protect and regulate the international trade of endangered species

Q. Which of the following is an example of a sustainable fishing practice?

a) Overfishing of a particular species b) Catching fish using large-scale trawling nets c) Implementing fishing quotas and regulations d) Using harmful fishing methods like dynamite fishing Answer: c) Implementing fishing quotas and regulations

Q. What is the primary goal of the Convention on Migratory Species (CMS)?

a) To protect migratory bird species b) To regulate the hunting of migratory species c) To conserve and manage migratory species and their habitats d) To promote international cooperation on biodiversity conservation Answer: c) To conserve and manage migratory species and their habitats

Q. What is the primary goal of the Tropical Rainforest Conservation Act (TRCA)?

a) To promote sustainable logging practices in rainforests b) To protect and conserve tropical rainforests and their biodiversity c) To encourage the use of alternative energy sources d) To raise public awareness about the importance of rainforests Answer: b) To protect and conserve tropical rainforests and their biodiversity

Q. Which of the following is an example of a marine protected area?

a) National park b) Wildlife reserve c) Marine sanctuary d) Botanical garden Answer: c) Marine sanctuary

Q. What is the primary goal of the Global Environment Facility (GEF)?

a) To provide financial assistance for biodiversity conservation projects b) To regulate international trade of endangered species c) To promote sustainable agriculture practices d) To raise public awareness about the importance of biodiversity Answer: a) To provide financial assistance for biodiversity conservation projects

Q. What is the primary cause of coral bleaching?

a) Climate change and rising ocean temperatures b) Pollution in marine ecosystems c) Overfishing of coral reef systems d) Habitat destruction due to coastal development Answer: a) Climate change and rising ocean temperatures

Q. Which of the following is an example of a flagship species for marine conservation?

a) Sea turtle b) Whale shark c) Coral reef d) Pufferfish Answer: a) Sea turtle

Q. What is the primary goal of the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals (CMS)?

a) To protect and conserve migratory bird species b) To regulate the hunting of migratory species c) To conserve and manage migratory species and their habitats d) To promote international cooperation on conserving migratory species Answer: c) To conserve and manage migratory species and their habitats

Chapter 16 Environmental Issues

Q. Which of the following is a primary source of air pollution?

a) Volcanic eruptions b) Burning fossil fuels c) Deforestation d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the main cause of global warming?

a) Increased burning of fossil fuels b) Deforestation c) Industrial pollution d) Ozone depletion Answer: a) Increased burning of fossil fuels

Q. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?

a) Solar energy b) Wind energy c) Fossil fuels d) Geothermal energy Answer: c) Fossil fuels

Q. Acid rain is caused by the emission of which gases?

a) Carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide b) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides c) Methane and ozone d) Hydrogen sulphide and ammonia Answer: b) Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides

Q. Which of the following is a major cause of soil erosion?

a) Overgrazing b) Deforestation c) Improper agricultural practices d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. The ozone layer is found in which part of the Earth’s atmosphere?

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere Answer: b) Stratosphere

Q. What is the main source of water pollution in rivers and lakes?

a) Industrial waste b) Agricultural runoff c) Sewage discharge d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the term used to describe the loss of biodiversity due to human activities?

a) Eutrophication b) Desertification c) Invasive species d) Extinction Answer: d) Extinction

Q. The Kyoto Protocol aims to reduce emissions of which greenhouse gases?

a) Carbon dioxide b) Methane c) Nitrous oxide d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the term used to describe the process of converting waste materials into reusable materials?

a) Recycling b) Composting c) Incineration d) Landfilling Answer: a) Recycling

Q. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

a) Nuclear power b) Natural gas c) Coal d) Solar power Answer: d) Solar power

Q. What is the main cause of ozone depletion?

a) Deforestation b) Industrial pollution c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) d) Acid rain Answer: c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

Q. What is the term used to describe the excessive growth of algae in water bodies?

a) Eutrophication b) Desertification c) Global warming d) Acidification Answer: a) Eutrophication

Q. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Argon Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

Q. What is the primary cause of deforestation?

a) Urbanization b) Agricultural expansion c) Industrialization d) Natural disasters Answer: b) Agricultural expansion

Q. What is the main concern associated with genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?

a) Loss of biodiversity b) Increased pesticide use c) Potential health risks d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is an example of a point source of water pollution?

a) Sewage treatment plant b) Agricultural runoff c) Atmospheric deposition d) Oil spill Answer: a) Sewage treatment plant

Q. What is the term used to describe the wearing away of the Earth’s surface by wind or water?

a) Erosion b) Deforestation c) Desertification d) Soil degradation Answer: a) Erosion

Q. What is the main cause of acidification in oceans?

a) Pollution from industrial activities b) Burning of fossil fuels c) Chemical fertilizers used in agriculture d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. Which of the following is a renewable source of freshwater?

a) Groundwater b) Glaciers c) Rivers d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the main source of indoor air pollution?

a) Cooking stoves b) Automobile emissions c) Industrial emissions d) Agriculture activities Answer: a) Cooking stoves

Q. What is the term used to describe the gradual increase in the Earth’s average temperature?

a) Global warming b) Acid rain c) Ozone depletion d) Desertification Answer: a) Global warming

Q. What is the main cause of habitat destruction?

a) Climate change b) Deforestation c) Pollution d) None of the above Answer: b) Deforestation

Q. Which of the following is a consequence of overfishing?

a) Decline in biodiversity b) Disruption of food chains c) Economic losses for fishing communities d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the primary source of plastic pollution in the oceans?

a) Fishing nets b) Plastic bottles c) Microplastics from cosmetics d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the term used to describe the loss of productive land due to human activities?

a) Desertification b) Soil erosion c) Acidification d) Pollination Answer: a) Desertification

Q. Which of the following is a source of indoor air pollution?

a) Tobacco smoke b) Radon gas c) Asbestos fibers d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the main source of noise pollution?

a) Construction sites b) Industrial activities c) Traffic d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the term used to describe the introduction of foreign species into an ecosystem?

a) Pollution b) Habitat loss c) Deforestation d) Invasive species Answer: d) Invasive species

Q. Which of the following is a consequence of soil degradation?

a) Reduced agricultural productivity b) Increased erosion and flooding c) Loss of habitat and biodiversity d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the main cause of water scarcity in many regions of the world?

a) Overpopulation b) Drought c) Pollution d) Climate change Answer: b) Drought

Q. Which of the following is a consequence of air pollution?

a) Respiratory diseases b) Acid rain c) Global warming d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the main cause of coral reef destruction?

a) Pollution b) Climate change c) Overfishing d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the primary cause of waste generation?

a) Household activities b) Industrial activities c) Commercial activities d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the main cause of depletion of the ozone layer?

a) Industrial emissions b) Volcanic eruptions c) CFCs d) Forest fires Answer: c) CFCs

Q. What is the term used to describe the process of converting organic waste into nutrient-rich soil?

a) Recycling b) Composting c) Incineration d) Landfilling Answer: b) Composting

Q. What is the main cause of water pollution in coastal areas?

a) Oil spills b) Sewage discharge c) Agricultural runoff d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the term used to describe the process by which plants convert sunlight into energy?

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Decomposition d) Transpiration Answer: a) Photosynthesis

Q. Which of the following is a consequence of deforestation?

a) Loss of biodiversity b) Soil erosion c) Climate change d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the main cause of water pollution in developing countries?

a) Lack of sanitation facilities b) Industrial discharges c) Oil spills d) Agricultural runoff Answer: a) Lack of sanitation facilities

Q. What is the term used to describe the process of converting waste materials into heat and energy?

a) Recycling b) Composting c) Incineration d) Landfilling Answer: c) Incineration

Q. Which of the following is a consequence of urbanization?

a) Habitat destruction b) Increased pollution c) Deforestation d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Q. What is the primary cause of noise pollution in urban areas?

a) Construction activities b) Traffic c) Industrial activities d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Chapter 1 relations and functions

Q. Which of the following is a reflexive relation?

a) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)} b) {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 1)} c) {(1, 1), (2, 3), (3, 2)} d) {(1, 3), (2, 2), (3, 1)}

Q. If A and B are two sets and A B, then which of the following is true?

a) A is a proper subset of B b) B is a proper subset of A c) A is not a subset of B d) A is equal to B

Q. Which of the following functions is not injective?

a) f(x) = x^2 b) f(x) = e^x c) f(x) = |x| d) f(x) = sin(x)

Q. If A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {2, 3, 4}, then A B is equal to:

a) {1, 2, 3} b) {1, 2, 3, 4} c) {2, 3} d) {1, 4}

Q. Which of the following is not a symmetric relation?

a) {(1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 4)} b) {(1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 2)} c) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3)} d) {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 2)}

Q. The composition of functions f: A → B and g: B → C is denoted by:

a) f g b) f ∩ g c) f ° g d) f × g

Q. If a relation is both reflexive and transitive, then it is also:

a) symmetric b) antisymmetric c) surjective d) injective

Q. The inverse of a relation R is denoted by:

a) R^2 b) R^- c) R' d) R^-1

Q. If f(x) = 2x + 1 and g(x) = 3x - 2, then g(f(0)) is equal to:

a) -2 b) -1 c) 1 d) 2

Q. Which of the following is not a function?

a) {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4)} b) {(1, 2), (1, 3), (2, 4)} c) {(1, 2), (2, 2), (3, 4)} d) {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5)}

Q. The domain of the function f(x) = √(4 - x^2) is:

a) (-∞, -2) (2, ∞) b) [-2, 2] c) (-2, 2) d) (-∞, ∞)

Q. If A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {3, 4, 5}, then A ∩ B is equal to:

a) {1, 2, 3} b) {3} c) {4, 5} d) (empty set)

Q. The range of the function f(x) = x^2 is:

a) (-∞, 0) [0, ∞) b) (-∞, ∞) c) [0, ∞) d) (0, ∞)

Q. If f(x) = x + 3 and g(x) = 2x - 1, then (f g)(x) is equal to:

a) 3x + 2 b) 2x + 5 c) 2x - 2 d) 3x - 1

Q. If a relation is antisymmetric, then:

a) every element is related to itself b) there exist elements unrelated c) no two different elements are related d) no element is related to itself

Q. The inverse of a function f(x) is denoted by:

a) f^2(x) b) f^(-1)(x) c) f’ d) f^(*)x

Q. The range of the function f(x) = e^x is:

a) (-∞, 0) [0, ∞) b) (-∞, ∞) c) [0, ∞) d) (0, ∞)

Q. The composition of functions is always:

a) commutative b) transitive c) associative d) distributive

Q. Which of the following sets is an equivalence relation?

a) {(1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 3)} b) {(a, a), (b, b), (c, c)} c) {(1, 3), (2, 3), (3, 1)} d) {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 1)}

Q. If f(x) = x^2 + 1 and g(x) = √(x - 1), then (g f)(x) is equal to:

a) x + 1 b) x^2 + 2 c) x + 2 d) x^2 - 1

Q. The domain of the function f(x) = 1/x is:

a) (-∞, 0) (0, ∞) b) (-∞, ∞) c) [0, ∞) d) (-∞, 0] (0, ∞)

Q. If a relation is symmetric, then:

a) every element is related to itself b) every element is related to another element c) no two different elements are related d) there exist elements unrelated

Q. The image of the set A = {1, 2, 3} under the function f(x) = x^2 is:

a) {1, 4, 9} b) {1, 2, 3} c) {2, 4, 6} d) {1, 3, 5}

Q. The composition of a function with its inverse is always equal to:

a) the identity function b) the zero function c) the constant function d) the null function

Q. If f(x) = 2x - 1 and g(x) = x^2 - 2, then (f ° g)(x) is equal to:

a) 2x^2 - 3 b) 3x^2 - 4 c) 2x^2 - 4 d) 3x^2 - 3

Q. The empty set is a subset of:

a) every set b) no set c) itself d) the set containing the null set

Q. The composition of a function with its inverse is:

a) always an identity function b) always a constant function c) always a linear function d) always a quadratic function

Q. If f(x) = 3x + 2 and g(x) = x^2 + 1, then (g f)(x) is equal to:

a) 9x^2 + 6x + 3 b) 3x^2 + 9x + 4 c) 3x^2 + 6x + 1 d) 9x^2 + 3x + 4

Q. The domain of the function f(x) = √x is:

a) (-∞, 0) (0, ∞) b) (-∞, ∞) c) [0, ∞) d) (-∞, 0] (0, ∞)

Q. If A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {2, 3, 4, 5}, then A × B is equal to:

a) {(1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 5)} b) {(2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5)} c) {(1, 2), (2, 3), (3, 4), (4, 5)} d) {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (1, 2), (1, 3), (2, 3), (1, 4)}

Q. The image of the empty set under any function is:

a) a null set b) an empty set c) a single element d) a set with multiple elements

Chapter 2 inverse trigonometric functions

Q. The inverse function of sine is:

a) sine^-1(x) b) arcsin(x) c) sin^-1(x) d) asin(x)

Q. If sin(θ) = 1/2, then the possible values of θ are:

a) π/6 and 5π/6 b) π/4 and 3π/4 c) π/3 and 2π/3 d) None of the above

Q. If cos(θ) = -1/2, then the possible values of θ are:

a) π/3 and 5π/3 b) π/4 and 7π/4 c) 2π/3 and 4π/3 d) None of the above

Q. The range of sine inverse function is:

a) [-1, 1] b) [-π/2, π/2] c) [0, π/2] d) (-∞, ∞)

Q. The value of sin^-1(sin(π/6)) is:

a) π/6 b) π/4 c) 3π/4 d) -π/6

Q. The value of cos^-1(cos(5π/4)) is:

a) 5π/4 b) π/4 c) 3π/4 d) -π/4

Q. The value of tan^-1(tan(3π/4)) is:

a) 3π/4 b) π/4 c) 5π/4 d) -3π/4

Q. The value of sin(sin^-1(2/3)) is:

a) 2/3 b) π/2 c) 1/2 d) 0

Q. The value of cos(cos^-1(-1/2)) is:

a) -1/2 b) 1 c) 1/2 d) 0

Q. The value of tan(tan^-1(1)) is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) ∞ d) -1

Q. The principal value of cos^-1(0) is:

a) 0 b) π/2 c) -π/2 d) Undefined

Q. The value of sin(cos^-1(1/2)) is:

a) 1/2 b) -1/2 c) 0 d) Undefined

Q. The value of tan^-1(√3) is:

a) π/3 b) π/4 c) π/6 d) None of the above

Q. The value of cos^-1(-1) is:

a) π/2 b) -π/2 c) π d) Undefined

Q. The value of sin^-1(cos(π)) is:

a) 0 b) π/2 c) -π/2 d) Undefined

Q. If sin(x) = cos(y), then the value of x is:

a) y + π/4 b) y - π/4 c) π/2 - x d) x + y + π/2

Q. If cos(x) = -sin(y), then the value of x is:

a) y + π/2 b) y - π/2 c) π/2 - x d) x + y + π/2

Q. The value of (sin^-1(x))^2 + (cos^-1(x))^2 is:

a) π/2 b) 1 c) 0 d) Undefined

Q. The value of sin^-1(0) + cos^-1(0) is:

a) 1 b) -1 c) π/2 d) 0

Q. The domain of tan^-1(x) is:

a) (-∞, ∞) b) [-1, 1] c) [-π/2, π/2] d) [0, π/2)

Q. The value of tan^-1(1) - tan^-1(√3) is:

a) π/4 b) -π/3 c) -π/6 d) None of the above

Q. The value of cos(tan^-1(1)) is:

a) 1/√2 b) √2/2 c) -√2/2 d) 1/2

Q. The value of tan^-1(x) + arctan(1/x) is:

a) π/2 b) π/4 c) π d) Undefined

Q. The value of sin(arcsin(x) + arccos(x)) is:

a) 1 b) x c) √(1 - x^2) d) Undefined

Q. The value of sin^-1(sin(x)) is:

a) x b) 2π - x c) π/2 - x d) Undefined

Q. The value of cos^-1(cos(x)) is:

a) x b) 2π - x c) π/2 - x d) Undefined

Q. The value of tan^-1(tan(x)) is:

a) x b) 2π - x c) π/2 - x d) Undefined

Q. The value of sin(tan^-1(x)) is:

a) x/√(1 + x^2) b) √(1 + x^2)/x c) -√(1 + x^2)/x d) 1/√(1 + x^2)

Q. The value of cos(arctan(x)) is:

a) 1/√(1 + x^2) b) √(1 + x^2)/x c) -√(1 + x^2)/x d) x/√(1 + x^2)

Q. The value of tan(sin^-1(x)) is:

a) x/√(1 - x^2) b) √(1 - x^2)/x c) -√(1 - x^2)/x d) 1/√(1 - x^2)

Q. The value of sin(arcsin(1/2) + arccos(√3/2)) is:

a) 1 b) 1/2 c) 3/2 d) Undefined

Q. The value of cos(arcsin(-1/2) + arccos(-√3/2)) is:

a) 1 b) -1/2 c) -√3/2 d) Undefined

Q. The value of tan(arcsin(1/3) + arccos(√8/3)) is:

a) 1 b) 1/3 c) 2/3 d) Undefined

Q. The value of sin(arcsin(-2/5) + arccos(-√21/5)) is:

a) 1 b) -2/5 c) -√21/5 d) Undefined

Q. The value of cos(arcsin(-3/4) + arccos(-√7/4)) is:

a) 1 b) -3/4 c) -√7/4 d) Undefined

Q. The value of tan(arcsin(3/4) + arccos(√7/4)) is:

a) 1 b) 3/4 c) 4/3 d) Undefined

Q. If sin(x) = -1/2 and cos(y) = -√3/2, then the value of x + y is:

a) π/3 b) 2π/3 c) -2π/3 d) -π/3

Q. If cos(x) = 1/2 and cos(y) = -1/2, then the value of x + y is:

a) 2π/3 b) -2π/3 c) π/3 d) -π/3

Q. If tan(x) = √3 and tan(y) = -√3, then the value of x - y is:

a) π/3 b) 2π/3 c) -2π/3 d) -π/3

Q. If sin(x) = 1/2 and sin(y) = -1/2, then the value of x - y is:

a) π/3 b) 2π/3 c) -2π/3 d) -π/3

Q. If cos(arcsin(x)) = 1/2, then the value of x is:

a) ±√3/2 b) ±1/2 c) ±1 d) Undefined

Chapter 3 matrices

Q. The product of two matrices is defined if and only if:

A) they have the same number of rows B) they have the same number of columns C) the number of columns of the first matrix is equal to the number of rows of the second matrix D) they both have square dimensions

Q. If A and B are two matrices such that AB ≠ BA, then matrix multiplication is:

A) commutative B) associative C) distributive D) none of the above

Q. In matrix addition, the result is obtained by:

A) adding the corresponding elements of both matrices B) subtracting the corresponding elements of both matrices C) multiplying the corresponding elements of both matrices D) none of the above

Q. If A is a square matrix of order n, and A is invertible, then the inverse of A is denoted as:

A) A^T B) A^(-1) C) -A D) none of the above

Q. The transpose of a matrix is obtained by:

A) interchanging its rows and columns B) multiplying each element by -1 C) adding its rows and columns D) none of the above

Q. The determinant of a 2x2 matrix [a b; c d] is given by:

A) ad - bc B) ab + cd C) a + b + c + d D) none of the above

Q. The sum of the elements in the main diagonal of a square matrix is called:

A) trace B) determinant C) identity D) none of the above

Q. If a matrix has only one row or one column, it is called a:

A) square matrix B) diagonal matrix C) row matrix D) column matrix

Q. The matrix that has all its diagonal elements as 1 and all other elements as 0 is called:

A) identity matrix B) zero matrix C) scalar matrix D) diagonal matrix

Q. If A and B are two matrices of the same order, then A + B is :

A) commutative B) associative C) distributive D) none of the above

Q. The sum of the coefficients of the equation |A| = 0 (where A is a 3x3 matrix) is:

A) -3 B) 0 C) 1 D) none of the above

Q. If the transpose of a matrix A is itself, then matrix A is:

A) a square matrix B) a symmetric matrix C) an anti-symmetric matrix D) none of the above

Q. The inverse of the identity matrix is:

A) any square matrix B) the identity matrix itself C) not defined D) none of the above

Q. If A and B are two matrices, then (A + B)^T is equal to:

A) A^T + B^T B) A^T - B^T C) A - B D) none of the above

Q. If matrix A is of order m x n and matrix B is of order n x p, then the order of the product AB is:

A) m x p B) n x p C) m x n D) none of the above

Q. If A is a square matrix of order n, then A x I =:

A) A B) I C) 0 D) none of the above

Q. If two matrices A and B are such that AB = BA, then matrix multiplication is:

A) commutative B) associative C) distributive D) none of the above

Q. The rank of the null matrix is:

A) 0 B) 1 C) -1 D) none of the above

Q. If the determinant of a matrix is zero, then the matrix is said to be:

A) invertible B) non-invertible C) scalar D) none of the above

Q. If A and B are two matrices such that AB = BA = 0, then matrix A and matrix B are:

A) inverses of each other B) orthogonal C) linearly independent D) none of the above

Q. If A is a square matrix of order n, and det(A) = 0, then A is:

A) invertible B) non-invertible C) identity matrix D) none of the above

Q. The sum of the minors of any row or column of a matrix is equal to its:

A) determinant B) rank C) trace D) none of the above

Q. If A is an upper triangular matrix, then the determinant of A is equal to the product of:

A) elements in the main diagonal B) elements above the main diagonal C) elements below the main diagonal D) none of the above

Q. The product of two orthogonal matrices is always:

A) orthogonal B) symmetric C) anti-symmetric D) none of the above

Q. If A is a square matrix, and A^2 = 0, then A is said to be:

A) invertible B) non-invertible C) idempotent D) none of the above

Q. If A is a square matrix and AB = AC, where B and C are two matrices of the same order, then:

A) B = C B) B ≠ C C) B = A D) none of the above

Q. The rank of a matrix is defined as the:

A) number of rows B) number of columns C) number of non-zero rows D) none of the above

Q. The determinant of a matrix remains the same if its rows are:

A) interchanged B) multiplied by a constant C) added with a multiple of another row D) none of the above

Q. The diagonal elements of a skew-symmetric matrix are always:

A) positive B) negative C) 0 D) none of the above

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, and AB = BA, then A and B are:

A) inverses of each other B) orthogonal C) symmetric D) none of the above

Q. If A is a square matrix and AB = 0, then B is said to be:

A) invertible B) non-invertible C) idempotent D) none of the above

Q. The eigenvalues of a diagonal matrix are:

A) the elements of the main diagonal B) the elements above the main diagonal C) the elements below the main diagonal D) none of the above

Q. The determinant of a triangular matrix is equal to the product of:

A) elements in the main diagonal B) elements above the main diagonal C) elements below the main diagonal D) none of the above

Q. If A is a square matrix, and A^3 = A, then A is said to be:

A) invertible B) non-invertible C) idempotent D) none of the above

Q. The rank of the identity matrix is always:

A) 0 B) 1 C) n (order of the matrix) D) none of the above

Q. The rank of a matrix is less than or equal to the smaller of its:

A) number of rows B) number of columns C) number of non-zero rows D) none of the above

Q. If A and B are two matrices, then (AB)^T is equal to:

A) A^T + B^T B) A^T - B^T C) B^T * A^T D) none of the above

Q. If matrix A is of order m x n and matrix B is of order p x q, then the multiplication AB is:

A) defined only if n = p B) defined only if m = q C) defined only if n = q D) none of the

Q. The determinant of a product of two matrices is equal to the product of their:

A) determinants B) traces C) ranks D) none of the above

Q. The matrix obtained by interchanging the rows and columns of a given matrix is called its:

A) inverse matrix B) transpose matrix C) identity matrix D) none of the above

Chapter 4 determinants

Q. If the value of the determinant |A| is zero, then which of the following statements is true?

a) A is invertible b) A is singular c) A is symmetric d) A is skew-symmetric

Q. The value of the determinant |2A|, where A is a square matrix, will be:

a) 2|A| b) |A|^2 c) 2^n |A| d) |2A|

Q. For a square matrix A, which of the following is true?

a) |A| = -|A| b) |A| = |A^T| c) |A^T| = |A| d) |A^2| = |A|^2

Q. The value of the determinant of a diagonal matrix is equal to:

a) 1 b) the sum of the diagonal elements c) the product of the diagonal elements d) zero

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |AB| is equal to:

a) |A| * |B| b) |A| + |B| c) |A| - |B| d) |A|^2 * |B|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A + B| is equal to:

a) |A| + |B| b) |A|^2 + |B|^2 c) |A| * |B| d) |A + B|

Q. If |A| = 0, then which of the following statements is true?

a) A is invertible b) A is singular c) A is symmetric d) A is skew-symmetric

Q. If the determinant of a matrix A is non-zero, then A is:

a) invertible b) singular c) symmetric d) skew-symmetric

Q. The value of the determinant |adj(A)|, where A is a square matrix, will be:

a) |A| b) |A|^2 c) |A|^(n-1) d) 1/|A|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A^T B^T| is equal to:

a) |AB| b) |A^T| * |B^T| c) |A^T B^T| d) |A| * |B|

Q. If |A| = 1, then |A^2| will be:

a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) |A|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |2A + B| is equal to:

a) |2A| + |B| b) 2|A| + |B| c) 2^n |A| + |B| d) 2|A + B|

Q. If A is a skew-symmetric matrix, then the value of |A| is always:

a) positive b) negative c) zero d) unpredictable

Q. For a lower triangular matrix, the value of the determinant is equal to:

a) 1 b) the sum of the diagonal elements c) the product of the diagonal elements d) zero

Q. If A is a square matrix, then |A^T A| is equal to:

a) |A|^2 b) |A|^4 c) |A|^n d) |A^2|

Q. If |A| = 1, then |A^(-1)| will be:

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) |A|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A - B| is equal to:

a) |A| + |B| b) |A|^2 + |B|^2 c) |A| * |B| d) |A - B|

Q. If A is an identity matrix of order n, then |A| is equal to:

a) 1 b) n c) 0 d) unpredictable

Q. If |A| = -1, then |A^(-1)| will be:

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) |A|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |AB^T| is equal to:

a) |AB|^T b) |A| * |B| c) |AB^T| d) |AB| * |B^T|

Q. If A is an upper triangular matrix, then the value of the determinant is equal to:

a) 1 b) the sum of the diagonal elements c) the product of the diagonal elements d) zero

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, and |A| = |B|, then which of the following statem ents is true?

a) A = B b) A = -B c) A^T = B^T d) A^(-1) = B^(-1)

Q. If |A| = |A^T|, then A is:

a) invertible b) singular c) symmetric d) skew-symmetric

Q. If A is a square matrix, then |A| = |A^(-1)| is equal to:

a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) |A|

Q. The value of the determinant of an identity matrix is equal to:

a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) n

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, and |A| = -|B|, then which of the following state ments is true?

a) A = B b) A = -B c) A^T = B^T d) A^(-1) = B^(-1)

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A/I| is equal to:

a) |A| b) |I| c) |A| * |I| d) 1

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A/I + A| is equal to:

a) |A/I + A| b) |A/I| + |A| c) |A/I| * |A| d) |A/I + A| * |A|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A^(-1) + B^(-1)| is equal to:

a) |A^(-1) + B^(-1)| b) |A^(-1)| + |B^(-1)| c) |A^(-1)| * |B^(-1)| d) |A^(-1) + B^(-1)| * |A^(-1)| * |B^(-1)|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A^(-T) + B^(-T)| is equal to:

a) |A^(-T) + B^(-T)| b) |A^(-T)| + |B^(-T)| c) |A^(-T)| * |B^(-T)| d) |A^(-T) + B^(-T)| * |A^(-T)| * |B^(-T)|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A^(-1) - B^(-1)| is equal to:

a) |A^(-1) - B^(-1)| b) |A^(-1)| - |B^(-1)| c) |A^(-1)| * |B^(-1)| d) |A^(-1) - B^(-1)| * |A^(-1)| * |B^(-1)|

Q. If A and B are two square matrices of the same order, then |A^(-T) - B^(-T)| is equal to:

a) |A^(-T) - B^(-T)| b) |A^(-T)| - |B^(-T)| c) |A^(-T)| * |B^(-T)| d) |A^(-T) - B^(-T)| * |A^(-T)| * |B^(-T)|

Chapter 5 continuity and differentiability

Q. If a function is continuous at a given point, then which of the following must also be true?

a) The function is differentiable at that point b) The function is decreasing at that point c) The function is discontinuous at that point d) The function is increasing at that point

Q. The derivative of a constant function is:

a) Zero b) The constant itself c) One d) Infinity

Q. The function f(x) = |x| is:

a) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 b) Differentiable but not continuous at x = 0 c) Both continuous and differentiable at x = 0 d) Neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0

Q. The derivative of f(x) = sin(x) at x = π/2 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. A function is said to be differentiable at a point if:

a) The function is continuous at that point b) The function has no jump discontinuity at that point c) The derivative exists at that point d) The function has no vertical asymptote at that point

Q. The function f(x) = x^3 is:

a) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 b) Differentiable but not continuous at x = 0 c) Both continuous and differentiable at x = 0 d) Neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0

Q. If the derivative of a function f(x) is positive for all x, then the function is:

a) Increasing b) Decreasing c) Constant d) Non-differentiable

Q. Which of the following is a necessary condition for a function to be differentiable at a given point?

a) The function is continuous at that point b) The function is increasing at that point c) The function has a removable discontinuity at that point d) The function is decreasing at that point

Q. The derivative of f(x) = e^x at x = 0 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. If f(x) is a differentiable function, which of the following is equivalent to f'(x) = 0?

a) x is a local maximum or minimum of f(x) b) f(x) has a vertical tangent line at x c) f(x) has a removable discontinuity at x d) f(x) is continuous at x

Q. The function f(x) = 1/x is:

a) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 b) Differentiable but not continuous at x = 0 c) Both continuous and differentiable at x = 0 d) Neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0

Q. If f(x) is a continuous function and g(x) = f(x) + const, then:

a) f(x) and g(x) have the same derivative b) f(x) and g(x) have the same domain c) f(x) and g(x) have the same range d) f(x) and g(x) have the same graph

Q. The derivative of f(x) = ln(x) at x = 1 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. If f(x) is a differentiable function, then f'(a) represents the:

a) Slope of the tangent line to the graph of f(x) at x = a b) Area under the graph of f(x) from a to x c) Volume of the solid formed by revolving the graph of f(x) about the x-axis d) Arc length of the graph of f(x) from a to x

Q. The function f(x) = |x^2 - 4| is:

a) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 b) Differentiable but not continuous at x = 0 c) Both continuous and differentiable at x = 0 d) Neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0

Q. If the second derivative of a function f(x) is positive for all x, then the function is:

a) Concave up b) Concave down c) Increasing d) Decreasing

Q. The derivative of f(x) = cosec(x) at x = π/2 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. The function f(x) = √(25 - x^2) has a vertical tangent line at:

a) x = -5 b) x = 0 c) x = 5 d) x = ±5

Q. If f(x) has a relative maximum at x = c, then:

a) f'(c) = 0 b) f'(c) = -1 c) f'(c) = 1 d) f'(c) is undefined

Q. The derivative of f(x) = tan(x) at x = π/4 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. A function is said to be continuous on a closed interval [a, b] if:

a) The function is differentiable at every point in (a, b) b) The function is differentiable at every point in [a, b] c) The function is continuous at every point in [a, b] d) The function is continuous at every point in (a, b)

Q. The derivative of f(x) = x^2 at x = -2 is:

a) 4 b) 0 c) -4 d) Undefined

Q. The function f(x) = 1/x^2 is:

a) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 b) Differentiable but not continuous at x = 0 c) Both continuous and differentiable at x = 0 d) Neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0

Q. If f(x) is a differentiable function, which of the following is equivalent to f'(x) > 0?

a) f(x) is increasing b) f(x) is decreasing c) f(x) is constant d) f(x) is non-differentiable

Q. The derivative of f(x) = cos(x) at x = π/2 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. The function f(x) = x^4 has a point of inflection at:

a) x = 0 b) x = 1 c) x = -1 d) x = ±√2

Q. A function is said to be differentiable on an open interval (a, b) if:

a) The function is continuous on the interval [a, b] b) The function has no jump discontinuity on the interval [a, b] c) The derivative exists for all x in (a, b) d) The function has no vertical asymptote on the interval (a, b)

Q. The derivative of f(x) = ln|x| at x = 1 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. If f(x) is a continuous function on [a, b] and g(x) is a differentiable function on (a, b), then which of the f

ollowing is true? a) f'(x) = g'(x) for all x in (a, b) b) f(x) = g(x) for all x in [a, b] c) f(x) = g(x) for all x in (a, b) d) f'(x) = g'(x) for all x in [a, b]

Q. The derivative of f(x) = 1/cos(x) at x = π/2 is:

a) 1 b) 0 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. If f(x) is a differentiable function and f'(x) = g(x), then g(x) represents the:

a) Second derivative of f(x) b) Antiderivative of f(x) c) Integral of f(x) d) Slope of the tangent line to the graph of f(x)

Q. The function f(x) = |x|^3 is:

a) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0 b) Differentiable but not continuous at x = 0 c) Both continuous and differentiable at x = 0 d) Neither continuous nor differentiable at x = 0

Chapter 6 application of derivatives

Q. Which of the following is the derivative of the function f(x) = 3x^2 - 2x + 5?

a) 6x - 2 b) 6x - 1 c) 6x + 2 d) 3x^2 - 2x

Q. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y = 2x^3 - 4x^2 + 1 at the point (1, -1).

a) y = 8x - 9 b) y = 2x - 3 c) y = 6x - 5 d) y = 4x + 1

Q. Find the critical points of the function f(x) = x^3 - 6x^2 + 9x + 2.

a) x = 0, 3 b) x = 1, 2 c) x = 1, 3 d) x = -2, 3

Q. Find the global maximum and minimum values of the function f(x) = x^4 - 4x^3 + 3x^2 + 1 on the interv al [-2, 3].

a) Max: 16, Min: 0 b) Max: 19, Min: 3 c) Max: 15, Min: -1 d) Max: 18, Min: 6

Q. Find the value of c for which the line y = cx + 2 is a tangent to the curve y = x^2 - 4x + 3.

a) c = 4 b) c = 2 c) c = -2 d) c = -4

Q. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = ln(x^2 + 3x - 5).

a) 1 / (x^2 + 3x - 5) b) 2x + 3 / (x^2 + 3x - 5) c) 2x + 3 / (2x + 3) d) 1 / (2x + 3)

Q. Find the points of inflection of the function f(x) = 3x^3 - 9x^2 + 6x - 2.

a) (0, -2) b) (1, -2) c) (0, 2) d) (1, 2)

Q. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = e^x * sin(x).

a) e^x * cos(x) + sin(x) b) e^x * cos(x) - sin(x) c) e^x * sin(x) + cos(x) d) e^x * sin(x) - cos(x)

Q. Find the equation of the normal line to the curve y = 2x^3 + 3x - 5 at the point (1, 0).

a) y = -4x + 4 b) y = 4x - 1 c) y = -x + 2 d) y = x - 1

Q. Find the points of local maximum and minimum of the function f(x) = x^3 - 9x^2 + 24x - 16.

a) Max: (0, -16), Min: (3, -16) b) Max: (2, 16), Min: (4, -8) c) Max: (2, 16), Min: (3, -16) d) Max: (0, -16), Min: (4, -8) 11. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = sqrt(x^2 + 1). a) 2x / sqrt(x^2 + 1) b) (x^2 + 1)^2 c) x / sqrt(x^2 + 1) d) (x^2 + 1) / (2x)

Q. Find the area of the largest rectangle that can be inscribed in the ellipse x^2/9 + y^2/4 = 1.

a) 6 square units b) 8 square units c) 12 square units d) 16 square units

Q. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = cos(2x).

a) -2sin(2x) b) -sin(2x) c) 2sin(2x) d) sin(2x)

Q. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y = 2sqrt(x) - x^2 at the point (4, 0).

a) y = -2x - 8 b) y = -4x - 16 c) y = -3x - 12 d) y = -x - 4

Q. Find the maximum value of the function f(x) = x^2 - 4x on the interval [1, 4].

a) 0 b) 1 c) 4 d) 5

Q. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y = e^x * sin(x) at the point (0, 0).

a) y = x b) y = x^2 c) y = -x d) y = -x^2

Q. Find the slope of the line tangent to the curve y = 3x^4 + 2x^2 + 1 at the point (-1, 2).

a) 29 b) 31 c) 33 d) 35

Q. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = x^4 * ln(x).

a) x^3 * (4ln(x) + 1) b) x^3 * (ln(x) + 1) c) x^4 * ln(x) d) x^4 * (ln(x) + 1)

Q. Find the equation of the normal line to the curve y = 2x^3 + 1/2x - 5 at the point (2, -5).

a) y = -3x + 1 b) y = 3x + 1 c) y = -2x + 2 d) y = 2x + 1

Q. Find the points of local maximum and minimum of the function f(x) = x^3 - 6x^2 + 9x + 10.

a) Max: (1, 14), Min: (2, 2) b) Max: (1, 14), Min: (3, -2) c) Max: (0, 10), Min: (3, -2) d) Max: (2, 10), Min: (3, -2)

Q. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = e^(2x) + ln(x).

a) 2e^(2x) + 1/x b) 2e^(2x) - 1/x c) 2e^(2x) + ln(x) d) 2e^(2x) - ln(x)

Q. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = 1 / sqrt(x^2 + 1).

a) -x / (sqrt(x^2 + 1))^3 b) -1 / (sqrt(x^2 + 1))^3 c) -x / (x^2 + 1) d) -1 / (x^2 + 1)

Q. Find the equation of the tangent line to the curve y = ln(x) - sqrt(x) at the point (1, 0).

a) y = x - 1 b) y = -x + 1 c) y = -x - 1 d) y = x + 1

Q. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = (x - 1)^3 / (x^2 + 1).

a) (x^2 + 3x - 2) / (x^2 + 1)^2 b) (x^2 - 3x - 1) / (x^2 + 1)^2 c) (x^2 + 3x - 2) / (x^2 - 1)^2 d) (x^2 - 3x - 1) / (x^2 - 1)^2

Q. Find the maximum value of the function f(x) = 3x^2 - 4x + 2 on the interval [-2, 1].

a) 8 b) 2 c) 5 d) 4

Q. Find the derivative of the function f(x) = sin^2(x) - cos^2(x).

a) 2sin(x)cos(x) b) cos(x) - sin(x) c) 2cos(x)sin(x) d) sin(x) + cos(x)

Chapter 7 integrals

Q. The integral of 3x^2 is equal to:

a) x^3 + C b) 2x^2 + C c) 3x^3 + C d) x^2 + C

Q. The integral of sin(x) is equal to:

a) -cos(x) + C b) -sin(x) + C c) cos(x) + C d) sin(x) + C

Q. The integral of e^x is equal to:

a) e^x + C b) -e^x + C c) e^x/2 + C d) -e^x/2 + C

Q. The integral of 5 is equal to:

a) 5x + C b) 5 + C c) 0 d) 5/x + C

Q. The integral of 1/x is equal to:

a) ln(x) + C b) 1/x + C c) x + C d) -ln(x) + C

Q. The integral of x^3 + 2x^2 - 3x + 4 is equal to:

a) x^4/4 + 2x^3/3 - 3x^2/2 + 4x + C b) x^4/4 + x^3/3 - 3x^2 + 4x + C c) 3x^4 + 2x^3 - 3x^2 + 4x + C d) x^4/4 + 2x^3/3 - 3x + 4x + C

Q. The integral of 1/(x^2 + 1) is equal to:

a) tan^(-1)(x) + C b) 1/(x^2 + 1) + C c) ln(x^2 + 1) + C d) 1/(2x) + C

Q. The integral of e^(3x) is equal to:

a) e^(3x) + C b) (1/3)e^(3x) + C c) (1/3)e^(2x) + C d) e^(2x) + C

Q. The integral of sqrt(x) is equal to:

a) (2/3)x^(3/2) + C b) (1/2)x^(3/2) + C c) (4/5)x^(5/2) + C d) (3/2)x^(1/2) + C

Q. The integral of cos^2(x) is equal to:

a) sin^2(x) + C b) cos(x) + C c) x - sin^2(x) + C d) x + sin^2(x) + C

Q. The integral of ln(x) is equal to:

a) x * ln(x) - x + C b) ln(x) + x + C c) (1/x)ln(x) - x + C d) (1/x)ln(x) + x + C

Q. The integral of (x^2 + 1)/x is equal to:

a) x^2/2 + xln(x) + C b) x^3/3 + x^2 + C c) (1/2)x^2 + ln(x) + C d) (1/2)x^2 + xln(x) + C

Q. The integral of e^(-x^2) is equal to:

a) -e^(-x^2) + C b) x * e^(-x^2) + C c) -2x * e^(-x^2) + C d) e^(-x^2)/2 + C

Q. The integral of cot(x) is equal to:

a) ln(sin(x)) + C b) ln(sin(x))/cos(x) + C c) ln(cos(x))/sin(x) + C d) ln(tan(x))/sin^2(x) + C

Q. The integral of 4x^3 - 2x^2 + 5x - 1 is equal to:

a) x^4 - (2/3)x^3 + (5/2)x^2 - x + C b) x^4 - (4/5)x^3 + (5/2)x^2 - x + C c) 2x^4 - x^3 + (5/2)x^2 - x + C d) 2x^4 - (4/3)x^3 + (5/2)x^2 - x + C

Q. The integral of sec(x)tan(x) is equal to:

a) sec(x) + C b) ln(sec(x)) + C c) ln(sin(x)) + C d) ln(tan(x)) + C

Q. The integral of (x + 1)(x - 2) is equal to:

a) (1/3)x^3 - x^2 - x + C b) (1/3)x^3 - 3x^2 - x + C c) (1/3)x^3 + x^2 - x + C d) (1/3)x^3 - 3x^2 + x + C

Q. The integral of (x + 1)/(x^2 + 1) is equal to:

a) ln(x^2 + 1) + C b) ln(x^2 + 1)/2 + C c) (1/2)ln(x^2 + 1) + C d) (1/2)ln(x^2 + 1)/(x + 1) + C

Q. The integral of sin^2(x) is equal to:

a) x - sin^2(x) + C b) -x + sin^2(x) + C c) (1/2)x - (1/4)sin(2x) + C d) (1/2)x + (1/4)sin(2x) + C

Q. The integral of e^(2x)cos(3x) is equal to:

a) (1/13)e^(2x)(cos(3x) + 2sin(3x)) + C b) (1/13)e^(2x)(cos(3x) - 2sin(3x)) + C c) (1/3)e^(2x)(cos(3x) + 2sin(3x)) + C d) (1/3)e^(2x)(cos(3x) - 2sin(3x)) + C

Q. The integral of x/(x^2 - 1) is equal to:

a) (1/2)ln(x^2 - 1) + C b) ln(x^2 - 1) + C c) (1/2)ln|x^2 - 1| + C d) (1/2)ln|(x - 1)(x + 1)| + C

Q. The integral of 1/sqrt(x^2 + 4) is equal to:

a) ln(x + sqrt(x^2 + 4)) + C b) ln(sqrt(x^2 + 4)) + C c) ln|x + sqrt(x^2 + 4)| + C d) ln|x - sqrt(x^2 + 4)| + C

Q. The integral of (x^2 + 1)/(x^3 + 1) is equal to:

a) ln(x^3 + 1) + C b) (1/3)ln|x^3 + 1| + C c) (1/3)ln(x^3 + 1) + C d) (1/2)ln|x^3 + 1| + C

Q. The integral of tan(x) is equal to:

a) ln|sec(x)| + C b) ln|cos(x)| + C c) ln|sin(x)| + C d) ln|tan(x)| + C

Q. The integral of e^(sqrt(x)) is equal to:

a) (2/3)x^(3/2)e^(sqrt(x)) + C b) (2/3)x^(3/2)e^x + C c) (2/3)x^(1/2)e^(sqrt(x)) + C d) (2/3)x^(1/2)e^x + C 26. The integral of 1/(x^2 - 4) is equal to: a) ln|x^2 - 4| + C b) (1/2)ln(x^2 - 4) + C c) (1/2)ln|x^2 - 4| + C d) -ln|x^2 - 4| + C

Chapter 8 application of integrals

Q. The area enclosed by the curve y = x^2 - 4x + 3, the x-axis, and the lines x = 1 and x = 3 is:

a) 2 sq units b) 6 sq units c) 8 sq units d) 10 sq units

Q. If f(x) = ∫(0 to x) sin(t^2) dt, then f'(1) is:

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) Undefined

Q. The area bounded by the curve y = x^3, the y-axis, and the lines y = 0 and y = 1 is:

a) 1/4 sq units b) 1/3 sq units c) 1/2 sq units d) 1 sq unit

Q. The value of ∫(0 to 2π) cos(2x) dx is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) 2π

Q. The area between the curves y = x^2 and y = 2 - x is:

a) 1/12 sq units b) 1/6 sq units c) 1/4 sq units d) 1/3 sq unit

Q. The value of ∫(0 to 1) 3x dx is:

a) 1/3 b) 1/2 c) 1 d) 3

Q. The area bounded by the curve y = 2x^3, the y-axis, and the lines y = 0 and y = 8 is:

a) 1/2 sq units b) 2/3 sq units c) 4 sq units d) 8 sq units

Q. If F(x) = ∫(1 to x) (t^2 + 1) dt, then F(1) is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) Undefined

Q. The value of ∫(0 to π/2) sin^2(x) dx is:

a) π/4 b) π/2 c) 1/2 d) 1

Q. The area between the x-axis and the curve y = (x^2 - 1)^2 in the interval [-1, 1] is:

a) 2 sq units b) 4/3 sq units c) 3/2 sq units d) 1 sq unit

Q. If f(x) = ∫(0 to x) (t^3 - 3t^2 + 2t + 1) dt, then f'(0) is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6

Q. The value of ∫(0 to 1) e^x dx is:

a) e - 1 b) e^2 - e c) e - 2 d) e

Q. The area bounded by the curve y = sin(x), the x-axis, and the lines x = 0 and x = π/2 is:

a) 1 sq unit b) π/2 sq units c) 2 sq units d) 3 sq units

Q. If F(x) = ∫(0 to x) cos^3(t) dt, then F'(0) is:

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) Undefined

Q. The area between the parabola y = x^2 and the line y = x + 2 in the interval [0, 2] is:

a) 12/3 sq units b) 2 sq units c) 4/3 sq units d) 5/3 sq units

Q. The value of ∫(0 to π/4) sec^4(x) dx is:

a) π/4 b) π/3 c) 2/3 d) 3/4

Q. The area between the curves y = x^3 and y = x + 2 in the interval [-2, 2] is:

a) 48/5 sq units b) 64/5 sq units c) 81/5 sq units d) 98/5 sq units

Q. If f(x) = ∫(1 to x) 2t^2 + 3t + 1 dt, then f'(1) is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6

Q. The area bounded by the curve y = log(x), the x-axis, and the lines x = 1 and x = e is:

a) 1/2 sq units b) e - 1 sq units c) 1 - 1/e sq units d) e - 2 sq units

Q. The value of ∫(0 to π/2) sin(2x) dx is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) 2/π

Q. The area between the curves y = 2x^2 and y = x^3 in the interval [0, 1] is:

a) 9/10 sq units b) 11/10 sq units c) 12/10 sq units d) 13/10 sq units

Q. If F(x) = ∫(0 to x) ln(2t + 1) dt, then F'(1) is:

a) -1/3 b) 0 c) 1/3 d) 1

Q. The value of ∫(0 to 1) 2sin^2(x) dx is:

a) π/2 b) 1 c) 3/2 d) 2

Q. The area bounded by the curve y = 1/x, the x-axis, and the lines x = 1 and x = 2 is:

a) ln(2) b) ln(3) c) ln(4) d) ln(5)

Q. If f(x) = ∫(0 to x) e^(t^2) dt, then f'(0) is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) Undefined

Q. The value of ∫(0 to π/4) tan^2(x) sec^2(x) dx is:

a) π/8 b) π/6 c) π/4 d) π/3

Q. The area between the curves y = x^3 and y = x^2 in the interval [0, 1] is:

a) 1/20 sq units b) 2/15 sq units c) 1/10 sq units d) 1/6 sq units

Q. If F(x) = ∫(0 to x) (sin(t) - cos(t)) dt, then F'(0) is:

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) Undefined

Q. The value of ∫(0 to π/4) sin(2x) cos(2x) dx is:

a) 0 b) 1/4 c) 1/2 d) π/8

Q. The area bounded by the curve y = √x, the x-axis, and the lines x = 0 and x = 4 is:

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

Q. If f(x) = ∫(0 to x) ln(1 + t) dt, then f'(e) is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) Undefined

Q. The value of ∫(0 to π/2) cos^2(x) dx is:

a) π/4 b) π/2 c) 1/2 d) 1

Q. The area between the curves y = x^2 and y = 4x - x^2 in the interval [0, 3] is:

a) 33/5 sq units b) 43/5 sq units c) 53/5 sq units d) 63/5 sq units

Q. If F(x) = ∫(0 to x) sqrt(t^2 + 1) dt, then F'(0) is:

a) 0 b) 1/2 c) 1 d) Undefined

Q. The value of ∫(0 to π) sin^2(2x) dx is:

a) π/4 b) π/2 c) π d) 2π

Q. The area bounded by the curve y = e^x, the x-axis, and the lines x = 0 and x = 1 is:

a) e - 1 b) e^2 - e c) e - 2 d) e

Chapter 9 differential equations

Q. 1. The differential equation dy/dx = 3x^2 + 5x - 2 represents a:

a) Linear differential equation b) Homogeneous differential equation c) Non-linear differential equation d) Exact differential equation

Q. 2. The order of the differential equation (dy/dx)^3 = 2x^2 - 3x + 1 is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Q. 3. If the general solution of a differential equation is y = Ce^x, then the differential equation is of:

a) First order b) Second order c) Third order d) Fourth order

Q. 4. The differential equation x(dy/dx) - y = x^2 is:

a) Homogeneous b) Linear c) Exact d) Bernoulli

Q. 5. The general solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 4y = 0 is:

a) y = Asin(2x) + Bcos(2x) b) y = Aex + Bcos(2x) c) y = Asin(2x) + Be^x d) y = Ae^x + Be^-x

Q. 6. The particular solution of the differential equation (dy/dx)^2 = 4x^2 + 9 is:

a) y = x^2 + 3x + C b) y = 2x + C c) y = √(4x^2 + 9) + C d) y = 2√(x^2 + 3)

Q. 7. The differential equation dy/dx = sin(x) - x represents:

a) A separable differential equation b) A linear differential equation c) A homogeneous differential equation d) An exact differential equation

Q. 8. The general solution of the differential equation dy/dx + y = x^2 is:

a) y = x^2 + C b) y = x^2 + x + C c) y = e^x + x^2 + C d) y = x^2 + sin(x) + C

Q. 9. The differential equation (x^2 + y^2)dx + 2xdy = 0 is:

a) A linear differential equation b) A homogeneous differential equation c) A first-order differential equation d) A second-order differential equation

Q. 10. The solution of the differential equation dy/dx = -(x + y)/x is given by:

a) y = -x - x^2 b) y = -x - 2x^2 c) y = -x - 3x^2 d) y = -x - 4x^2

Q. 11. The general solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + y = 0 is:

a) y = Asin(x) + Bcos(x) b) y = Ax + Bsin(x) c) y = Ae^x + Bsin(x) d) y = Aex + Bcos(x)

Q. 12. The differential equation dy/dx + y^2 = 0 is:

a) Linear b) First-order c) Second-order d) Separable

Q. 13. The particular solution of the differential equation (dy/dx)^3 = 27x^2 is:

a) y = 3x^2 + C b) y = 3x + C c) y = 3√x + C d) y = √(3x) + C

Q. 14. The differential equation (x^2 + y^2)dx + 2xdy = 0 represents:

a) A homogeneous differential equation b) A linear differential equation c) A first-order differential equation d) A second-order differential equation

Q. 15. The general solution of the differential equation dy/dx = sin(x) + y is:

a) y = -cos(x) + C b) y = -sin(x) + C c) y = cos(x) + C d) y = sin(x) + C

Q. 16. The solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + 9y = 0 is given by:

a) y = Asin(3x) + Bcos(3x) b) y = Ax + Bsin(3x) c) y = Ae^3x + Bsin(3x) d) y = Aex + Bcos(3x)

Q. 17. The differential equation dy/dx + xy = x^2 is:

a) Non-linear b) Second-order c) Separable d) Inexact

Q. 18. The particular solution of the differential equation (dy/dx)^2 = 4x^2 - 9 is:

a) y = x^2 - 3x + C b) y = 2x + C c) y = √(4x^2 - 9) + C d) y = 2√(x^2 - 3)

Q. 19. The general solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 = 4x is:

a) y = x^2 + C b) y = 2x^2 + C c) y = x^2 + x + C d) y = 2x^2 + x + C

Q. 20. The differential equation dy/dx = x^2 - 1 represents a:

a) Linear differential equation b) Homogeneous differential equation c) Non-linear differential equation d) Exact differential equation

Q. 21. The order of the differential equation (dy/dx)^2 = 4x^2 is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Q. 22. If the general solution of a differential equation is y = Csin(x), then the differential equation is of:

a) First order b) Second order c) Third order d) Fourth order

Q. 23. The differential equation x(dy/dx) - y = x^2 is:

a) Homogeneous b) Linear c) Exact d) Bernoulli

Q. 24. The general solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 - 4y = 0 is:

a) y = Asin(2x) + Bcos(2x) b) y = Aex + Bsin(2x) c) y = Asin(2x) + Be^x d) y = Ae^x + Be^-x

Q. 25. The particular solution of the differential equation (dy/dx)^2 = 4x^2 + 9 is:

a) y = x^2 + 3x + C b) y = 2x + C c) y = √(4x^2 + 9) + C d) y = 2√(x^2 + 3)

Q. 26. The differential equation dy/dx = sin(x) - x represents:

a) A separable differential equation b) A linear differential equation c) A homogeneous differential equation d) An exact differential equation

Q. 27. The general solution of the differential equation dy/dx + y = x^2 is:

a) y = x^2 + C b) y = x^2 + x + C c) y = e^x + x^2 + C d) y = x^2 + sin(x) + C

Q. 28. The differential equation (x^2 + y^2)dx + 2xdy = 0 is:

a) A linear differential equation b) A homogeneous differential equation c) A first-order differential equation d) A second-order differential equation

Q. 29. The solution of the differential equation dy/dx + y^2 = 0 is given by:

a) y = -x - x^2 b) y = -x - 2x^2 c) y = -x - 3x^2 d) y = -x - 4x^2

Q. 30. The general solution of the differential equation d^2y/dx^2 + y = 0 is:

a) y = Asin(x) + Bcos(x) b) y = Ax + Bsin(x) c) y = Ae^x + Bsin(x) d) y = Aex + Bcos(x)

Q. 31. The differential equation dy/dx + y^2 = 0 is:

a) Linear b) First-order c) Second-order d) Separable

Chapter 10 vector algebra

Q. 1. Which of the following represents the magnitude of a vector?

a) Component form b) Direction c) Length d) Scalar quantity

Q. 2. The result of adding two vectors is called the

a) Product b) Sum c) Difference d) Resultant

Q. 3. What is the dot product of two perpendicular vectors?

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) Infinitely large

Q. 4. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a) Force b) Velocity c) Distance d) Acceleration

Q. 5. If two vectors have the same magnitude and direction, their sum will be

a) Zero b) Infinite c) Equal to their individual magnitudes d) Undefined

Q. 6. What is the angle between two vectors if their dot product is zero?

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees

Q. 7. What is the magnitude of a vector with components (3, 4, 5)?

a) 3 b) 7 c) 9 d) 12

Q. 8. Which of the following is not a vector operation?

a) Addition b) Multiplication c) Subtraction d) Scalar multiplication

Q. 9. If the magnitude of a vector is negative, what can we conclude?

a) The vector is parallel to the negative x-axis b) The vector is parallel to the negative y-axis c) The vector is parallel to the negative z-axis d) The vector is reversed in direction

Q. 10. If two vectors are parallel, their cross product will be

a) Zero b) Infinite c) Equal to their individual magnitudes d) Undefined

Q. 11. In three-dimensional space, vectors are commonly represented by

a) Points b) Lines c) Planes d) Arrows

Q. 12. Which of the following is true about the cross product of two vectors?

a) It is commutative b) It is associative c) It is distributive d) It is anticommutative

Q. 13. Which of the following is not a unit vector?

a) (0, 1, 0) b) (1, 0, 1) c) (1, 1, 1) d) (1/√2, 1/√2, 0)

Q. 14. What is the cross product of two parallel vectors?

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) Infinitely large

Q. 15. In vector algebra, two vectors are equal if they have the same

a) Length b) Magnitude c) Components d) Direction

Q. 16. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

a) Mass b) Energy c) Momentum d) Temperature

Q. 17. In two-dimensional space, vectors are commonly represented by

a) Points b) Lines c) Planes d) Arrows

Q. 18. The dot product of two vectors is always

a) Negative b) Positive c) Zero d) Undefined

Q. 19. The direction of a vector is given by its

a) Magnitude b) Components c) Length d) Angle

Q. 20. If the cross product of two vectors is a zero vector, what can we conclude about them?

a) They are parallel b) They are perpendicular c) They have the same direction d) They have the same magnitude

Q. 21. Which of the following is true about the cross product of two perpendicular vectors?

a) It is zero b) It is positive c) It is negative d) It can't be determined without additional information

Q. 22. In vector algebra, the zero vector has a magnitude of

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) Undefined

Q. 23. What is the result of subtracting two vectors?

a) Product b) Sum c) Difference d) Resultant

Q. 24. In two-dimensional space, the magnitude of a vector is given by

a) Distance between two points b) Perimeter of a triangle c) Length of a line segment d) None of the above

Q. 25. The magnitude of a vector can never be

a) Zero b) Negative c) Positive d) Undefined

Q. 26. Which of the following is not a valid vector operation?

a) Dot product b) Cross product c) Scalar multiplication d) Division

Q. 27. In three-dimensional space, the magnitude of a vector is given by

a) Distance between two points b) Perimeter of a triangle c) Length of a line segment d) None of the above

Q. 28. Which of the following is a valid unit vector?

a) (0, 0, 1) b) (1, 0, 1) c) (1, 1, 1) d) (1/2, 1/2, 1/2)

Q. 29. What is the dot product of two parallel vectors?

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) Infinitely large

Q. 30. In three-dimensional space, vectors are commonly represented by

a) Points b) Lines c) Planes d) Arrows

Q. 31. Which of the following is a scalar operation?

a) Addition b) Multiplication c) Subtraction d) Cross product

Q. 32. What is the magnitude of the cross product of two vectors with magnitudes A and B?

a) AB b) A + B c) AB sinθ d) AB cosθ

Q. 33. Which of the following is true about the cross product of two vectors with a zero angle between them?

a) It is zero b) It is positive c) It is negative d) It can't be determined without additional information

Q. 34. The direction of a vector is given by

a) Its magnitude b) Its components c) The angle it makes with a reference axis d) The length of the vector

Q. 35. Which of the following is true about the dot product of two vectors?

a) It is commutative b) It is associative c) It is distributive d) It is anticommutative

Q. 36. What is the dot product of two perpendicular vectors?

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) Infinitely large

Q. 37. Which of the following is a valid vector operation?

a) Dot product b) Cross product c) Scalar multiplication d) Division

Q. 38. In two-dimensional space, vectors can be represented by

a) Points b) Lines c) Planes d) Arrows

Q. 39. Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a) Force b) Velocity c) Distance d) Acceleration

Q. 40. If the magnitude of a vector is zero, what can we conclude?

a) The vector is parallel to the x-axis b) The vector is parallel to the y-axis c) The vector is parallel to the z-axis d) The vector is a zero vector

Q. 41. Which of the following is a unit vector?

a) (0, 1, 0) b) (1, 0, 1) c) (1, 1, 1) d) (1/√2, 1/√2, 0)

Q. 42. What is the result of adding two vectors?

a) Product b) Sum c) Difference d) Resultant

Q. 43. In three-dimensional space, the magnitude of a vector can never be

a) Zero b) Negative c) Positive d) Undefined

Q. 44. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

a) Mass b) Energy c) Momentum d) Temperature

Q. 45. If two vectors are antiparallel, their dot product will be

a) Zero b) Infinite c) Equal to their individual magnitudes d) Undefined

Q. 46. In vector algebra, two vectors are collinear if they have the same

a) Length b) Magnitude c) Components d) Direction

Q. 47. The magnitude of a vector is always

a) Negative b) Positive c) Zero d) Undefined

Q. 48. The dot product of two vectors is defined as

a) The product of their magnitudes b) The product of their directions c) The sum of their components d) The sum of the products of their corresponding components

Q. 49. Which of the following is not a valid unit vector?

a) (0, 0, 1) b) (1, 0, 1) c) (1, 1, 1) d) (1/2, 1/2, 1/2)

Q. 50. Which of the following is true about the cross product of two vectors with a zero magnitude?

a) It is zero b) It is positive c) It is negative d) It can't be determined without additional information

Chapter 11 three-dimensional geometry

Q. 1. A cuboid has how many faces?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 24

Q. 2. What is the angle between the diagonals of a cuboid?

a) 90° b) 120° c) 180° d) 360°

Q. 3. A rectangular prism has how many edges?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

Q. 4. The volume of a cube is 125 cm³. What is the length of one side?

a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 15 cm d) 20 cm

Q. 5. What is the distance between the points (2, 3, 4) and (-1, -2, -3)?

a) √36 b) √43 c) √50 d) √57

Q. 6. Which type of shape cannot be formed by combining two triangular pyramids?

a) Square pyramid b) Hexagonal pyramid c) Octagonal pyramid d) All of the above

Q. 7. The form 2x + 3y - z = -7 represents what type of surface?

a) Plane b) Sphere c) Ellipsoid d) Paraboloid

Q. 8. Which statement about parallel planes is false?

a) They never intersect b) They have the same slope c) They have the same normal vector d) They lie in the same plane

Q. 9. If a line is perpendicular to two planes, it is perpendicular to their _____.

a) Normal vectors b) Intersections c) Midpoints d) None of the above

Q. 10. What is the equation of a line that passes through the points (1, 2, 3) and (4, 5, 6)?

a) 2x + y - z = 0 b) 3x + 2y + z = 0 c) x - 2y + z = 0 d) x + 2y - z = 0

Q. 11. A line segment connecting any two points on the surface of a sphere is called a _____.

a) Chord b) Radius c) Diameter d) Tangent

Q. 12. The distance between the points (-2, 1, 3) and (4, -5, -7) is _____.

a) √99 b) √134 c) √154 d) √184

Q. 13. What is the value of the angle between two intersecting lines?

a) 45° b) 90° c) 180° d) 360°

Q. 14. If the equation of a plane is 5x - 3y + 2z = 7, what is its normal vector?

a) (-3, 2, 5) b) (2, 5, -3) c) (-5, -3, 2) d) (3, -2, -5)

Q. 15. The centroid of a tetrahedron is the _____.

a) Midpoint of the base b) Center of gravity c) Intersection point of diagonals d) Orthocenter

Q. 16. What is the maximum number of parallel lines that can be drawn in 3D space?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) Infinite

Q. 17. A frustum of a cone is obtained by _____.

a) Cutting the top off a cone b) Cutting the bottom off a cone c) Cutting out a cone from a sphere d) None of the above

Q. 18. The distance between the parallel planes 2x + 3y - z = 1 and 4x + 6y - 2z = 3 is _____.

a) √2 b) √3 c) √4 d) √5

Q. 19. If the point (3, 4, 5) lies on a plane with the equation 2x + 6y - 4z = 12, is the point in the plane?

a) Yes b) No

Q. 20. The angle between a line and a plane is equal to the angle between the line and its _____.

a) Normal vector b) Tangent line c) Perpendicular bisector d) None of the above

Q. 21. The length of a line segment connecting the midpoints of two parallel sides of a trapezium is _____ th e average of the lengths of the bases.

a) Half b) One-third c) One-fourth d) Two-thirds

Q. 22. What is the angle between two diagonals of a rectangular prism?

a) 90° b) 120° c) 180° d) 360°

Q. 23. The distance between the points (1, 2, -1) and (4, -5, 3) is _____.

a) √35 b) √50 c) √59 d) √68

Q. 24. A plane is determined by _____ non-collinear points.

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Infinite

Q. 25. The x-coordinate of a point in 3D space is represented by _____.

a) r b) θ c) x d) y

Q. 26. What is the equation of a line that is perpendicular to the plane 2x - 3y + 4z = 5?

a) 2x + 3y - 4z = 0 b) 3x - 2y + 4z = 0 c) -2x + 3y - 4z = 0 d) -3x + 2y - 4z = 0

Q. 27. The number of edges in a triangular pyramid is _____.

a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

Q. 28. If the position vectors of three non-collinear points A, B, and C are a, b, and c respectively, what is the position vector of the centroid of triangle ABC?

a) (a + b + c)/3 b) (a - b - c)/3 c) (b - a + c)/3 d) (c - a + b)/3

Q. 29. The centroid of a triangle divides each median in the ratio _____.

a) 2:1 b) 3:2 c) 1:2 d) 1:3

Q. 30. A rectangular pyramid has how many vertices?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

Q. 31. If the distance from the origin to a point is √17, what is the equation of the sphere centered at the origi n?

a) x² + y² + z² = 17 b) x² + y² + z² - 17 = 0 c) x² + y² + z² + 17 = 0 d) x² + y² + z² + 17² = 0

Q. 32. The foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point P(3, -4, 5) to the x-axis is _____.

a) (0, -4, 5) b) (3, 0, 5) c) (3, -4, 0) d) (0, 4, -5)

Q. 33. In a tetrahedron, the sum of the lengths of any pair of opposite edges is always _____ the sum of the l engths of the other two edges.

a) Greater than b) Equal to c) Less than d) At least twice

Q. 34. The equation of a line parallel to the y-axis is given by _____.

a) x = k b) y = k c) z = k d) x + y + z = k

Q. 35. The equation (2x - 3y + 4z)^2 = 0 represents _____.

a) A point b) A circle c) A plane d) A sphere

Q. 36. The perpendicular distance between two parallel planes is equal to the _____.

a) Length of their normal vectors b) Difference in their constant terms c) Length of their diagonals d) Ratio of their slopes

Q. 37. If two lines lie in a plane, they are _____.

a) Perpendicular to each other b) Parallel to each other c) Coplanar d) None of the above

Q. 38. The distance between the two parallel planes 3x + 4y - 2z = 5 and 6x + 8y - 4z = 10 is _____.

a) √2 b) √5 c) √10 d) √17

Q. 39. A hexagonal prism has how many vertices?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 14

Chapter 12 linear programming

Q. 1. In linear programming, what is the objective function?

a) The function that represents the constraints b) The function that is minimized or maximized c) The function that represents the feasible region d) The function that represents the decision variables

Q. 2. Which of the following is NOT a step in the simplex method?

a) Select a pivot column b) Select a pivot row c) Calculate the objective function value d) Update the basic and nonbasic variables

Q. 3. A linear programming problem with no feasible solution is called:

a) Infeasible b) Unbounded c) Optimal d) Unsolvable

Q. 4. What are the variables that represent the quantities to be decided upon in a linear programming proble m called?

a) Objective function b) Constraints c) Decision variables d) Slack variables

Q. 5. What is the feasible region in linear programming?

a) The set of all possible solutions that satisfy all the constraints b) The set of all possible values for the objective function c) The set of all possible values for the decision variables d) The set of all possible values for the constraints

Q. 6. Which of the following statements is true about the dual problem in linear programming?

a) The dual problem has the same objective function as the primal problem b) The dual problem has the same constraints as the primal problem c) The dual problem has the same feasible region as the primal problem d) The dual problem has the same optimal solution as the primal problem

Q. 7. In linear programming, which of the following is NOT a type of constraint?

a) Equal to constraint b) Less than or equal to constraint c) Greater than or equal to constraint d) Not equal to constraint

Q. 8. In a linear programming problem, if the feasible region is unbounded, the optimal solution:

a) Exists and is unique b) Exists but is not unique c) Does not exist d) Cannot be determined

Q. 9. The graphical method for solving linear programming problems can be used when:

a) There are only two decision variables b) There are multiple decision variables c) There are no constraints d) There are no non-negativity constraints

Q. 10. What is duality in linear programming?

a) The property that the dual problem has the same objective function as the primal problem b) The property that the dual problem has the same constraints as the primal problem c) The property that the dual problem has the same feasible region as the primal problem d) The property that the dual problem has the same optimal solution as the primal problem

Q. 11. Which of the following is true about the slack variables in linear programming?

a) They represent unused resources b) They represent a surplus of resources c) They represent a shortage of resources d) They represent the objective function

Q. 12. In linear programming, the simplex method is used to:

a) Minimize the objective function b) Maximize the objective function c) Solve the dual problem d) Determine the feasible region

Q. 13. If the objective function in a linear programming problem is to maximize, the optimal solution can occu r at:

a) The corner point of the feasible region b) The midpoint of the feasible region c) Any point within the feasible region d) None of the above

Q. 14. In linear programming, if the feasible region is bounded, the optimal solution:

a) Exists and is unique b) Exists but is not unique c) Does not exist d) Cannot be determined

Q. 15. Which of the following is not a condition for a Linear Programming problem to have an optimal solution ?

a) Feasible region is non-empty and bounded b) Objective function is linear c) Decision variables are continuous d) Objective function is non-linear

Q. 16. What is the difference between a feasible solution and an optimal solution in linear programming?

a) A feasible solution satisfies all the constraints, while an optimal solution maximizes the objective functio n b) A feasible solution maximizes the objective function, while an optimal solution satisfies all the constraint s c) A feasible solution is unique, while an optimal solution is not d) A feasible solution satisfies some of the constraints, while an optimal solution satisfies all the constraint s

Q. 17. In linear programming, if all the constraints are equalities, the feasible region is:

a) A point b) A line c) A plane d) A hyperplane

Q. 18. In linear programming, if all the constraints are inequalities, the feasible region is:

a) Unbounded b) Bounded c) Unlimited d) No feasible region exists

Q. 19. The graphical method for solving linear programming problems involves:

a) Drawing a graph to represent the constraints and feasible region b) Drawing a graph to represent the objective function c) Drawing a graph to represent the decision variables d) Drawing a graph to represent the slack variables

Q. 20. Which of the following is used to determine whether an optimal solution has been reached in the simpl ex method?

a) The pivot column b) The pivot row c) The objective function value d) The basic and nonbasic variables

Q. 21. In linear programming, which of the following statements is true about the feasible region?

a) It always contains the origin (0,0) b) It is always a closed set c) It is always a finite set d) It is always an open set

Q. 22. The optimum value of the objective function in linear programming represents:

a) The maximum value of the objective function b) The minimum value of the objective function c) The sum of the decision variables d) The average value of the constraints

Q. 23. In linear programming, if the feasible region is a single point, the optimal solution:

a) Exists and is unique b) Exists but is not unique c) Does not exist d) Cannot be determined

Q. 24. In linear programming, what is the purpose of the constraint set?

a) To find the feasible region b) To find the optimal solution c) To find the objective function value d) To find the decision variables

Q. 25. Which of the following would NOT affect the feasible region of a linear programming problem?

a) Changing the objective function b) Adding or removing constraints c) Changing the decision variables d) Changing the coefficients of the constraints

Q. 26. The sensitivity analysis in linear programming is used to:

a) Determine how sensitive the optimal solution is to changes in the constraints or objective function coeffi cients b) Determine the objective function value c) Determine the feasible region d) Determine the decision variables

Q. 27. Which of the following is a condition for an optimal solution in linear programming?

a) The objective function value is positive b) The objective function value is zero c) The objective function value is negative d) The objective function value is non-zero

Q. 28. In linear programming, a feasible solution that satisfies all the constraints is also called a:

a) Dominant solution b) Optimal solution c) Corner point solution d) Admissible solution

Q. 29. Which of the following is a step in the graphical method for solving linear programming problems?

a) Calculate the objective function value b) Select a pivot column c) Select a pivot row d) Update the basic and nonbasic variables

Q. 30. In linear programming, which of the following is NOT a type of solution?

a) Feasible solution b) Optimal solution c) Infeasible solution d) Degenerate solution

Q. 31. In linear programming, if there are no constraints, the feasible region is:

a) A point b) A line c) A plane d) A hyperplane

Q. 32. In linear programming, if there are no decision variables, the feasible region is:

a) A point b) A line c) A plane d) A hyperplane

Q. 33. Which of the following is NOT a step in the simplex method for solving linear programming problems?

a) Calculate the objective function value b) Select a pivot column c) Select a pivot row d) Update the basic and nonbasic variables

Q. 34. In linear programming, which of the following is a property of the feasible region?

a) It is always convex b) It is always concave c) It is always linear d) It is always quadratic

Q. 35. In linear programming, if a constraint is an equality, the feasible region is:

a) A point b) A line c) A plane d) A hyperplane

Q. 36. The graphical method for solving linear programming problems is based on the concept of:

a) The feasible region b) The optimal solution c) The objective function d) Slack variables

Q. 37. In linear programming, if the feasible region is bounded, the optimal solution:

a) Exists and is unique b) Exists but is not unique c) Does not exist d) Cannot be determined

Q. 38. In linear programming, if the constraints are inequalities, the feasible region is:

a) Unbounded b) Bounded c) Unlimited d) No feasible region exists

Q. 39. In linear programming, the sensitivity analysis is used to: a) Determine how sensitive the optimal solution is to changes in the constraints or objective function coeffi cients

b) Determine the objective function value c) Determine the feasible region d) Determine the decision variables

Q. 40. In linear programming, what is the purpose of the decision variable?

a) To represent the objective function b) To represent the constraints c) To represent the feasible region d) To represent the quantities to be decided

Chapter 13 probability

Q. A die is rolled, what is the probability of getting an odd number?

a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/6 d) 1/4

Q. If two dice are rolled, what is the probability of getting a sum of 7?

a) 1/12 b) 1/6 c) 1/18 d) 1/36

Q. A bag contains 5 red balls and 7 blue balls. If one ball is drawn randomly, what is the probability of getti ng a red ball?

a) 5/12 b) 7/12 c) 1/2 d) 2/5

Q. Two cards are drawn successively from a well-shuffled deck of 52 playing cards. What is the probability that both cards are kings?

a) 1/13 b) 1/26 c) 4/52 d) 2/13

Q. A box contains 4 red balls, 3 blue balls, and 2 green balls. If a ball is drawn randomly, what is the proba bility of getting a red or blue ball?

a) 7/9 b) 5/9 c) 3/5 d) 7/12

Q. Three coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting exactly two tails?

a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 1/8

Q. A fair coin with heads on both sides is tossed. What is the probability of getting heads?

a) 1/2 b) 1 c) 0 d) 1/4

Q. Three balls are drawn simultaneously from a bag containing 6 red balls and 4 blue balls. What is the pr obability that at least two balls are red?

a) 7/15 b) 2/7 c) 11/15 d) 2/5

Q. If the probability of an event is 0.6, what is the probability of its complement?

a) 0.4 b) 0.6 c) 0.2 d) 0.8

Q. A bag contains 5 black balls and 3 white balls. Two balls are drawn without replacement. What is the probability of getting both balls of the same color?

a) 5/14 b) 1/4 c) 3/8 d) 5/12

Q. If a fair coin is tossed three times, what is the probability of getting two heads and one tail?

a) 1/4 b) 1/8 c) 1/2 d) 1/3

Q. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck. What is the probability of getting a face card or a red card?

a) 1/13 b) 1/2 c) 3/13 d) 11/26

Q. In a class of 40 students, 20 students play basketball, 15 students play football, and 10 students play both. What is the probability that a randomly selected student plays either basketball or football?

a) 1/4 b) 5/8 c) 1/2 d) 3/4

Q. A bag contains 6 red balls and 4 blue balls. Two balls are drawn with replacement. What is the probab ility that both balls are blue?

a) 1/16 b) 1/25 c) 1/9 d) 1/10

Q. A bag contains 5 red balls, 3 green balls, and 2 blue balls. One ball is drawn, and then another ball is drawn without replacement. What is the probability that both balls are red?

a) 1/6 b) 5/11 c) 2/11 d) 5/12

Q. If three standard six-sided dice are rolled, what is the probability that the sum of the numbers is 10?

a) 2/36 b) 1/36 c) 3/36 d) 3/216

Q. A box contains 6 red balls, 5 blue balls, and 4 green balls. If two balls are drawn without replacement, what is the probability that both balls are green?

a) 1/25 b) 4/75 c) 1/220 d) 2/33

Q. A fair coin is tossed 4 times. What is the probability of getting at least 3 tails?

a) 3/16 b) 3/8 c) 9/16 d) 5/16

Q. If the odds of an event happening are 3:5, what is the probability of the event happening?

a) 3/8 b) 3/5 c) 5/8 d) 5/3

Q. A bag contains 10 black balls and 5 white balls. Three balls are drawn with replacement. What is the p robability of getting all black balls?

a) 1/8 b) 1/27 c) 1/64 d) 1/125

Q. A box contains 4 red balls, 3 blue balls, and 5 green balls. If three balls are drawn without replacemen t, what is the probability that all balls are of different colors?

a) 1/8 b) 2/33 c) 3/22 d) 4/33

Q. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck. What is the probability of getting a queen or a king?

a) 1/13 b) 3/13 c) 4/13 d) 1/26

Q. If two dice are rolled, what is the probability of getting a sum of 3 or 5?

a) 1/3 b) 1/9 c) 2/9 d) 1/18

Q. A jar contains 6 red balls, 4 blue balls, and 5 green balls. Two balls are drawn with replacement. What is the probability that one ball is red and the other ball is green?

a) 6/75 b) 10/225 c) 2/45 d) 5/33

Q. In a deck of playing cards, what is the probability of drawing a heart or a diamond?

a) 1/4 b) 1/2 c) 1/3 d) 2/3

Q. A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck. What is the probability of getting an ace or a spade?

a) 1/13 b) 3/26 c) 1/2 d) 5/26

Q. If the odds of an event happening are 2:3, what is the probability of the event not happening?

a) 2/5 b) 5/8 c) 3/8 d) 3/5

Q. In a bag, there are 4 red balls, 3 blue balls, and 2 green balls. One ball is drawn randomly, then anoth er ball is drawn without replacement. What is the probability that both balls are blue?

a) 1/8 b) 1/15 c) 1/18 d) 4/45

Q. If six dice are rolled, what is the probability of getting all sixes?

a) 1/36 b) 1/720 c) 1/216 d) 1/1296

Q. A box contains 5 red balls and 7 blue balls. If two balls are drawn without replacement, what is the pro bability that both balls are blue?

a) 1/10 b) 1/15 c) 11/66 d) 7/33

Q. Two dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting a sum greater than 9?

a) 5/12 b) 1/18 c) 5/36 d) 1/6

Q. A jar contains 4 black balls, 6 white balls, and 5 purple balls. If three balls are drawn without replacem ent, what is the probability that all balls are of different colors?

a) 7/158 b) 30/337 c) 3/55 d) 60/663

Q. If a spinner with 4 equal sections numbered 1 to 4 is spun twice, what is the probability of getting a su m greater than 6?

a) 1/8 b) 1/16 c) 3/8 d) 1/4

Q. In a deck of playing cards, what is the probability of drawing a club or a spade?

a) 1/3 b) 2/5 c) 1/2 d) 3/4