Class 7 Science MCQ's Free

Chapter 1 Nutrition in Plants

Which of the following is not a mode of nutrition in plants?

a) Autotrophic nutrition b) Heterotrophic nutrition c) Saprophytic nutrition d) Parasitic nutrition Answer: c) Saprophytic nutrition

The process by which green plants make their own food is called:

a) Respiration b) Digestion c) Photosynthesis d) Excretion Answer: c) Photosynthesis

The process of photosynthesis occurs in the:

a) Leaves b) Roots c) Stems d) Flowers Answer: a) Leaves

Which pigment is responsible for capturing sunlight during photosynthesis?

a) Chlorophyll b) Xanthophyll c) Carotene d) Anthocyanin Answer: a) Chlorophyll

The raw materials required for photosynthesis are:

a) Carbon dioxide and water b) Oxygen and glucose c) Sunlight and water d) Glucose and carbon dioxide Answer: a) Carbon dioxide and water

The waste product of photosynthesis is: a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Glucose d) Water Answer: b) Carbon dioxide

Which part of the plant absorbs water and minerals from the soil?

a) Roots b) Leaves c) Stems d) Flowers Answer: a) Roots

The process of movement of water through a plant is called:

a) Transpiration b) Photosynthesis c) Absorption d) Respiration Answer: a) Transpiration

The tiny openings present on the surface of leaves are called:

a) Stomata b) Lenticels c) Cuticle d) Epidermis Answer: a) Stomata

The process of breakdown of glucose to release energy in plants is called:

a) Respiration b) Transpiration c) Photosynthesis d) Absorption Answer: a) Respiration

Which pigment gives the red color to leaves during autumn?

a) Xanthophyll b) Anthocyanin c) Chlorophyll d) Carotene Answer: b) Anthocyanin

Which of the following is a parasitic plant?

a) Rose b) Sunflower c) Cactus d) Dodder Answer: d) Dodder

Which type of plants have the ability to trap and digest insects?

a) Insectivorous plants b) Aquatic plants c) Desert plants d) Climbing plants Answer: a) Insectivorous plants

Which of the following nutrients is not required by plants for their growth?

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Potassium d) Sodium Answer: d) Sodium

The process by which plants lose water vapor through their leaves is called:

a) Transpiration b) Photosynthesis c) Absorption d) Respiration Answer: a) Transpiration

Which type of nutrition is exhibited by fungi?

a) Autotrophic nutrition b) Partial parasitic nutrition c) Heterotrophic nutrition d) Saprophytic nutrition Answer: d) Saprophytic nutrition

The process of conversion of nitrates into nitrogen gas is called:

a) Denitrification b) Nitrification c) Nitrogen fixation d) Nitrogen assimilation Answer: a) Denitrification

The process of conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates is called:

a) Denitrification b) Nitrogen fixation c) Nitrification d) Nitrogen assimilation Answer: b) Nitrogen fixation

Which plant part carries out photosynthesis in a cactus plant?

a) Stem b) Leaves c) Roots d) Flowers Answer: a) Stem

Plants growing in soil deficient in nitrogen would have yellowing of leaves due to the deficiency of:

a) Calcium b) Phosphorus c) Potassium d) Nitrogen Answer: d) Nitrogen

The process of conversion of nitrates into nitrogen gas is carried out by:

a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Algae d) Plants Answer: a) Bacteria

Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas associated with global warming?

a) Carbon dioxide b) Methane c) Oxygen d) Nitrous oxide Answer: c) Oxygen

Which of the following is not a macronutrient required by plants?

a) Calcium b) Magnesium c) Iron d) Phosphorus Answer: c) Iron

The process by which plants absorb mineral salts from the soil is called:

a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Absorption d) Respiration Answer: c) Absorption

Which part of the plant helps in the exchange of gases during respiration and photosynthesis?

a) Leaves b) Roots c) Stems d) Flowers Answer: a) Leaves

Which of the following is an example of a non-green, non-flowering plant?

a) Rose b) Mango tree c) Mushroom d) Sunflower Answer: c) Mushroom

The process of breakdown of complex substances into simpler ones by the action of enzymes is calle d:

a) Digestion b) Respiration c) Assimilation d) Absorption Answer: a) Digestion

The process of formation of glucose by the combination of carbon dioxide and water during photosynt hesis is an example of:

a) Anabolism b) Catabolism c) Absorption d) Respiration Answer: a) Anabolism

Which of the following nutrients is required in the smallest amount by plants?

a) Macronutrients b) Micronutrients c) Macronutrients and Micronutrients are required in equal amounts d) Plants do not require nutrients Answer: b) Micronutrients

The accumulation of excessive nitrates in water bodies due to fertilizer runoff can lead to:

a) Eutrophication b) Desertification c) Deforestation d) Acid rain Answer: a) Eutrophication

Which of the following is not a mode of nutrition in plants?

a) Holozoic nutrition b) Parasitic nutrition c) Insectivorous nutrition d) Anaerobic nutrition Answer: d) Anaerobic nutrition

The process by which plants absorb water from the soil is called:

a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Active transport d) Respiration Answer: a) Osmosis

The breakdown of glucose during cellular respiration releases energy in the form of:

a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Glucose d) ATP Answer: d) ATP

Plants that grow on other plants for support but do not obtain nutrients from them are called:

a) Epiphytes b) Climbers c) Parasites d) Creepers Answer: b) Climbers

Which of the following is an example of a parasitic plant?

a) Potato b) Mango tree c) Dodder d) Rice plant Answer: c) Dodder

The process of conversion of ammonia into nitrates is called:

a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen fixation c) Denitrification d) Transpiration Answer: a) Nitrification

In which part of the plant is food prepared and stored?

a) Roots b) Stem c) Leaves d) Flowers Answer: c) Leaves

The process of ingestion of food in plants is called:

a) Excretion b) Absorption c) Assimilation d) Imbibition Answer: b) Absorption

The process of conversion of nitrates into organic compounds by plants is called:

a) Nitrification b) Nitrogen fixation c) Nitrogen assimilation d) Denitrification Answer: c) Nitrogen assimilation

Which type of plants have a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

a) Leguminous plants b) Aquatic plants c) Desert plants d) Cactus plants Answer: a) Leguminous plants

The process of movement of water and nutrients from the roots to other parts of the plant is called:

a) Transpiration b) Photosynthesis c) Absorption d) Translocation Answer: d) Translocation

The process of breakdown of food into simpler substances in the presence of oxygen is called:

a) Fermentation b) Respiration c) Transpiration d) Photosynthesis Answer: b) Respiration

In which part of the plant does the process of photosynthesis occur?

a) Chloroplasts b) Mitochondria c) Nucleus d) Ribosomes Answer: a) Chloroplasts

The process by which plants release oxygen into the atmosphere is called:

a) Transpiration b) Absorption c) Respiration d) Photosynthesis Answer: d) Photosynthesis

The carbohydrates produced during photosynthesis are converted into which substance for storage?

a) Starch b) Fats c) Proteins d) Glucose Answer: a) Starch

The plants that can survive in extreme conditions, such as deserts, are called:

a) Mesophytes b) Hydrophytes c) Xerophytes d) Halophytes Answer: c) Xerophytes

Which type of plants can live on the surface of water bodies?

a) Epiphytes b) Hydrophytes c) Mesophytes d) Xerophytes Answer: b) Hydrophytes

The process of breakdown of food to release energy in the absence of oxygen is called:

a) Fermentation b) Respiration c) Transpiration d) Photosynthesis Answer: a) Fermentation

The breakdown of glucose during respiration occurs in which part of the cell?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Chloroplasts d) Ribosomes Answer: b) Mitochondria

The movement of sugars from leaves to other parts of the plant is called:

a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Active transport d) Translocation Answer: d) Translocation

Chapter 2 Nutrition in Animals

Which of the following is not a mode of nutrition for animals?

a) Autotrophic nutrition b) Heterotrophic nutrition c) Parasitic nutrition d) Saprophytic nutrition Answer: a) Autotrophic nutrition

Which nutrient is the main source of energy for animals?

a) Carbohydrates b) Proteins c) Fats d) Minerals Answer: a) Carbohydrates

What is the process of taking in food called?

a) Digestion b) Ingestion c) Absorption d) Assimilation Answer: b) Ingestion

The process of breaking down complex food into simpler substances is known as:

a) Digestion b) Respiration c) Excretion d) Circulation Answer: a) Digestion

Which of the following is not a type of heterotrophic nutrition?

a) Holozoic b) Parasitic c) Autotrophic d) Saprophytic Answer: c) Autotrophic

Which organ produces bile in our body?

a) Pancreas b) Liver c) Stomach d) Gallbladder Answer: b) Liver

Which enzyme is present in saliva that helps in the digestion of starch?

a) Amylase b) Trypsin c) Pepsin d) Lipase Answer: a) Amylase

In which part of the digestive system does maximum absorption of food occur?

a) Stomach b) Small Intestine c) Large Intestine d) Esophagus Answer: b) Small Intestine

Which of the following is an example of a parasitic mode of nutrition?

a) Cow eating grass b) Butterfly sucking nectar c) Tapeworm living in intestines d) Birds catching insects Answer: c) Tapeworm living in intestines

What is the function of villi in the small intestine?

a) Absorption of digested food b) Secretion of digestive juices c) Grinding of food particles d) Storage of undigested food Answer: a) Absorption of digested food

Which of the following is not a component of balanced diet?

a) Carbohydrates b) Fats c) Vitamins d) Sugars Answer: d) Sugars

Which substance is responsible for the hardening of bones and teeth?

a) Calcium b) Iron c) Sodium d) Potassium Answer: a) Calcium

Which vitamin is responsible for maintaining good eyesight?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E Answer: a) Vitamin A

Which of the following is not a water-soluble vitamin?

a) Vitamin B b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin H Answer: c) Vitamin D

Which of the following is an example of a ruminant animal?

a) Cow b) Lion c) Rabbit d) Horse Answer: a) Cow

What is the process of breaking down food into simpler substances within cells called?

a) Extracellular digestion b) Endocytosis c) Intracellular digestion d) Phagocytosis Answer: c) Intracellular digestion

Which of the following is not a part of the human digestive system?

a) Stomach b) Liver c) Brain d) Pancreas Answer: c) Brain

What is the main function of the large intestine in the digestive system?

a) Absorption of water b) Secretion of digestive enzymes c) Breaking down fats d) Storage of undigested food Answer: a) Absorption of water

The process of removal of undigested waste material from the body is known as:

a) Digestion b) Assimilation c) Excretion d) Respiration Answer: c) Excretion

Which of the following is not a component of saliva?

a) Amylase b) Mucus c) Hydrochloric acid d) Water Answer: c) Hydrochloric acid

Which of the following is an example of an omnivorous animal?

a) Lion b) Cow c) Human d) Rabbit Answer: c) Human

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the digestion of proteins in the stomach?

a) Amylase b) Trypsin c) Pepsin d) Lipase Answer: c) Pepsin

Which of the following is an example of a saprophytic mode of nutrition?

a) Fungi absorbing nutrients from dead plants b) Lion hunting and feeding on a deer c) Honeybee collecting nectar from flowers d) Human consuming cooked food Answer: a) Fungi absorbing nutrients from dead plants

Which of the following is the correct sequence of organs through which food passes during digestion?

a) Stomach - Small Intestine - Large Intestine b) Esophagus - Stomach - Small Intestine c) Mouth - Stomach - Large Intestine d) Esophagus - Mouth - Stomach Answer: b) Esophagus - Stomach - Small Intestine

Which of the following is not a source of vitamin C?

a) Citrus fruits b) Tomatoes c) Carrots d) Broccoli Answer: c) Carrots

What is the role of bile in the digestion of fats?

a) Emulsification of fats b) Breakdown of fats into glucose c) Absorption of fats through villi d) Storage of fats in adipose tissue Answer: a) Emulsification of fats

Lack of which nutrient causes a disease called scurvy?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K Answer: b) Vitamin C

Which type of teeth are used for tearing and cutting food?

a) Incisors b) Canines c) Premolars d) Molars Answer: a) Incisors

Which part of the digestive system stores bile?

a) Gallbladder b) Pancreas c) Esophagus d) Kidneys Answer: a) Gallbladder

What is the function of mucus in the stomach lining?

a) Protects the stomach from acids b) Digests carbohydrates c) Absorbs nutrients d) Breaks down proteins Answer: a) Protects the stomach from acids

Which organ in the human body produces insulin?

a) Pancreas b) Liver c) Gallbladder d) Spleen Answer: a) Pancreas

Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?

a) Vitamin B12 b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin K Answer: d) Vitamin K

What is the role of peristalsis in the digestive system?

a) Mixing and churning of food b) Absorption of digested food c) Elimination of waste material d) Movement of food along the digestive tract Answer: d) Movement of food along the digestive tract

The process of exchange of gases between blood and body tissues is known as:

a) Digestion b) Respiration c) Circulation d) Excretion Answer: b) Respiration

Which of the following is not a part of the alimentary canal?

a) Esophagus b) Stomach c) Pancreas d) Small Intestine Answer: c) Pancreas

What is the function of the epiglottis in the respiratory system?

a) Regulates the flow of air into the lungs b) Filters out dust particles from the air c) Produces mucus to moisten the air d) Prevents food from entering the windpipe Answer: d) Prevents food from entering the windpipe

Which of the following is not an accessory organ of the digestive system?

a) Liver b) Gallbladder c) Pancreas d) Small Intestine Answer: d) Small Intestine

What is the function of the salivary glands in the digestive system?

a) Produces bile for fat digestion b) Secretes digestive enzymes c) Filters out impurities from the blood d) Moistens and breaks down food particles Answer: d) Moistens and breaks down food particles

Which of the following animals has a rumen in its digestive system?

a) Horse b) Lion c) Goat d) Rat Answer: c) Goat

Which of the following is not a nutritionally important mineral for our body?

a) Calcium b) Iron c) Sodium d) Oxygen Answer: d) Oxygen

In which part of the digestive system does the digestion of proteins begin?

a) Stomach b) Mouth c) Small Intestine d) Large Intestine Answer: a) Stomach

What is the function of the esophagus in the digestive system?

a) Mixing and churning of food b) Transporting food from the mouth to the stomach c) Absorption of nutrients d) Secretion of digestive enzymes Answer: b) Transporting food from the mouth to the stomach

What is the condition called when the body does not get enough nutrients?

a) Obesity b) Malnutrition c) Diabetes d) Anemia Answer: b) Malnutrition

What is the function of the rectum in the digestive system?

a) Absorption of water b) Storage of undigested waste material c) Breakdown of fats d) Production of bile Answer: b) Storage of undigested waste material

Lack of which vitamin causes a disease called night blindness?

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E Answer: a) Vitamin A

What is the function of the small intestine in the digestive system?

a) Absorption of digested food b) Breakdown of proteins c) Filtering of blood d) Storage of nutrients Answer: a) Absorption of digested food

Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human body associated with digestion?

a) Spleen b) Gallbladder c) Pancreas d) Tonsils Answer: b) Gallbladder

What is the process of inhaling and exhaling air called?

a) Digestion b) Respiration c) Circulation d) Excretion Answer: b) Respiration

Which organ in the digestive system secretes hydrochloric acid?

a) Stomach b) Small Intestine c) Large Intestine d) Liver Answer: a) Stomach

What is the function of the diaphragm in the respiratory system?

a) Regulates the flow of air into the lungs b) Filters out dust particles from the air c) Produces mucus to moisten the air d) Helps in the process of breathing Answer: d) Helps in the process of breathing

Chapter 3 Fibre to Fabric

Which process is used to obtain fibre from the cotton balls?

a) Retting b) Ginning c) Harvesting d) Weaving Answer: b) Ginning

Which part of the cotton plant provides fibre?

a) Leaves b) Stem c) Seeds d) Flowers Answer: b) Stem

Which of the following is not a natural fibre?

a) Silk b) Jute c) Nylon d) Wool Answer: c) Nylon

In which process, fibres are converted into yarn?

a) Spinning b) Weaving c) Knitting d) Felting Answer: a) Spinning

Which of the following is a synthetic fibre?

a) Wool b) Silk c) Cotton d) Rayon Answer: d) Rayon

Which fibre is obtained from the cocoon of the silkworm?

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Wool d) Silk Answer: d) Silk

Silk fibre is obtained from

a) Silk moth b) Silkworm c) Silk spider d) Silk plant Answer: b) Silkworm

Which process is used to remove silk thread from the cocoon?

a) Reeling b) Spinning c) Weaving d) Knitting Answer: a) Reeling

The process of arranging two sets of yarns together to make a fabric is called

a) Spinning b) Weaving c) Knitting d) Felting Answer: b) Weaving

Which fibre is obtained from the stem of the jute plant?

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Wool d) Silk Answer: b) Jute

Wool is the fibre obtained from the fleece of which animal?

a) Sheep b) Goat c) Rabbit d) Yak Answer: a) Sheep

The process of brushing the sheep’s fleece to remove dirt, dust, and tangles is called

a) Shearing b) Grading c) Scouring d) Sorting Answer: a) Shearing

Which of the following is a plant fibre?

a) Nylon b) Rayon c) Wool d) Cotton Answer: d) Cotton

Which of the following is a non-woven fabric?

a) Cotton fabric b) Silk fabric c) Wool fabric d) Felt fabric Answer: d) Felt fabric

The process of arranging loops of yarns together to make a fabric is called

a) Spinning b) Weaving c) Knitting d) Felting Answer: c) Knitting

Which is the natural fibre that comes from the stem of a plant?

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Silk d) Wool Answer: b) Jute

Which natural fibre is obtained from the cocoon of the silk moth?

a) Cotton fibre b) Jute fibre c) Silk fibre d) Wool fibre Answer: c) Silk fibre

Which of the following is a human-made fibre?

a) Jute b) Wool c) Silk d) Nylon Answer: d) Nylon

What is the process of removing seed from cotton called?

a) Harvesting b) Ginning c) Weaving d) Picking Answer: b) Ginning

Animal fibre is also known as

a) Silk b) Synthetic c) Rayon d) Wool Answer: d) Wool

The yarns used to make fabrics are obtained from

a) Fruits b) Stems c) Leaves d) Fibres Answer: d) Fibres

The process of arranging two sets of yarns together in a criss-cross manner to make a fabric is called

a) Spinning b) Weaving c) Knitting d) Felting Answer: b) Weaving

Which of the following is not a method of making fabric?

a) Knitting b) Weaving c) Spinning d) Felting Answer: c) Spinning

Wool is obtained from the fleece of which animal?

a) Goat b) Rabbit c) Sheep d) Yak Answer: c) Sheep

Which fibre is obtained from the stem of the flax plant?

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Linen d) Silk Answer: c) Linen

Silk fibre is mainly composed of

a) Proteins b) Cellulose c) Fats d) Sugars Answer: a) Proteins

The process of removing gum, wax, and dirt from silk fibres is called

a) Scouring b) Ginning c) Combing d) Reeling Answer: a) Scouring

Which of the following is not a characteristic of silk?

a) Soft and lustrous b) Good conductor of electricity c) Absorbs moisture d) Strong and lightweight Answer: b) Good conductor of electricity

Which fibre is known as the "golden fibre"? a) Cotton b) Jute c) Silk d) Wool Answer: b) Jute

The process of aligning fibres together to create a yarn is known as

a) Knitting b) Weaving c) Spinning d) Felting Answer: c) Spinning

Which of the following is the strongest natural fibre?

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Wool d) Silk Answer: b) Jute

Which type of clothing is suitable for hot and humid weather?

a) Cotton b) Wool c) Silk d) Nylon Answer: a) Cotton

The fibre that does not wrinkle easily is

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Rayon d) Silk Answer: c) Rayon

What is the primary source of natural fibres?

a) Animals b) Plants c) Minerals d) Synthetic materials Answer: b) Plants

The process of removing dust and dirt from the fibres is called

a) Grading b) Scouring c) Spinning d) Weaving Answer: b) Scouring

Which of the following is not a synthetic fibre?

a) Rayon b) Polyester c) Nylon d) Silk Answer: d) Silk

Natural fibres are obtained from

a) Synthetic materials b) Chemicals c) Animals and plants d) Minerals Answer: c) Animals and plants

The process of obtaining fibres from plants is called

a) Ginning b) Retting c) Spinning d) Scouring Answer: b) Retting

The process of separating fibres from the jute stem is called

a) Ginning b) Spinning c) Harvesting d) Retting Answer: c) Harvesting

Which of the following fibres is not biodegradable?

a) Cotton b) Silk c) Jute d) Nylon Answer: d) Nylon

Which fibre is obtained from the hair of goats?

a) Wool b) Silk c) Jute d) Cotton Answer: a) Wool

Which natural fibre is obtained from the leaves of the pineapple plant?

a) Cotton b) Banana c) Jute d) Pineapple Answer: b) Banana

Wool is rich in

a) Protein b) Carbohydrate c) Fat d) Fiber Answer: a) Protein

Which is the strongest natural fibre?

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Wool d) Silk Answer: b) Jute

Which process is used to make ropes from plant fibres?

a) Ginning b) Weaving c) Braiding d) Spinning Answer: c) Braiding

Which fibre is obtained from the stem of the hemp plant?

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Wool d) Silk Answer: b) Jute

Which process involves treating fibres with chemicals to make them suitable for spinning?

a) Weaving b) Knitting c) Bleaching d) Dyeing Answer: c) Bleaching

What is the colour of the cotton fibre when it is fully ripe?

a) White b) Pink c) Brown d) Green Answer: c) Brown

Silk which is produced by silkworms fed on mulberry leaves is called

a) Mulberry silk b) Tussar silk c) Muga silk d) Eri silk Answer: a) Mulberry silk

What is the process of dyeing a fabric called?

a) Weaving b) Spinning c) Felting d) Dyeing Answer: d) Dyeing

Chapter 4 Heat

Heat is a form of:

a) Light b) Energy c) Sound d) Matter Answer: b) Energy

The SI unit of heat is:

a) Joule b) Watt c) Celsius d) Kilogram Answer: a) Joule

Heat always flows from a region of _____ temperature to a region of _____ temperature.

a) Low, high b) High, low c) Same, same d) Neutral, neutral Answer: b) High, low

Convection is the transfer of heat through:

a) Direct contact b) Radiation c) Conduction d) Movement of fluids Answer: d) Movement of fluids

Which of the following is a poor conductor of heat?

a) Metal b) Glass c) Plastic d) Wood Answer: c) Plastic

The process of losing heat by the emission of infrared radiation is called:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Reflection Answer: c) Radiation

The boiling point of water is:

a) 0°C b) 100°C c) 273°C d) 373°C Answer: b) 100°C

The specific heat capacity of a substance depends on its:

a) Volume b) Density c) Mass d) Material Answer: d) Material

When a substance is heated, its particles:

a) Move slower b) Move faster c) Disappear d) Stay at rest Answer: b) Move faster

Which method of heat transfer occurs in a vacuum?

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) None of the above Answer: c) Radiation

How does a black or dark-colored object absorb heat differently from a white or light-colored object?

a) White objects absorb more heat b) Black objects absorb more heat c) Both absorb the same amount of heat d) Neither absorbs heat Answer: b) Black objects absorb more heat

An insulator is a material that:

a) Conducts heat well b) Absorbs heat quickly c) Does not conduct heat well d) Reflects heat Answer: c) Does not conduct heat well

On which scale is temperature measured in Kelvins (K)?

a) Celsius b) Fahrenheit c) Kelvin d) Rankine Answer: c) Kelvin

The transfer of heat energy by means of direct contact is called:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: a) Conduction

What is the heat produced when an electric current passes through a wire called?

a) Frictional heat b) Joule heating c) Thermal heat d) Combustion heat Answer: b) Joule heating

The instrument used to measure temperature is called a:

a) Thermometer b) Hydrometer c) Barometer d) Viscometer Answer: a) Thermometer

Which substance has the highest specific heat capacity?

a) Water b) Iron c) Mercury d) Aluminum Answer: a) Water

The transfer of heat by the circulation of a fluid such as air or water is called:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Evaporation Answer: b) Convection

The process of changing a liquid into a gas is called:

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Evaporation d) Condensation Answer: c) Evaporation

The temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid is called:

a) Melting point b) Boiling point c) Freezing point d) Condensation point Answer: a) Melting point

Heat energy can be transferred by all of the following except:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Insulation d) Radiation Answer: c) Insulation

Which material is a good conductor of heat?

a) Rubber b) Plastic c) Glass d) Copper Answer: d) Copper

The process of changing a gas into a liquid is called:

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Freezing d) Condensation Answer: d) Condensation

Heat is measured using a device called a:

a) Heat gauge b) Thermometer c) Calorimeter d) Barometer Answer: c) Calorimeter

The method of heat transfer that does not require a medium is:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Conduction and convection Answer: c) Radiation

The process of changing a liquid into a solid is called:

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Freezing d) Condensation Answer: c) Freezing

The process of changing a solid directly into a gas is called:

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Freezing d) Sublimation Answer: d) Sublimation

The heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1°C is called its:

a) Specific heat capacity b) Latent heat c) Thermal conductivity d) Heat capacity Answer: d) Heat capacity

What happens to the volume of most substances when they are heated?

a) It expands b) It contracts c) It remains the same d) It depends on the substance Answer: a) It expands

Cooking utensils are often made of metals because metals are:

a) Good insulators b) Good conductors of heat c) Colorful d) Lightweight Answer: b) Good conductors of heat

Which method of heat transfer is responsible for the circulation of hot air rising and cool air sinking?

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: b) Convection

Which of the following is an example of conduction?

a) Heat from a fireplace warming a room b) Heating a pot of water on a stove c) The sunlight warming the earth d) None of the above Answer: b) Heating a pot of water on a stove

Which substance is used as a coolant in car engines?

a) Mercury b) Water c) Alcohol d) Antifreeze Answer: d) Antifreeze

The process of heat transfer that occurs through the emission of electromagnetic waves is called:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: c) Radiation

The transfer of heat energy by means of the movement of particles within a substance is called:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: a) Conduction

Which process requires the most heat energy?

a) Boiling water b) Melting ice c) Freezing water d) Condensing steam Answer: a) Boiling water

The method of heat transfer that occurs in solids, liquids, and gases is:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: a) Conduction

Which substance has the highest boiling point?

a) Water b) Mercury c) Aluminum d) Ethanol Answer: b) Mercury

The transfer of heat energy due to the movement of electrons within a substance is called:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: a) Conduction

Which method of heat transfer is responsible for the sun's heat reaching the Earth?

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: c) Radiation

The process of changing a gas into a solid directly is called:

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Freezing d) Sublimation Answer: d) Sublimation

Which of the following materials is a good insulator of heat?

a) Copper b) Aluminum c) Glass d) Rubber Answer: d) Rubber

The temperature at which a liquid changes into a gas is called:

a) Melting point b) Boiling point c) Freezing point d) Condensation point Answer: b) Boiling point

Heat is a form of energy that can be:

a) Destroyed b) Created c) Transferred d) All of the above Answer: c) Transferred

What happens to the temperature of a substance when heat is absorbed?

a) It increases b) It decreases c) It remains the same d) It depends on the substance Answer: a) It increases

Which of the following materials is a good conductor of electricity but a poor conductor of heat?

a) Copper b) Aluminum c) Glass d) Rubber Answer: c) Glass

What is the process called when a gas changes directly into a solid without becoming a liquid first?

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Freezing d) Sublimation Answer: d) Sublimation

In which state of matter do particles have the most kinetic energy?

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) All have the same kinetic energy Answer: c) Gas

The transfer of heat energy between objects that are not in direct contact is called:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: c) Radiation

The most common unit of heat found on food packaging is:

a) Fahrenheit b) Celsius c) Kelvin d) Calorie Answer: d) Calorie

Chapter 5 Acids, Bases and Salts

Which of the following substances is known as an acid?

a) Sodium chloride b) Calcium hydroxide c) Sulphuric acid d) Potassium nitrate Answer: c) Sulphuric acid

Which of the following is a characteristic of an acid?

a) Bitter taste b) Slippery feel c) Turns red litmus paper blue d) Sour taste Answer: d) Sour taste

Which of the following is an example of a natural acid?

a) Hydrochloric acid b) Lemon juice c) Vinegar d) Battery acid Answer: b) Lemon juice

What is the pH value of a neutral solution?

a) 0 b) 7 c) 10 d) 14 Answer: b) 7

Which of the following is an example of a base?

a) Vinegar b) Baking soda c) Carbon dioxide d) Lemon juice Answer: b) Baking soda

What is the colour of a blue litmus paper when dipped in an acid?

a) Red b) Blue c) Green d) Yellow Answer: a) Red

What is the chemical name for baking soda?

a) Sodium chloride b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate c) Sodium nitrate d) Sodium sulphate Answer: b) Sodium hydrogen carbonate

Which gas is produced when an acid reacts with a metal?

a) Hydrogen gas b) Oxygen gas c) Carbon dioxide gas d) Nitrogen gas Answer: a) Hydrogen gas

Which substance is formed by combining an acid and a base?

a) Salt b) Water c) Acid d) Gas Answer: a) Salt

What type of solution does an antacid tablet produce?

a) Acidic b) Neutral c) Basic d) Alkaline Answer: c) Basic

Which acid is present in curd?

a) Lactic acid b) Citric acid c) Sulphuric acid d) Nitric acid Answer: a) Lactic acid

What is the taste of a base?

a) Sweet b) Salty c) Sour d) Bitter Answer: d) Bitter

Why does the colour of litmus paper change when dipped in an acidic or basic solution?

a) Due to a chemical reaction with litmus paper b) Litmus paper changes its colour naturally c) Litmus paper is designed to change colour d) Litmus paper detects the presence of hydrogen ions (H+) or hydroxide ions (OH-) Answer: d) Litmus paper detects the presence of hydrogen ions (H+) or hydroxide ions (OH-)

Which acid is present in ant stings?

a) Formic acid b) Acetic acid c) Carbonic acid d) Sulphuric acid Answer: a) Formic acid

What is the pH value of a strong acid?

a) 0-3 b) 4-6 c) 7-9 d) 10-14 Answer: a) 0-3

Which of the following is a common household base?

a) Vinegar b) Coffee c) Soap d) Orange juice Answer: c) Soap

What is the pH value of a strong base?

a) 0-3 b) 4-6 c) 7-9 d) 10-14 Answer: d) 10-14

Which of the following is used as an indicator to test the pH of a solution?

a) Water b) Air c) Litmus paper d) Wood Answer: c) Litmus paper

What happens when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

a) It produces salt and water b) It produces salt and carbon dioxide gas c) It produces salt and oxygen gas d) It produces salt and hydrogen gas Answer: b) It produces salt and carbon dioxide gas

Which of the following is not an example of a salt?

a) Sodium chloride b) Calcium carbonate c) Citric acid d) Magnesium sulphate Answer: c) Citric acid

Which gas is produced when an acid reacts with a metal carbonate?

a) Hydrogen gas b) Oxygen gas c) Carbon dioxide gas d) Nitrogen gas Answer: c) Carbon dioxide gas

What is the pH value of a weak acid?

a) 0-3 b) 4-6 c) 7-9 d) 10-14 Answer: b) 4-6

Which of the following is an example of a strong acid?

a) Acetic acid b) Citric acid c) Hydrochloric acid d) Sulphuric acid Answer: d) Sulphuric acid

Which acid is present in vinegar?

a) Acetic acid b) Lactic acid c) Sulphuric acid d) Nitric acid Answer: a) Acetic acid

Which substance turns blue litmus paper red?

a) Acid b) Base c) Salt d) Water Answer: a) Acid

What is the pH value of a weak base?

a) 0-3 b) 4-6 c) 7-9 d) 10-14 Answer: b) 4-6

What is the pH value of lemon juice?

a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9 Answer: a) 2

Which acid is present in a common battery?

a) Hydrochloric acid b) Sulphuric acid c) Nitric acid d) Phosphoric acid Answer: b) Sulphuric acid

What is the pH value of milk?

a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9 Answer: b) 5

Which substance is commonly used to neutralize an acid spill?

a) Soap b) Water c) Vinegar d) Baking soda Answer: d) Baking soda

What happens when an acid reacts with a metal oxide?

a) It produces salt and water b) It produces salt and carbon dioxide gas c) It produces salt and oxygen gas d) It produces salt and hydrogen gas Answer: a) It produces salt and water

Which of the following is a weak base? a) Sodium hydroxide b) Calcium hydroxide c) Ammonia d) Potassium hydroxide Answer: c) Ammonia

What is the pH value of an alkaline solution?

a) 0-3 b) 4-6 c) 7-9 d) 10-14 Answer: d) 10-14

Which acid is present in tomato?

a) Citric acid b) Lactic acid c) Sulphuric acid d) Nitric acid Answer: a) Citric acid

Which of the following is an example of a weak acid?

a) Hydrochloric acid b) Acetic acid c) Sulphuric acid d) Phosphoric acid Answer: b) Acetic acid

What is the pH value of orange juice?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 7 d) 10 Answer: a) 2

Which acid is commonly found in your stomach?

a) Hydrochloric acid b) Nitric acid c) Sulphuric acid d) Acetic acid Answer: a) Hydrochloric acid

What is the pH value of a weak base?

a) 0-3 b) 4-6 c) 7-9 d) 10-14 Answer: b) 4-6

What is the pH value of seawater?

a) 7 b) 8 c) 9 d) 10 Answer: b) 8

Which of the following is a strong base?

a) Sodium hydroxide b) Calcium hydroxide c) Ammonia d) Potassium hydroxide Answer: a) Sodium hydroxide

What color does phenolphthalein turn in an acidic solution?

a) Colorless b) Red c) Blue d) Green Answer: a) Colorless

Which acid is present in grapes?

a) Citric acid b) Tartaric acid c) Sulphuric acid d) Nitric acid Answer: b) Tartaric acid

Which of the following is used to prepare lime water?

a) Calcium carbonate b) Sodium chloride c) Potassium nitrate d) Ammonium chloride Answer: a) Calcium carbonate

What happens when an acid reacts with a metal hydroxide?

a) It produces salt and water b) It produces salt and carbon dioxide gas c) It produces salt and oxygen gas d) It produces salt and hydrogen gas Answer: a) It produces salt and water

What is the pH value of a strong acid?

a) 0-3 b) 4-6 c) 7-9 d) 10-14 Answer: a) 0-3

Which of the following is an example of an indicator?

a) Salt b) Sugar c) Litmus d) Carbon dioxide Answer: c) Litmus

What is the pH value of a strong base?

a) 0-3 b) 4-6 c) 7-9 d) 10-14 Answer: d) 10-14

Which acid is commonly used in car batteries?

a) Hydrochloric acid b) Sulphuric acid c) Nitric acid d) Phosphoric acid Answer: b) Sulphuric acid

What is the pH value of vinegar?

a) 2 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9 Answer: a) 2

Which substance turns red litmus paper blue?

a) Acid b) Base c) Salt d) Water Answer: b) Base

Chapter 6 Physical and Chemical Changes

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Burning of wood b. Boiling of water c. Rusting of iron d. Digestion of food Answer: b. Boiling of water

When a metal object gets rusted, a _____ change takes place.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: b. Chemical

Which of the following is not an example of a physical change?

a. Melting of ice b. Dissolving salt in water c. Burning of paper d. Freezing of water Answer: c. Burning of paper

When a solid changes directly into a gas without changing into a liquid first, it is called:

a. Condensation b. Sublimation c. Evaporation d. Vaporization Answer: b. Sublimation

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a. Cutting a paper into pieces b. Melting of butter c. Cooking an egg d. Breaking a glass Answer: c. Cooking an egg

The process of burning is also known as:

a. Evaporation b. Sublimation c. Combustion d. Condensation Answer: c. Combustion

Which of the following is a physical change?

a. Ripening of a fruit b. Souring of milk c. Baking a cake d. Chewing food Answer: d. Chewing food

The process of converting a liquid into a gas is called:

a. Freezing b. Melting c. Sublimation d. Evaporation Answer: d. Evaporation

When iron reacts with oxygen and forms rust, it is a ________ change.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: b. Chemical

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a. Condensation of water vapor b. Mixing salt and water c. Breaking a stick d. Burning of a candle wax Answer: d. Burning of a candle wax

Changing the shape of an object is a ________ change.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: a. Physical

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Digestion of food b. Corroding of iron c. Dissolving sugar in water d. Ripening of a fruit Answer: c. Dissolving sugar in water

The process of converting a gas directly into a solid is called:

a. Freezing b. Melting c. Condensation d. Sublimation Answer: d. Sublimation

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a. Boiling water b. Breaking a glass c. Mixing lemon juice and water d. Rusting of iron Answer: d. Rusting of iron

Which of the following is a physical change?

a. Fermentation of grapes b. Digestion of food c. Evaporation of water d. Burning of wood Answer: c. Evaporation of water

A change in which no new substance is formed is called:

a. Physical change b. Chemical change c. Both a and b d. None of the above Answer: a. Physical change

The process of converting a solid into a liquid is called:

a. Sublimation b. Melting c. Evaporation d. Condensation Answer: b. Melting

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Fermenting dough to make bread b. Decomposing food in the stomach c. Baking a cake d. Dissolving salt in water Answer: d. Dissolving salt in water

Burning of a substance is a ______ change.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: b. Chemical

The process in which a liquid changes into a solid is called:

a. Evaporation b. Freezing c. Condensation d. Sublimation Answer: b. Freezing

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a. Boiling of water b. Melting of ice c. Digestion of food d. Dissolving salt in water Answer: c. Digestion of food

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Souring of milk b. Burning of paper c. Digestion of food d. Melting of butter Answer: d. Melting of butter

When a solid substance changes directly into a gas without becoming a liquid first, it is called:

a. Evaporation b. Condensation c. Sublimation d. Freezing Answer: c. Sublimation

Which of the following is a physical property?

a. Reactivity with acid b. Ability to burn c. Density d. Ability to rust Answer: c. Density

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Rusting of iron b. Photosynthesis in plants c. Breaking a glass d. Cooking of food Answer: c. Breaking a glass

A balloon gets inflated when air is blown into it. This is an example of a ________ change.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: a. Physical

When a candle burns, it involves a ________ change.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: b. Chemical

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a. Dissolving salt in water b. Sublimation of camphor c. Mixing oil and water d. Rusting of iron Answer: d. Rusting of iron

The process of converting a gas into a liquid is called:

a. Freezing b. Melting c. Condensation d. Evaporation Answer: c. Condensation

Which of the following is a physical change?

a. Electroplating a metal b. Decomposing food c. Cooking an egg d. Burning of wood Answer: a. Electroplating a metal

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Rusting of iron b. Corroding of silver c. Tearing a piece of paper d. Digestion of food Answer: c. Tearing a piece of paper

The process of converting a liquid into a solid is called:

a. Evaporation b. Melting c. Freezing d. Sublimation Answer: c. Freezing

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a. Dissolving sugar in water b. Boiling of water c. Melting of ice d. Burning of wood Answer: d. Burning of wood

When milk turns sour, it is a ________ change.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: b. Chemical

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Digestion of food b. Fermentation of grapes c. Boiling of water d. Growing of a plant Answer: c. Boiling of water

The process of converting a solid into a gas without becoming a liquid first is called:

a. Melting b. Boiling c. Evaporation d. Sublimation Answer: d. Sublimation

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a. Dissolving salt in water b. Dissecting a frog c. Burning of fuel d. Melting of ice Answer: c. Burning of fuel

When a candle burns, it releases ________.

a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Water vapor d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Cooking food b. Digesting food c. Souring of milk d. Magnetizing a needle Answer: d. Magnetizing a needle

When silverware tarnishes over time, it is a ________ change.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: b. Chemical

Which of the following is a physical property?

a. Ability to rust b. Density c. Reactivity with acid d. Ability to burn Answer: b. Density

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Cooking an omelet b. Digesting food c. Boiling water d. Fermenting grapes Answer: c. Boiling water

When wood burns, it is a ________ change.

a. Physical b. Chemical c. Biological d. None of the above Answer: b. Chemical

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a. Melting of chocolate b. Mixing salt and sand c. Grooving a metal surface d. Burning of gasoline Answer: d. Burning of gasoline

Which of the following is an example of a physical change?

a. Photosynthesis in plants b. Aging of a person c. Melting of ice d. Digestion of food Answer: c. Melting of ice

The process of converting a liquid into a gas is called:

a. Freezing b. Melting c. Sublimation d. Evaporation Answer: d. Evaporation

Which of the following is a physical change?

a. Oxidizing of iron b. Decomposing food in the stomach c. Freezing of water d. Cooking food Answer: c. Freezing of water

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a. Dissolving sugar in water b. Melting of ice cream c. Boiling of water d. Baking a cake Answer: d. Baking a cake

When a candle burns, it gives off _____. a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Water vapor d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above

Which of the following is a chemical change?

a. Crushing a can b. Burning paper c. Dissolving salt in water d. Evaporating water

Chapter 7 Weather, Climate, and Adaptations of Animals to Climate

Weather refers to the:

a) Short-term atmospheric conditions b) Long-term average atmospheric conditions c) Seasonal changes in climate d) Natural disasters like hurricanes Answer: a) Short-term atmospheric conditions

What is the main factor that determines climate?

a) Humidity b) Temperature c) Precipitation d) Wind speed Answer: b) Temperature

The average weather conditions of a place over many years is known as:

a) Climate b) Forecast c) Atmosphere d) Barometer Answer: a) Climate

Which of the following is an example of an adaptation to a hot climate?

a) Thick fur b) Hibernation c) Camouflage d) Long and thin beaks Answer: d) Long and thin beaks

Pigs rolling in mud to cool themselves is an example of:

a) Hibernation b) Brumation c) Estivation d) Behavioral adaptation Answer: d) Behavioral adaptation

Birds migrating to warmer regions during winter is an example of:

a) Structural adaptation b) Camouflage c) Hibernation d) Seasonal migration Answer: d) Seasonal migration

Which of the following animals has thick fur to survive in cold climates?

a) Polar bear b) Camel c) Cheetah d) Giraffe Answer: a) Polar bear

The process by which plants release water vapor into the atmosphere is called:

a) Transpiration b) Photosynthesis c) Respiration d) Evaporation Answer: a) Transpiration

The tool used to measure the intensity of rainfall is called a:

a) Thermometer b) Hydrometer c) Rain gauge d) Barometer Answer: c) Rain gauge

Which of the following factors does NOT influence the climate of a place?

a) Latitude b) Altitude c) Ocean currents d) Humidity Answer: d) Humidity

The prefix "micro-" in micrometer refers to:

a) A large size b) A small size c) A medium size d) A high temperature Answer: b) A small size

Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere contains the ozone layer?

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere Answer: b) Stratosphere

The greenhouse effect is caused by the increased concentration of:

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Water vapor Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

Which of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?

a) Methane b) Nitrous oxide c) Ozone d) Hydrogen Answer: d) Hydrogen

The instrument used to measure wind speed is called an:

a) Anemometer b) Hygrometer c) Barometer d) Altimeter Answer: a) Anemometer

The process of conversion of a gas into a liquid is called:

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Sublimation d) Freezing Answer: a) Condensation

Which of the following climates is characterized by heavy rainfall throughout the year?

a) Tropical rainforest b) Desert c) Tundra d) Mediterranean Answer: a) Tropical rainforest

The process by which ice directly changes into water vapor without melting is called:

a) Evaporation b) Sublimation c) Condensation d) Transpiration Answer: b) Sublimation

The boundary where two air masses of different temperatures meet is called a:

a) Front b) Longitude c) Equator d) Axis Answer: a) Front

The study of weather is known as:

a) Anthropology b) Ecology c) Meteorology d) Geology Answer: c) Meteorology

The region near the equator is generally characterized by:

a) High temperature and high rainfall b) Low temperature and high rainfall c) High temperature and low rainfall d) Low temperature and low rainfall Answer: a) High temperature and high rainfall

The expansion of the Earth's atmosphere due to an increase in temperature is called:

a) Expansion b) Contraction c) Compression d) Global warming Answer: d) Global warming

A blizzard is a severe winter storm characterized by:

a) Heavy rain b) Strong winds and snow c) Thunderstorms d) Hailstorm Answer: b) Strong winds and snow

Which of the following instruments measures atmospheric pressure?

a) Thermometer b) Hydrometer c) Barometer d) Rain gauge Answer: c) Barometer

The process of conversion of water vapor into liquid water is called:

a) Evaporation b) Sublimation c) Condensation d) Transpiration Answer: c) Condensation

The region of the Earth with the hottest climate is the:

a) Arctic b) Amazon rainforest c) Sahara Desert d) Antarctica Answer: c) Sahara Desert

Which of the following is NOT an example of a tropical climate?

a) Monsoon b) Savanna c) Desert d) Rainforest Answer: c) Desert

The layer of the atmosphere where most weather phenomena occur is the:

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere Answer: a) Troposphere

The process by which plants convert sunlight into energy is called:

a) Transpiration b) Photosynthesis c) Respiration d) Evaporation Answer: b) Photosynthesis

Oceans and large water bodies have a moderating effect on:

a) Temperature b) Rainfall c) Humidity d) Wind speed Answer: a) Temperature

Which of the following is NOT an adaptation of animals to cold climates?

a) Thick fur b) Layer of blubber c) Migration d) Hibernation Answer: c) Migration

The layer of the atmosphere that contains the ozone layer is important because it:

a) Protects us from ultraviolet radiation b) Influences the Earth's climate c) Provides oxygen for respiration d) Helps in cloud formation Answer: a) Protects us from ultraviolet radiation

The natural disaster characterized by a rotating column of air is called a:

a) Hurricane b) Tornado c) Earthquake d) Tsunami Answer: b) Tornado

Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting wind patterns?

a) Temperature differences b) Pressure differences c) Ocean currents d) Coriolis effect Answer: c) Ocean currents

The band of convectional rainforests near the equator is known as the:

a) Trade winds b) Doldrums c) Horse latitudes d) Westerlies Answer: b) Doldrums

The adaptation of animals to dry climates to conserve water is called:

a) Hibernation b) Migration c) Camouflage d) Estivation Answer: d) Estivation

The smallest unit of climate is called:

a) Weather b) Ecosystem c) Biosphere d) Microclimate Answer: d) Microclimate

Which of the following gases is the major component of the Earth's atmosphere?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Argon Answer: b) Nitrogen

The region of the Earth with the coldest climate is the:

a) Arctic b) Amazon rainforest c) Sahara Desert d) Antarctica Answer: d) Antarctica

The process of water vapor turning into ice directly is called:

a) Evaporation b) Sublimation c) Condensation d) Freezing Answer: b) Sublimation

The East Asian monsoon is characterized by:

a) Heavy rainfall in winter b) Hot and dry summers c) Cyclones and typhoons d) Strong trade winds Answer: a) Heavy rainfall in winter

The process of heat transfer through direct contact is called:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Insulation Answer: a) Conduction

The biome characterized by long, cold winters and short summers is the:

a) Rainforest b) Desert c) Taiga d) Tundra Answer: c) Taiga

The term "El Niño" refers to:

a) Long-term climate change b) A sudden increase in global temperature c) Periodic warming of the Pacific Ocean d) Changes in the Earth's magnetic field Answer: c) Periodic warming of the Pacific Ocean

The process of conversion of a liquid into a gas is called:

a) Evaporation b) Sublimation c) Condensation d) Transpiration Answer: a) Evaporation

Which of the following is NOT a type of precipitation?

a) Rain b) Snow c) Hail d) Wind Answer: d) Wind

The movement of air from a region of high pressure to a region of low pressure is called:

a) Air pressure b) Humidity c) Wind d) Air pollution Answer: c) Wind

Which of the following instruments is used to measure humidity?

a) Thermometer b) Hydrometer c) Barometer d) Rain gauge Answer: b) Hydrometer

The natural disaster characterized by violent shaking of the Earth's surface is called an:

a) Hurricane b) Tornado c) Earthquake d) Tsunami Answer: c) Earthquake

The prime meridian passes through which city?

a) London b) Paris c) New York d) Beijing Answer: a) London

Chapter 8 Winds, Storms and Cyclones

What causes wind? a) Cool air b) Hot air c) Moist air d) Calm air Answer: b) Hot air

Air moves from higher pressure to lower pressure, creating:

a) High winds b) Storms c) Cyclones d) Breezes Answer: d) Breezes

The instrument used to measure wind speed is called a:

a) Anemometer b) Barometer c) Hydrometer d) Thermometer Answer: a) Anemometer

The direction from which the wind blows is called:

a) Wind speed b) Wind current c) Wind direction d) Wind velocity Answer: c) Wind direction

The rotating column of air that usually accompanies a thunderstorm is called a:

a) Cyclone b) Typhoon c) Tornado d) Hurricane Answer: c) Tornado

Which of the following is not a wind instrument?

a) Sailboat b) Windmill c) Windsock d) Anemometer Answer: a) Sailboat

The center of a cyclone is called the:

a) Eye b) Core c) Nucleus d) Centerpoint Answer: a) Eye

The strong, fast-moving winds on the outskirts of a cyclone are known as:

a) Core winds b) Eye winds c) Spiral winds d) Gusting winds Answer: c) Spiral winds

The low-pressure system with winds spiraling inward is called a:

a) Cyclone b) Tornado c) Hurricane d) Thunderstorm Answer: a) Cyclone

Hurricanes in the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific are also called:

a) Cyclones b) Typhoons c) Tornadoes d) Monsoons Answer: a) Cyclones

The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is called a:

a) Barometer b) Hygrometer c) Anemometer d) Thermometer Answer: a) Barometer

Which direction do cyclones rotate in the Northern Hemisphere?

a) Clockwise b) Anticlockwise c) No rotation d) Depends on the storm Answer: b) Anticlockwise

If a wind vane points towards the east, the wind is blowing from the:

a) North b) South c) West d) East Answer: a) North

What causes global winds like the Trade Winds and Westerlies?

a) Rotation of the Earth b) Gravitational pull c) Human activities d) Solar eclipses Answer: a) Rotation of the Earth

The process of wind flow being deflected due to the Earth's rotation is called the:

a) Coriolis effect b) Air pressure c) Wind speed d) Wind current Answer: a) Coriolis effect

Wind speed is measured in:

a) Kilograms b) Meters per second c) Liters d) Ounces Answer: b) Meters per second

Which of the following is not a type of wind?

a) Monsoon b) Zephyr c) Southerly d) Typhoon Answer: c) Southerly

The circular motion of air around an area of low pressure is due to:

a) High pressure b) Low pressure c) Gravity d) Magnetic fields Answer: b) Low pressure

Which of the following is an example of a local wind?

a) Monsoon b) Westerlies c) Sea breeze d) Polar easterlies Answer: c) Sea breeze

Which state in India experiences the famous "Mistral" type of local wind?

a) West Bengal b) Kerala c) Rajasthan d) Andhra Pradesh Answer: c) Rajasthan

The destructive force of a cyclone is mainly due to:

a) Strong winds b) Heavy rainfall c) Storm surges d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Coriolis forces are maximum at the:

a) Equator b) Tropic of Cancer c) Tropic of Capricorn d) Poles Answer: d) Poles

Which of the following can reduce the intensity or prevent cyclones?

a) Early warning systems b) Cyclone shelters c) Proper evacuation plans d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Which type of clouds are associated with thunderstorms?

a) Stratus clouds b) Cumulus clouds c) Cirrus clouds d) Nimbus clouds Answer: b) Cumulus clouds

The rapid upward movement of warm air and the downward flow of cool air is called:

a) Air pressure b) Convection c) Precipitation d) Air density Answer: b) Convection

A cyclone with wind speeds up to 118 km/h is referred to as a:

a) Tropical depression b) Tropical storm c) Tropical disturbance d) Super cyclone Answer: b) Tropical storm

The boundary where two air masses with different temperatures meet is called a:

a) Cold front b) Warm front c) Occluded front d) Stationary front Answer: d) Stationary front

Which is the most powerful and destructive category of hurricanes?

a) Category 1 b) Category 2 c) Category 3 d) Category 5 Answer: d) Category 5

Winds blowing between -34°C to -54°C latitude are referred to as:

a) Polar easterlies b) Westerlies c) Polar vortex d) Trade winds Answer: a) Polar easterlies

The blowing of warm and dry desert winds in the northern plains of India during summer is called:

a) Mango showers b) Mango monsoon c) Loo d) Squall Answer: c) Loo

An anticyclone is a region of:

a) Low pressure b) High pressure c) No pressure d) Variable pressure Answer: b) High pressure

The calm region at the center of a tropical cyclone is also known as the:

a) Calm belt b) Neutral zone c) Eye d) Equator Answer: c) Eye

Which of the following is not a unit of wind speed?

a) Knot b) Meter per second c) Miles per gallon d) Kilometer per hour Answer: c) Miles per gallon

Thunderstorms are usually accompanied by:

a) Lightning b) Hail c) Heavy rainfall d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

On a hot summer day, the land gets heated up faster than the water, leading to the formation of:

a) Sea breeze b) Land breeze c) Monsoon winds d) Cyclones Answer: b) Land breeze

Which scale is used to measure the intensity of tornadoes?

a) Beaufort scale b) Fujita scale c) Richter scale d) Mercalli scale Answer: b) Fujita scale

Which instrument is used to measure the amount of rainfall?

a) Anemometer b) Barometer c) Hygrometer d) Rain gauge Answer: d) Rain gauge

Which of the following storms typically forms over warm ocean waters?

a) Tornado b) Blizzard c) Hurricane d) Sandstorm Answer: c) Hurricane

Winds that blow from the northeast or southwest towards the equator are known as:

a) Easterlies b) Westerlies c) Trade winds d) Polar easterlies Answer: c) Trade winds

The term "windstorm" refers to: a) Strong wind with heavy rain b) Localized dust or sandstorm c) Extremely powerful tornado d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

What is the unit used to measure air pressure?

a) Pascal b) Newton c) Joule d) Watt Answer: a) Pascal

Which gas makes up the majority of Earth's atmosphere?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen Answer: b) Nitrogen

The bending of wind around objects is called:

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffusion d) Deflection Answer: d) Deflection

The movement of air from land to sea during the night is known as a:

a) Land breeze b) Sea breeze c) Monsoon d) Cyclone Answer: a) Land breeze

Which of the following statements is true about cyclones?

a) They always occur over land b) They form in calm regions c) They have calm weather conditions d) They are associated with low pressure Answer: d) They are associated with low pressure

Which of the following phenomena occur due to the massive movement of air?

a) Earthquakes b) Tornadoes c) Erosion d) Volcanic eruptions Answer: b) Tornadoes

The process by which water or moisture changes from a liquid to a gas is called:

a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Precipitation d) Sublimation Answer: a) Evaporation

Which of the following is not a safety measure during a cyclone?

a) Staying indoors b) Moving to higher ground c) Avoiding coastal areas d) Seeking shelter in a strong building Answer: b) Moving to higher ground

The scale used to classify the strength of a cyclone is called the:

a) Richter scale b) Fujita scale c) Saffir-Simpson scale d) Beaufort scale Answer: c) Saffir-Simpson scale

The narrow belt near the equator with light and variable winds is known as the:

a) Doldrums b) Horse latitudes c) Trade winds d) Jet stream Answer: a) Doldrums

Chapter 9 Soil

Which of the following is the uppermost layer of the Earth's surface?

a) Soil b) Bedrock c) Crust d) Mantle Answer: c) Crust

What is the main component of soil?

a) Rocks b) Minerals c) Organic matter d) Water Answer: a) Rocks

Soil formation is a slow process and can take:

a) Days b) Weeks c) Months d) Years Answer: d) Years

Which of the following is not a factor contributing to soil formation?

a) Climate b) Time c) Volcanic activity d) Plants and animals Answer: c) Volcanic activity

Which soil type contains the highest amount of organic matter?

a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Rocky soil Answer: b) Loamy soil

Which soil type has the smallest particles?

a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Rocky soil Answer: c) Clayey soil

Soil erosion can be prevented by:

a) Overgrazing b) Deforestation c) Planting trees d) Leaving the soil bare Answer: c) Planting trees

The process of topsoil being washed away by water or wind is called:

a) Soil degradation b) Soil erosion c) Soil fertility d) Soil conservation Answer: b) Soil erosion

Which of the following is a method of soil conservation?

a) Overgrazing b) Deforestation c) Terracing d) Monoculture farming Answer: c) Terracing

Which soil type holds water most effectively?

a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Rocky soil Answer: c) Clayey soil

Humus is formed by the decomposition of:

a) Rocks b) Minerals c) Organic matter d) Water Answer: c) Organic matter

Which soil type is most suitable for plant growth?

a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Rocky soil Answer: b) Loamy soil

Soil pH is a measure of:

a) Soil color b) Soil texture c) Soil fertility d) Soil acidity or alkalinity Answer: d) Soil acidity or alkalinity

Which soil type is well-drained and has good aeration?

a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Rocky soil Answer: a) Sandy soil

The organic material present in the topsoil is called:

a) Clay b) Silt c) Sand d) Humus Answer: d) Humus

Soils with low fertility can be made more fertile by adding:

a) Chemical fertilizers b) Pesticides c) Herbicides d) Organic matter Answer: d) Organic matter

The horizons of soil are represented as:

a) A, B, C, D b) X, Y, Z c) I, II, III, IV d) O, A, B, C Answer: d) O, A, B, C

Which soil horizon consists of partially weathered rocks?

a) Horizon A b) Horizon B c) Horizon C d) Horizon D Answer: c) Horizon C

Leaching is the process in which:

a) Water evaporates from the soil b) Nutrients are washed away from the soil c) Soil particles settle down d) Soil erodes due to wind Answer: b) Nutrients are washed away from the soil

Waterlogging occurs when:

a) Soil is too dry b) Soil has excessive organic matter c) Soil retains too much water d) Soil is too acidic Answer: c) Soil retains too much water

Which soil type has the highest water-holding capacity?

a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Rocky soil Answer: c) Clayey soil

The process in which small particles of soil are carried away by water or wind is called:

a) Soil fertility b) Soil erosion c) Soil conservation d) Soil degradation Answer: b) Soil erosion

Which of the following is not a factor affecting the fertility of soil?

a) Soil texture b) pH c) Organic matter content d) Altitude Answer: d) Altitude

The process of adding nutrients to the soil is called:

a) Soil erosion b) Soil degradation c) Soil conservation d) Soil enrichment Answer: d) Soil enrichment

Which soil type has the lowest water-holding capacity?

a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Rocky soil Answer: a) Sandy soil

The process in which plants lose water through their leaves is called:

a) Transpiration b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: a) Transpiration

Soil pollution can be caused by:

a) Industrial waste b) Excessive use of fertilizers c) Pesticides and herbicides d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

The process in which water carries suspended soil particles is called:

a) Leaching b) Erosion c) Percolation d) Infiltration Answer: b) Erosion

Vermicomposting is:

a) A process of chemical weathering b) The decomposition of organic waste using worms c) The process of soil formation d) The process of adding minerals to the soil Answer: b) The decomposition of organic waste using worms

Which soil type is most prone to waterlogging?

a) Sandy soil b) Loamy soil c) Clayey soil d) Rocky soil Answer: c) Clayey soil

Soil conservation is important because it helps to:

a) Maintain soil fertility b) Prevent soil erosion c) Preserve biodiversity d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

The process of breaking down rocks into smaller particles by physical or chemical means is called:

a) Weathering b) Erosion c) Leaching d) Percolation Answer: a) Weathering

Which of the following is an example of a natural soil pollutant?

a) Pesticides b) Herbicides c) Heavy metals d) Forest fire ash Answer: d) Forest fire ash

The color of soil tells us about its:

a) Texture b) Fertility c) pH d) All of the above Answer: a) Texture

The ideal pH range for most plants to grow well in soil is:

a) 0-3 b) 4-7 c) 8-11 d) 12-14 Answer: b) 4-7

Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are essential:

a) Organic matter in soil b) Nutrients for plant growth c) Components of rocks d) Types of soil particles Answer: b) Nutrients for plant growth

Which soil horizon is also known as the subsoil layer?

a) Horizon A b) Horizon B c) Horizon C d) Horizon D Answer: b) Horizon B

Which of the following is an example of a soil conservation practice?

a) Contour plowing b) Overgrazing c) Deforestation d) Monoculture farming Answer: a) Contour plowing

The decayed leaves and animal waste present in the topsoil provide:

a) Nutrients to plants b) Anchorage to plants c) Water to plants d) Aeration to plants Answer: a) Nutrients to plants

The uppermost dark layer of soil is called:

a) Horizon A b) Horizon B c) Horizon C d) Horizon D Answer: a) Horizon A

The process of water moving vertically down through the soil is called:

a) Leaching b) Erosion c) Percolation d) Infiltration Answer: c) Percolation

The process in which soil particles settle down is called:

a) Leaching b) Erosion c) Percolation d) Sedimentation Answer: d) Sedimentation

The process in which water particles enter the soil is called:

a) Leaching b) Erosion c) Percolation d) Infiltration Answer: d) Infiltration

Which of the following is a measure of soil fertility?

a) Color b) Texture c) pH d) Organic matter content Answer: d) Organic matter content

The process in which organic matter is broken down into simpler substances is called:

a) Humification b) Mineralization c) Weathering d) Fertilization Answer: b) Mineralization

Raining over an area for long periods can cause:

a) Leaching b) Erosion c) Soil degradation d) Soil conservation Answer: a) Leaching

Which soil horizon consists of weathered rock fragments?

a) Horizon A b) Horizon B c) Horizon C d) Horizon D Answer: a) Horizon A

The process through which water rises from lower soil layers to upper layers is called:

a) Leaching b) Erosion c) Capillarity d) Percolation Answer: c) Capillarity

Which of the following is a benefit of soil organisms?

a) Nutrient cycling b) Soil erosion c) Soil pollution d) Desertification Answer: a) Nutrient cycling

The process of the breakdown of rocks by living organisms is called:

a) Weathering b) Erosion c) Leaching d) Organic decomposition Answer: a) Weathering

Chapter 10 Respiration in Organisms

Which of the following is not a part of the respiratory system in humans?

a) Nose b) Trachea c) Esophagus d) Lungs Answer: c) Esophagus

The process of taking in oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide is known as:

a) Respiration b) Inspiration c) Expiration d) Inhalation Answer: a) Respiration

Which of the following is not a respiratory organ in humans?

a) Gills b) Skin c) Lungs d) Trachea Answer: a) Gills

Respiration occurs in _______.

a) Plants only b) Humans only c) Animals only d) Both plants and animals Answer: d) Both plants and animals

The exchange of gases in plants occurs through the process of:

a) Stomata b) Transpiration c) Photosynthesis d) Respiration Answer: a) Stomata

Which of the following is the correct path of air during respiration in humans?

a) Nasal cavity → Larynx → Trachea → Lungs b) Larynx → Nasal cavity → Trachea → Lungs c) Trachea → Larynx → Nasal cavity → Lungs d) Lungs → Trachea → Nasal cavity → Larynx Answer: a) Nasal cavity → Larynx → Trachea → Lungs

The tiny air sacs in the lungs where the exchange of gases takes place are called:

a) Alveoli b) Bronchi c) Trachea d) Diaphragm Answer: a) Alveoli

The waste product of respiration in humans is _______.

a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Water vapor Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

During respiration, the exchange of gases in the alveoli occurs between:

a) Blood and air b) Lungs and skin c) Bronchi and trachea d) Diaphragm and bronchioles Answer: a) Blood and air

The presence of _______ in the air helps in the efficient transport of oxygen in the blood.

a) Hemoglobin b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Oxygen molecules Answer: a) Hemoglobin

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Anaerobic respiration requires oxygen b) Aerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen c) Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration require oxygen d) Anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen Answer: d) Anaerobic respiration occurs in the absence of oxygen

The energy released during respiration is stored in the form of:

a) Glucose b) ATP molecules c) Carbon dioxide d) Water Answer: b) ATP molecules

The breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen is called:

a) Aerobic respiration b) Anaerobic respiration c) Photosynthesis d) Transpiration Answer: b) Anaerobic respiration

In humans, the diaphragm is a muscular structure involved in:

a) Digestion b) Reproduction c) Respiration d) Excretion Answer: c) Respiration

During intense physical activity, muscles may undergo anaerobic respiration, leading to the production

of _______. a) Alcohol b) Carbon dioxide c) Lactic acid d) Water vapor Answer: c) Lactic acid

The opening and closing of stomata during respiration in plants is controlled by the _______.

a) Stem b) Leaves c) Chlorophyll d) Guard cells Answer: d) Guard cells

The breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen is known as:

a) Anaerobic respiration b) Fermentation c) Photosynthesis d) Aerobic respiration Answer: d) Aerobic respiration

In plants, respiration occurs mainly in the _______.

a) Leaves b) Stems c) Flowers d) Roots Answer: a) Leaves

The exchange of gases in fish occurs through specialized respiratory organs called _______.

a) Lungs b) Gills c) Spiracles d) Tracheae Answer: b) Gills

The ribs in the human body help in:

a) Facilitating breathing b) Pumping blood c) Protecting the heart d) Digestion Answer: a) Facilitating breathing

Which of the following substances is not involved in respiration?

a) Glucose b) Oxygen c) Carbon dioxide d) Chlorophyll Answer: d) Chlorophyll

The exchange of gases in humans occurs in the:

a) Small intestine b) Large intestine c) Stomach d) Lungs Answer: d) Lungs

The built-up of lactic acid in muscles causes cramps during:

a) Rest b) Rigorous exercise c) Sleep d) Eating Answer: b) Rigorous exercise

Which process is responsible for the production of energy in living organisms?

a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Respiration d) Fermentation Answer: c) Respiration

In humans, the outer layer of the respiratory system is lined with tiny hair-like structures called:

a) Cilia b) Gills c) Alveoli d) Capillaries Answer: a) Cilia

How is oxygen transported to body cells in humans?

a) Through blood plasma b) Through the nervous system c) Through the lymphatic system d) Through red blood cells Answer: d) Through red blood cells

Which of the following is an example of anaerobic respiration?

a) Cellular respiration b) Photosynthesis c) Fermentation d) Transpiration Answer: c) Fermentation

The process of respiration in plants is facilitated by the tiny openings on the leaves called:

a) Stomata b) Stomach c) Veins d) Cuticles Answer: a) Stomata

The organ responsible for the production of sound in humans is the:

a) Larynx b) Alveoli c) Trachea d) Diaphragm Answer: a) Larynx

In which of the following organisms does respiration occur through the skin?

a) Birds b) Fish c) Reptiles d) Humans Answer: c) Reptiles

The oxygen released during photosynthesis is produced as a by-product of:

a) Carbon dioxide b) Water c) Glucose d) Sunlight Answer: b) Water

Which of the following statements is true about aerobic respiration?

a) It occurs in the absence of oxygen b) It occurs in the presence of carbon dioxide c) It releases more energy compared to anaerobic respiration d) It occurs only in plants Answer: c) It releases more energy compared to anaerobic respiration

The process of inhalation is also known as:

a) Inspiration b) Expiration c) Respiration d) Transpiration Answer: a) Inspiration

The waste product of respiration in plants is _______.

a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Water vapor Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

The trachea is also known as the:

a) Windpipe b) Food pipe c) Voice box d) Breathing tube Answer: a) Windpipe

The process of removal of carbon dioxide from the body is called:

a) Respiration b) Inhalation c) Exhalation d) Transpiration Answer: c) Exhalation

During prolonged periods of physical activity, the body requires more oxygen. This is communicated b y the brain to the respiratory system, resulting in:

a) Increased heart rate b) Decreased breathing rate c) Increased carbon dioxide levels in the blood d) Decreased oxygen levels in the blood Answer: a) Increased heart rate

The breakdown of glucose in plants during respiration occurs in the _______.

a) Roots b) Leaves c) Stems d) Flowers Answer: a) Roots

Which gas is responsible for the discoloration of the alkaline pyrogallol solution when it comes in cont act with air in a test tube?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen Answer: a) Oxygen

The oxygen necessary for respiration is transported to the body cells through the _______.

a) Muscles b) Nervous system c) Respiratory system d) Circulatory system Answer: d) Circulatory system

Which process releases energy in the absence of oxygen?

a) Photosynthesis b) Transpiration c) Aerobic respiration d) Anaerobic respiration Answer: d) Anaerobic respiration

The breathing rate during normal activities is increased by the release of a gas called _______.

a) Nitrogen b) Carbon dioxide c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen Answer: b) Carbon dioxide

Gaseous exchange in plants occurs primarily through structures called _______.

a) Lungs b) Gills c) Stomata d) Spirogyra Answer: c) Stomata

The muscles between the ribs are called:

a) Intercostal muscles b) Biceps c) Triceps d) Hamstrings Answer: a) Intercostal muscles

The respiratory pigment responsible for carrying oxygen in humans is called:

a) Hemoglobin b) Chlorophyll c) Melanin d) Insulin Answer: a) Hemoglobin

The exchange of gases in the lungs occurs between the alveoli and the _______.

a) Veins b) Arteries c) Bronchi d) Capillaries Answer: d) Capillaries

The process of exhalation is also known as:

a) Inspiration b) Respiration c) Inhalation d) Breathing Answer: d) Breathing

In humans, the pharynx functions as a common passage for both _______.

a) Food and air b) Water and air c) Blood and air d) Food and water Answer: a) Food and air

The energy produced during respiration is utilized by cells for various functions, such as:

a) Reproduction b) Digestion c) Growth and repair d) Sensation Answer: c) Growth and repair

The waste product of cellular respiration in animals is _______.

a) Glucose b) Oxygen c) Carbon dioxide d) Water Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

Chapter 11 Transportation in Animals and Plants

Which system is responsible for the transportation of substances in animals?

a) Circulatory system b) Nervous system c) Respiratory system d) Excretory system Answer: a) Circulatory system

What is the main function of the circulatory system?

a) To transport oxygen to cells b) To remove waste products from cells c) To transport nutrients to cells d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

What are the two types of circulatory systems found in animals?

a) Open and closed b) Simple and complex c) Respiratory and excretory d) None of the above Answer: a) Open and closed

In which type of circulatory system, blood flows through open spaces or cavities in the body?

a) Open circulatory system b) Closed circulatory system c) Respiratory circulatory system d) Excretory circulatory system Answer: a) Open circulatory system

In humans, which blood vessels carry oxygenated blood away from the heart?

a) Arteries b) Veins c) Capillaries d) Aorta Answer: a) Arteries

Which blood vessels have thin walls and are the sites for exchange of substances between blood and ti ssues?

a) Arteries b) Veins c) Capillaries d) Aorta Answer: c) Capillaries

What is transpiration in plants? a) Process of respiration in plants b) Process of water loss through stomata c) Process of nutrient transport in plants d) Process of photosynthesis in plants Answer: b) Process of water loss through stomata

Which tissue is responsible for the transport of water and minerals in plants?

a) Xylem b) Phloem c) Epidermis d) Meristem Answer: a) Xylem

Which tissue is responsible for the transport of food in plants?

a) Xylem b) Phloem c) Epidermis d) Meristem Answer: b) Phloem

What is the movement of water through a plant called?

a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Transpiration d) Photosynthesis Answer: c) Transpiration

Which process helps plants in the absorption of water and minerals from the soil?

a) Diffusion b) Osmosis c) Active transport d) Transpiration Answer: c) Active transport

How are water and minerals transported upwards in xylem vessels?

a) Through root pressure b) Through transpiration pull c) Through capillary action d) Through diffusion Answer: b) Through transpiration pull

Which of the following is NOT a component of the circulatory system in humans?

a) Heart b) Blood vessels c) Lungs d) Blood cells Answer: c) Lungs

The human heart is divided into how many chambers?

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five Answer: c) Four

Which blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart in humans?

a) Arteries b) Veins c) Capillaries d) Venules Answer: b) Veins

What is the process of the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the heart called?

a) Circulation b) Respiration c) Ventilation d) Heartbeat Answer: d) Heartbeat

The process of the release of carbon dioxide from cells into blood is called:

a) Respiration b) Ventilation c) Excretion d) Diffusion Answer: a) Respiration

What is the liquid part of blood called?

a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Plasma Answer: d) Plasma

Which blood cells are responsible for oxygen transport in humans?

a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Plasma Answer: a) Red blood cells

Which blood cells are responsible for fighting infections in humans?

a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Plasma Answer: b) White blood cells

In which part of the human respiratory system does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?

a) Lungs b) Trachea c) Bronchi d) Alveoli Answer: d) Alveoli

What is the process of the intake of air into the lungs called?

a) Inhalation b) Exhalation c) Respiration d) Ventilation Answer: a) Inhalation

In which direction does air flow during inhalation?

a) Into the lungs b) Out of the lungs c) Into the bloodstream d) Out of the bloodstream Answer: a) Into the lungs

What is the main respiratory organ in humans?

a) Nose b) Lungs c) Trachea d) Diaphragm Answer: b) Lungs

How does oxygen reach body cells from the lungs?

a) Through inhalation b) Through exhalation c) Through capillary networks d) Through alveoli Answer: c) Through capillary networks

What is the process of the removal of waste products from the body called?

a) Excretion b) Secretion c) Digestion d) Absorption Answer: a) Excretion

Which organ is responsible for filtering waste products from the blood in humans?

a) Liver b) Lungs c) Kidneys d) Small intestine Answer: c) Kidneys

Which waste product is primarily eliminated by the lungs in humans?

a) Carbon dioxide b) Urea c) Water d) Salt Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

What is the functional unit of the kidneys called?

a) Nephron b) Alveoli c) Liver cells d) RBCs Answer: a) Nephron

What is the process of removal of water and solutes from the blood in the kidneys called?

a) Filtration b) Reabsorption c) Secretion d) Excretion Answer: a) Filtration

Which blood vessels carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart in humans?

a) Arteries b) Veins c) Capillaries d) Venules Answer: a) Arteries

What is the pumping organ of the circulatory system in humans called?

a) Lungs b) Heart c) Kidneys d) Liver Answer: b) Heart

What is the function of veins in the circulatory system?

a) To carry oxygenated blood away from the heart b) To carry deoxygenated blood towards the heart c) To transport nutrients to cells d) To remove waste products from cells Answer: b) To carry deoxygenated blood towards the heart

What is the part of the plant through which water and minerals are absorbed from the soil called?

a) Stem b) Leaf c) Root d) Flower Answer: c) Root

Which plant tissue is responsible for transport of organic materials like sugars from leaves to other par ts of the plant?

a) Epidermis b) Cortex c) Xylem d) Phloem Answer: d) Phloem

What is the force that causes water to move upwards in plants during transpiration called?

a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Transpiration pull d) Active transport Answer: c) Transpiration pull

Which is the largest artery in our body?

a) Aorta b) Pulmonary artery c) Jugular vein d) Superior vena cava Answer: a) Aorta

Which part of the human circulatory system carries oxygen-rich blood from the lungs to the heart?

a) Pulmonary vein b) Pulmonary artery c) Aorta d) Vena cava Answer: a) Pulmonary vein

The rhythmic expansion and contraction of arteries due to the pumping action of the heart is known as :

a) Heartbeat b) Pulse c) Circulation d) Ventilation Answer: b) Pulse

How is food transported in plants from leaves to other parts of the plant?

a) Xylem b) Phloem c) Epidermis d) Cortex Answer: b) Phloem

What is the waxy layer that covers the surface of leaves and helps in reducing water loss called?

a) Stomata b) Xylem c) Cuticle d) Phloem Answer: c) Cuticle

Which organs are responsible for excreting urine in humans?

a) Liver b) Lungs c) Kidneys d) Spleen Answer: c) Kidneys

What is the process of the release of urine from the body called?

a) Exhaling b) Excretion c) Egestion d) Urination Answer: d) Urination

Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart in humans?

a) Arteries b) Veins c) Capillaries d) Venules Answer: a) Arteries

How does oxygen enter the bloodstream in humans?

a) Through inhalation b) Through exhalation c) Through skin d) All of the above Answer: a) Through inhalation

Which component of blood is responsible for clotting?

a) Red blood cells b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Plasma Answer: c) Platelets

What is the process of the removal of undigested waste material from the body called?

a) Excretion b) Secretion c) Digestion d) Absorption Answer: c) Digestion

Which blood vessels carry blood towards the heart in humans?

a) Arteries b) Veins c) Capillaries d) Venules Answer: b) Veins

What is the role of capillaries in the circulatory system?

a) To carry oxygenated blood to cells b) To carry deoxygenated blood away from cells c) To transport nutrients to cells d) To remove waste products from cells Answer: c) To transport nutrients to cells

Which part of the human respiratory system is commonly known as the windpipe?

a) Lungs b) Trachea c) Bronchi d) Alveoli Answer: b) Trachea

Chapter 12 Reproduction in Plants

Which of the following is NOT a method of reproduction in plants? a) Budding b) Fertilization c) Fragmentation d) Spore formation Answer: b) Fertilization

Which part of a flower produces pollen grains?

a) Stigma b) Ovary c) Anther d) Petal Answer: c) Anther

What is the male reproductive part of a flower called?

a) Pistil b) Stamen c) Style d) Sepal Answer: b) Stamen

Which process involves the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma?

a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Reproduction Answer: a) Pollination

The fusion of pollen grain with the ovule is known as:

a) Fertilization b) Germination c) Seed formation d) Pollination Answer: a) Fertilization

Which of the following is a method of asexual reproduction in plants?

a) Budding b) Pollination c) Fertilization d) Germination Answer: a) Budding

The part of a plant that develops into a new plant during asexual reproduction is called:

a) Stem b) Root c) Leaf d) Bulb Answer: a) Stem

In which type of reproduction do plants produce seeds?

a) Sexual reproduction b) Asexual reproduction c) Fragmentation d) Budding Answer: a) Sexual reproduction

What is the function of the ovary in a flower?

a) Produces pollen grains b) Protects the flower bud c) Contains the female reproductive cells d) Produces nectar Answer: c) Contains the female reproductive cells

What is the process of shedding of leaves from a plant called?

a) Germination b) Pollination c) Fertilization d) Defoliation Answer: d) Defoliation

How does water reach the leaves of a plant?

a) Through the roots b) Through the stem c) Through the leaves d) Through the flowers Answer: b) Through the stem

In which part of a plant does photosynthesis occur?

a) Leaves b) Roots c) Flowers d) Stem Answer: a) Leaves

Which of the following is NOT a method of seed dispersal?

a) Wind b) Water c) Pollination d) Animals Answer: c) Pollination

What is the function of flowers in plants?

a) To attract insects for pollination b) To provide support to the plant c) To store food for the plant d) To anchor the plant in the soil Answer: a) To attract insects for pollination

Which part of a plant absorbs water and nutrients from the soil?

a) Stem b) Flower c) Leaves d) Roots Answer: d) Roots

How are plants with colorful flowers pollinated?

a) By insects b) By wind c) By water d) By birds Answer: a) By insects

Which of the following is NOT a method of asexual reproduction in plants?

a) Layering b) Grafting c) Buds d) Seeds Answer: d) Seeds

What is the male gamete in plants called?

a) Ovary b) Ovule c) Pollen d) Pistil Answer: c) Pollen

What is the process of growth of a pollen tube called?

a) Germination b) Pollination c) Fertilization d) Photosynthesis Answer: a) Germination

What is the function of sepals in a flower?

a) Attracts pollinators b) Protects the flower bud c) Helps in photosynthesis d) Produces nectar Answer: b) Protects the flower bud

What is the process of new plants budding off the parent plant called?

a) Fragmentation b) Rhizomes c) Vegetative propagation d) Stolon Answer: c) Vegetative propagation

Which part of the plant will develop into a fruit after successful fertilization?

a) Stamen b) Ovary c) Petal d) Anther Answer: b) Ovary

The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is called:

a) Cross-pollination b) Self-pollination c) Wind pollination d) Insect pollination Answer: b) Self-pollination

What is the process of conversion of a seed into a new plant called?

a) Germination b) Maturation c) Pollination d) Fertilization Answer: a) Germination

Which plant part anchors the plant in the soil and absorbs water and minerals?

a) Stem b) Flower c) Leaves d) Roots Answer: d) Roots

How does a seed travel to a new place for germination?

a) Animals disperse the seed b) Wind carries the seed c) Water disperses the seed d) The seed buries itself Answer: a) Animals disperse the seed

In which type of reproduction does a spore develop into a new individual?

a) Asexual reproduction b) Sexual reproduction c) Pollination d) Germination Answer: a) Asexual reproduction

What is the term for the male and female parts of a flower being present in separate flowers on the sa me plant?

a) Monoecious b) Dioecious c) Hermaphrodite d) Bisexual Answer: a) Monoecious

Which part of a flower develops into a fruit after fertilization?

a) Stigma b) Ovary c) Anther d) Petal Answer: b) Ovary

In which type of pollination, the transfer of pollen grains occurs from the anther to the stigma of anothe r flower on a different plant?

a) Cross-pollination b) Self-pollination c) Wind pollination d) Insect pollination Answer: a) Cross-pollination

How does a seedling obtain its food before it develops leaves?

a) From the soil b) From the seed coat c) From the stem d) From sunlight Answer: b) From the seed coat

What is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther to the stigma called in wind-pollinated plants?

a) Insect pollination b) Wind pollination c) Self-pollination d) Cross-pollination Answer: b) Wind pollination

Which type of reproduction ensures offspring that are genetically identical to the parent plant?

a) Sexual reproduction b) Asexual reproduction c) Fertilization d) Pollination Answer: b) Asexual reproduction

What is the function of the style in a flower?

a) Produces pollen grains b) Protects the flower bud c) Contains the female reproductive cells d) Connects the ovary to the stigma Answer: d) Connects the ovary to the stigma

What is the process of the development of a new plant from a vegetative part of an existing plant calle d?

a) Fragmentation b) Grafting c) Tissue culture d) Marrow Answer: a) Fragmentation

Which of the following is a method of artificial vegetative propagation?

a) Layering b) Grafting c) Rhizomes d) Stolons Answer: b) Grafting

Which of the following is NOT a reproductive part of a flower?

a) Stamen b) Sepal c) Pistil d) Style Answer: b) Sepal

What is the method in which new plants develop from underground stems called?

a) Layering b) Tubers c) Bulbs d) Rhizomes Answer: d) Rhizomes

What is the function of the stigma in a flower?

a) Produces pollen grains b) Protects the flower bud c) Contains the female reproductive cells d) Connects the ovary to the style Answer: d) Connects the ovary to the style

How are plants like potato and ginger propagated?

a) By seeds b) By bulbs c) By tubers d) By runners Answer: c) By tubers

What is the process of pollen transfer from the anther to the stigma within the same flower called?

a) Cross-pollination b) Self-pollination c) Wind pollination d) Insect pollination Answer: b) Self-pollination

What is the main purpose of flowers in plants?

a) To attract sunlight b) To produce oxygen c) To aid in photosynthesis d) To reproduce Answer: d) To reproduce

How are plants with small and light seeds usually dispersed?

a) By wind b) By water c) By animals d) By explosion Answer: a) By wind

Which part of a plant helps in transpiration and transportation of water and nutrients?

a) Stem b) Flower c) Leaves d) Roots Answer: a) Stem

Which of the following is NOT a method of artificial seed dispersal?

a) Humans b) Birds c) Machines d) Water Answer: b) Birds

What is the process of germination in a seed?

a) The seed absorbs water and begins to grow into a plant. b) The seed sheds its outer coat and becomes dormant. c) The seed undergoes mitosis to divide and form a new plant. d) The seed releases enzymes to break down food for growth. Answer: a) The seed absorbs water and begins to grow into a plant.

How do plants like strawberries and spider plants reproduce? a) By seeds b) By bulbs c) By runners d) By grafting Answer: c) By runners

Between self-pollination and cross-pollination, which leads to more genetic variation among offspring?

a) Self-pollination b) Cross-pollination c) Both lead to the same amount of variation d) None of the above Answer: b) Cross-pollination

What is the process of the fusion of male and female gametes in plants called?

a) Germination b) Pollination c) Fertilization d) Carbonation Answer: c) Fertilization

Which type of reproduction involves the production of spores by plants like ferns and mosses?

a) Asexual reproduction b) Sexual reproduction c) Pollination d) Germination Answer: b) Sexual reproduction

Chapter 13 Motion and Time

Which of the following is not an example of rectilinear motion?

a) A car moving on a straight road b) A ball rolling down a curved slope c) An elevator moving up and down d) A train moving on a straight railway track Answer: b) A ball rolling down a curved slope

The standard unit of time is:

a) Hour b) Second c) Minute d) Day Answer: b) Second

If an object moves in a straight line and covers equal distances in equal intervals of time, then its motio n is:

a) Uniform b) Non-uniform c) Accelerated d) Decelerated Answer: a) Uniform

Which of the following is an example of periodic motion?

a) A pendulum swinging back and forth b) A car accelerating on a highway c) A student walking to school d) A boat drifting in a lake Answer: a) A pendulum swinging back and forth

The distance traveled by an object per unit time is called:

a) Speed b) Velocity c) Acceleration d) Displacement Answer: a) Speed

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a) Distance b) Velocity c) Acceleration d) Displacement Answer: a) Distance

The SI unit of speed is: a) Meter per second b) Kilometer per hour c) Centimeter per second d) Mile per hour Answer: a) Meter per second

An object is said to be at rest if its position does not change with:

a) Time b) Speed c) Velocity d) Acceleration Answer: a) Time

Which of the following is an example of non-uniform motion?

a) A car moving with a constant speed b) A ball rolling down a hill c) A bicycle moving in a straight line d) A train moving with changing speed Answer: d) A train moving with changing speed

The total path covered by an object is called:

a) Speed b) Velocity c) Acceleration d) Distance Answer: d) Distance

Acceleration is defined as the change in:

a) Speed b) Distance c) Velocity d) Time Answer: c) Velocity

Speed-time graph is used to represent:

a) Distance covered by an object b) Acceleration of an object c) Change in velocity of an object d) Motion of an object Answer: d) Motion of an object

In a distance-time graph, a straight line represents:

a) Non-uniform motion b) Rest c) Uniform motion d) Negative acceleration Answer: c) Uniform motion

The rate of change of velocity with respect to time is called:

a) Speed b) Displacement c) Distance d) Acceleration Answer: d) Acceleration

The slope of a speed-time graph represents:

a) Speed b) Distance c) Time d) Acceleration Answer: d) Acceleration

Which of the following is a unit of acceleration?

a) Meter b) Kilogram c) Newton d) Meter per second squared Answer: d) Meter per second squared

The time taken for an object to travel one complete revolution around an axis is called:

a) Rotational velocity b) Periodic time c) Linear velocity d) Orbital time Answer: b) Periodic time

On a distance-time graph, if the distance remains constant, then the object is:

a) Accelerating b) Moving at a constant speed c) Decelerating d) Moving along a straight line Answer: b) Moving at a constant speed

The quantity that measures the rate of change of displacement with respect to time is:

a) Speed b) Velocity c) Acceleration d) Distance Answer: b) Velocity

The average speed of an object can be calculated by dividing the total distance traveled by the:

a) Total time taken b) Acceleration of the object c) Change in velocity d) Distance covered in a unit of time Answer: a) Total time taken

The SI unit of acceleration is:

a) Meter b) Kilogram c) Newton d) Meter per second squared Answer: d) Meter per second squared

The change in velocity per unit time is called:

a) Displacement b) Speed c) Acceleration d) Distance Answer: c) Acceleration

The period of a pendulum depends on its:

a) Length b) Mass c) Material d) Shape Answer: a) Length

Which of the following is a balanced force?

a) Pushing a heavy object b) A car moving at a constant speed c) Kicking a football d) Dropping an object Answer: b) A car moving at a constant speed

The force that opposes the motion of objects through air or water is called:

a) Friction b) Gravity c) Tension d) Inertia Answer: a) Friction

In order to increase the speed of an object, you need to apply:

a) Balanced force b) Unbalanced force c) Zero force d) Elastic force Answer: b) Unbalanced force

The force of attraction between any two objects is called:

a) Gravity b) Friction c) Tension d) Inertia Answer: a) Gravity

The force required to set an object in motion is called:

a) Frictional force b) Balanced force c) Tension force d) Applied force Answer: d) Applied force

Which force helps us walk, cycle, or run?

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Magnetic force d) Electric force Answer: b) Frictional force

When a vehicle takes a sharp turn, passengers tend to lean outward. This can be explained by:

a) Gravity b) Inertia c) Friction d) Elasticity Answer: b) Inertia

The tendency of an object to resist a change in its state of motion is called:

a) Friction b) Acceleration c) Gravity d) Inertia Answer: d) Inertia

The amount of matter contained in an object is known as its:

a) Volume b) Mass c) Weight d) Density Answer: b) Mass

Which of the following is a contact force?

a) Gravitational force b) Magnetic force c) Electrostatic force d) Frictional force Answer: d) Frictional force

An action of force can change the:

a) Mass of an object b) Shape of an object c) Direction of an object d) Inertia of an object Answer: c) Direction of an object

When a force is applied on an object, it produces:

a) Displacement b) Velocity c) Acceleration d) Friction Answer: c) Acceleration

When a ball is thrown vertically upwards, the gravitational force acts:

a) In the direction of motion b) Opposite to the direction of motion c) Perpendicular to the direction of motion d) Tangentially to the direction of motion Answer: b) Opposite to the direction of motion

The force that acts on a moving bicycle to bring it to stop is:

a) Frictional force b) Magnetic force c) Gravitational force d) Applied force Answer: a) Frictional force

The type of force that always tries to pull objects towards the center of the Earth is:

a) Magnetic force b) Frictional force c) Gravitational force d) Applied force Answer: c) Gravitational force

The force due to which we tend to fall backward when a bus starts moving suddenly is:

a) Gravity b) Inertia c) Applied force d) Friction Answer: b) Inertia

Which force is responsible for keeping planets in their orbits around the Sun?

a) Inertia b) Tension c) Gravitational force d) Friction Answer: c) Gravitational force

The principle of inertia was given by:

a) Isaac Newton b) Albert Einstein c) Galileo Galilei d) Archimedes Answer: c) Galileo Galilei

The force that attracts two objects towards each other is proportional to:

a) The sum of their masses b) The product of their masses c) The distance between them d) The square of the distance between them Answer: b) The product of their masses

The force exerted by a magnet is an example of:

a) Tension force b) Gravitational force c) Applied force d) Magnetic force Answer: d) Magnetic force

The force required to lift an object upwards is equal to:

a) The weight of the object b) The gravitational force acting on the object c) The mass of the object d) The height of the object Answer: b) The gravitational force acting on the object

Which of the following is not a type of friction?

a) Static friction b) Rolling friction c) Sliding friction d) Elastic friction Answer: d) Elastic friction

The force of friction always acts in the direction:

a) Opposite to the direction of motion b) In the direction of motion c) Perpendicular to the direction of motion d) Tangentially to the direction of motion Answer: a) Opposite to the direction of motion

The force required to keep an object moving at a constant speed is:

a) Frictional force b) Gravitational force c) Tension force d) Inertia force Answer: a) Frictional force

The force that causes a floating object to submerge in a fluid is called:

a) Upthrust force b) Tension force c) Magnetic force d) Applied force Answer: a) Upthrust force

The force that opposes the relative motion between two surfaces in contact is called:

a) Rolling friction b) Sliding friction c) Fluid friction d) Static friction Answer: d) Static friction

Which of the following is a measure of the force of gravity on an object?

a) Mass b) Weight c) Displacement d) Distance Answer: b) Weight

Chapter 14 Electric Current and its Effects

Which device is used to measure electric current?

A) Ammeter B) Voltmeter C) Galvanometer D) Ohmmeter Answer: A

The flow of electric charge through a conductor is called:

A) Voltage B) Resistance C) Electric Current D) Insulation Answer: C

The unit of electric current is:

A) Ohm B) Ampere C) Volt D) Watt Answer: B

Which of the following materials is a good conductor of electricity?

A) Plastic B) Glass C) Rubber D) Copper Answer: D

Electric current always flows from:

A) Positive to negative terminal B) Negative to positive terminal C) Depends on the circuit D) Randomly in any direction Answer: A

Which one of the following is not an effect of an electric current?

A) Heating B) Lighting C) Magnetic Effect D) Sound Production Answer: B

What type of current is produced by a battery?

A) AC (Alternating Current) B) DC (Direct Current) C) Both AC and DC D) None of the above Answer: B

Which material is used as a fuse in electric circuits?

A) Aluminium B) Copper C) Tungsten D) Lead Answer: A

Which component is used to control the flow of current in an electric circuit?

A) Resistor B) Capacitor C) Diode D) Switch Answer: D

When an electric current flows through a wire, the wire:

A) Contracts B) Expands C) Melts D) Doesn't change Answer: C

The heating effect of electric current is used in:

A) Electric motors B) Electric heaters C) Electric fans D) Electric lights Answer: B

An electrical conductor has:

A) Low resistance B) High resistance C) No resistance D) Variable resistance Answer: A

What is the SI unit of electric resistance?

A) Ampere B) Ohm C) Volt D) Tesla Answer: B

Which of the following is a non-ohmic conductor?

A) Copper wire B) Carbon rod C) Silver wire D) Aluminium wire Answer: B

What happens to the resistance in a wire if its length is doubled?

A) Doubles B) Halves C) Remains the same D) Becomes zero Answer: A

A device used to protect electrical appliances from a sudden surge of high voltage is called a:

A) Resistor B) Capacitor C) Transformer D) Voltage stabilizer Answer: D

What causes a short circuit in an electric circuit?

A) High resistance B) Low resistance C) Absence of conductor D) Overloading of current Answer: B

Which of the following materials is a good insulator?

A) Copper B) Aluminium C) Wood D) Silver Answer: C

Which type of energy is produced by a generator?

A) Mechanical energy B) Electrical energy C) Heat energy D) Light energy Answer: B

Which law states that the current flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage acr oss it, provided temperature remains constant?

A) Ohm's law B) Faraday's law C) Coulomb's law D) Newton's law Answer: A

Which component is used to store electric charge in a circuit?

A) Resistor B) Capacitor C) Diode D) Inductor Answer: B

What happens when a heavy electric current flows through a wire for a long time?

A) Wire gets stronger B) Wire becomes brittle C) Wire loses its color D) Wire becomes magnetic Answer: B

Which of the following is not a safety measure while handling electrical appliances?

A) Using wet hands B) Switching off when not in use C) Using rubber gloves D) Keeping away from water Answer: A

What type of energy does a solar cell convert sunlight into?

A) Heat energy B) Electrical energy C) Sound energy D) Kinetic energy Answer: B

Which type of fuse wire is commonly used in household circuits?

A) Copper B) Aluminium C) Silver D) Tin Answer: A

What is the purpose of an electric switch in a circuit?

A) To control the flow of electric current B) To increase resistance C) To store electric charge D) To produce magnetic effect Answer: A

Which of the following statements about a series circuit is true?

A) Current is the same everywhere B) Voltage is the same everywhere C) Resistance is the same everywhere D) Current and voltage are the same everywhere Answer: B

Which substance is used as the filament in an incandescent bulb?

A) Copper B) Tungsten C) Aluminium D) Silver Answer: B

What happens if you connect an ammeter in parallel in an electric circuit?

A) It will not measure the current B) It will damage the ammeter C) It will measure the voltage D) It will measure the current accurately Answer: B

What is the direction of the magnetic field produced around a straight wire carrying electric current?

A) Along the wire B) Opposite to the wire C) Perpendicular to the wire D) Depends on the direction of the current Answer: C

Which type of wire is used for electrical transmission lines?

A) Copper B) Aluminium C) Silver D) Iron Answer: B

The process of transferring charge from one place to another is called:

A) Induction B) Insulation C) Conduction D) Resistance Answer: C

What happens to the resistance of a wire if its diameter is doubled?

A) Doubles B) Halves C) Remains the same D) Becomes zero Answer: C

Which device is used to convert AC (Alternating Current) into DC (Direct Current)?

A) Transformer B) Diode C) Inductor D) Capacitor Answer: B

What is the purpose of an insulator in an electric circuit?

A) To control the flow of electric current B) To store electric charge C) To prevent the flow of electric current D) To produce a magnetic field Answer: C

In which direction do free electrons move within a conductor?

A) Along the electric field lines B) Opposite to the electric field lines C) Towards the positive terminal D) Randomly in any direction Answer: B

Which particle carries an electric charge in an atom?

A) Proton B) Neutron C) Electron D) Photon Answer: C

What is the purpose of an electric fuse in a circuit?

A) To convert AC to DC B) To protect the circuit from excessive current C) To store electric charge D) To increase resistance Answer: B

Which of the following appliances works based on the magnetic effect of electric current?

A) Electric heater B) Electric iron C) Electric fan D) Electric bulb Answer: B

Which of the following is not a safety measure to prevent electric shock?

A) Touching electrical appliances with wet hands B) Using insulated tools C) Switching off the circuit before repairing D) Using proper earthing Answer: A

What happens to the magnetic field around a current-carrying coil when the number of turns in the coil is increased?

A) Decreases B) Increases C) Remains the same D) Depends on the direction of current Answer: B

Which component is used to increase or decrease voltage in an electric circuit?

A) Resistor B) Capacitor C) Transformer D) Diode Answer: C

Which law states that the potential difference across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided temperature remains constant?

A) Ohm's law B) Faraday's law C) Coulomb's law D) Newton's law Answer: A

What is the purpose of an electric motor?

A) To convert electrical energy into mechanical energy B) To convert thermal energy into electrical energy C) To convert electrical energy into heat energy D) To convert mechanical energy into electrical energy Answer: A

Which of the following is a correct electrical symbol for a resistor?

A) B) C) D) Answer: A

What happens to the brightness of a bulb if more bulbs are connected in parallel to the same power s upply?

A) Brightness decreases B) Brightness increases C) Brightness remains the same D) Bulbs stop working Answer: C

What are the two types of electric current?

A) Positive and negative current B) Direct and alternating current C) Primary and secondary current D) Strong and weak current Answer: B

Which device is used to protect an electric circuit from overloading?

A) Resistor B) Capacitor C) Fuse D) Inductor Answer: C

Which of the following is an example of a parallel circuit?

A) A single bulb connected to a battery B) Multiple bulbs connected in a series C) A bulb connected in parallel with a switch D) A bulb connected with an open circuit Answer: B

What is the purpose of a circuit breaker in an electric circuit?

A) To control the flow of electric current B) To store electric charge C) To measure electric current D) To protect the circuit from excessive current Answer: D

Chapter 15 Light

What is the primary source of light on Earth?

a) Moon b) Stars c) Sun d) Fire Answer: c) Sun

Which of the following is not a luminous object?

a) Sun b) Moon c) Candle flame d) Table Answer: d) Table

Light travels in a straight line and casts a shadow because it exhibits:

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffusion d) Rectilinear propagation Answer: d) Rectilinear propagation

When light falls on a shiny surface and bounces back, it is known as:

a) Refraction b) Absorption c) Reflection d) Scattering Answer: c) Reflection

The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection, according to:

a) Huygens' principle b) Snell's law c) Law of reflection d) Fermat's principle Answer: c) Law of reflection

Which of the following colors has the shortest wavelength?

a) Red b) Blue c) Green d) Yellow Answer: b) Blue

The splitting of light into its different colors is known as:

a) Scattering b) Reflection c) Refraction d) Dispersion Answer: d) Dispersion

The human eye has a crystalline lens that helps in:

a) Absorbing light b) Focusing light c) Reflecting light d) Scattering light Answer: b) Focusing light

The region of complete darkness behind an opaque object is known as the:

a) Umbra b) Penumbra c) Reflection d) Refraction Answer: a) Umbra

When the light bends as it passes from one medium to another, it is called:

a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Scattering d) Absorption Answer: a) Refraction

Which of the following colors is known as a secondary color?

a) Blue b) Green c) Red d) Yellow Answer: b) Green

The light-sensitive cells in our eyes that help us see colors are called:

a) Rods b) Cones c) Iris d) Cornea Answer: b) Cones

In which medium does light travel the fastest?

a) Air b) Water c) Glass d) Vacuum Answer: d) Vacuum

The bending of light around an obstacle or an edge is known as:

a) Diffraction b) Dispersion c) Scattering d) Polarization Answer: a) Diffraction

Which of the following is not a primary color of light?

a) Red b) Green c) Yellow d) Blue Answer: c) Yellow

The process of using a lens to bring rays of light together is called:

a) Scattering b) Reflection c) Diffusion d) Converging Answer: d) Converging

Which type of mirror always produces a virtual image?

a) Concave mirror b) Convex mirror c) Plane mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: c) Plane mirror

The amount of light reflected by a surface is called:

a) Absorption b) Transparency c) Reflection d) Refraction Answer: c) Reflection

A convex lens is also known as a:

a) Diverging lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Converging lens Answer: d) Converging lens

The change in the direction of light as it passes from one medium to another is due to:

a) Reflection b) Diffusion c) Scattering d) Refraction Answer: d) Refraction

How many colors are there in the visible spectrum?

a) 4 b) 7 c) 10 d) 12 Answer: b) 7

Which of the following is used to correct vision defects like myopia and hypermetropia?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Bifocal lens Answer: a) Convex lens

What is the name of the phenomenon where light gets absorbed by an object and disappears?

a) Reflection b) Diffusion c) Absorption d) Refraction Answer: c) Absorption

The bending of a pencil in a glass of water is a result of:

a) Scattering b) Reflection c) Diffraction d) Refraction Answer: d) Refraction

The angle of incidence is measured between the incident ray and the:

a) Normal b) Mirror c) Reflected ray d) Surface Answer: a) Normal

The ability of an object to allow light to pass through it is called:

a) Reflection b) Opaqueness c) Absorption d) Transparency Answer: d) Transparency

Which of the following objects does not produce its own light?

a) Moon b) Electric bulb c) Sun d) Mirror Answer: d) Mirror

The phenomenon responsible for making the sky appear blue is:

a) Dispersion b) Reflection c) Scattering d) Refraction Answer: c) Scattering

Which lens is thicker at the edges than in the middle?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Plane lens d) Cylindrical lens Answer: b) Concave lens

Which of the following is a non-luminous object?

a) Sun b) Firefly c) Lightning d) Desk Answer: d) Desk

The rearview mirror used in vehicles is an example of a:

a) Concave lens b) Convex lens c) Plane mirror d) Cylindrical mirror Answer: c) Plane mirror

The bending of light around an object is known as:

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Scattering d) Diffraction Answer: d) Diffraction

Which type of lens causes the parallel rays of light to diverge?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Converging lens Answer: b) Concave lens

What is the nature of an image formed by a convex lens when the object is beyond 2F?

a) Real and enlarged b) Virtual and enlarged c) Real and diminished d) Virtual and diminished Answer: d) Virtual and diminished

A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly but distant objects appear:

a) Blurred b) Magnified c) Inverted d) Colored Answer: a) Blurred

The process by which plants make their food using sunlight is called:

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Fermentation d) Transpiration Answer: a) Photosynthesis

The phenomenon of a rainbow is caused by:

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Dispersion Answer: b) Refraction

The process of bending of light waves around small obstacles is called:

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Diffraction d) Dispersion Answer: c) Diffraction

What happens when a white light is passed through a prism?

a) It splits into different colors b) It combines into a single color c) It becomes black d) It disappears Answer: a) It splits into different colors

Which type of mirror is used by dentists to see enlarged images of teeth?

a) Concave mirror b) Convex mirror c) Plane mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: a) Concave mirror

An object is placed at the focus of a concave mirror. What type of image is formed?

a) Real and inverted b) Virtual and inverted c) Real and enlarged d) Virtual and enlarged Answer: b) Virtual and inverted

Light is incident on a plane mirror at an angle of 40°. What will be the angle of reflection?

a) 20° b) 40° c) 80° d) 120° Answer: b) 40°

A torch uses which type of lens to produce a parallel beam of light?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Plane lens Answer: a) Convex lens

Gammas rays, X-rays, and infrared rays are examples of:

a) Ultraviolet rays b) Visible light c) Electromagnetic waves d) Microwaves Answer: c) Electromagnetic waves

The total internal reflection of light occurs when light travels from a medium of:

a) Higher refractive index to lower refractive index b) Opaque medium to transparent medium c) Lower refractive index to higher refractive index d) Transparent medium to opaque medium Answer: c) Lower refractive index to higher refractive index

What is the unit of measurement of the power of a lens?

a) Diopter b) Meter c) Watt d) Kilogram Answer: a) Diopter

Which of the following colors has the longest wavelength?

a) Red b) Green c) Blue d) Violet Answer: a) Red

The shape of the human eye is similar to that of a:

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Plane lens Answer: a) Convex lens

The instrument used by sailors to find the direction is a:

a) Telescope b) Compass c) Microscope d) Periscope Answer: b) Compass

Light is a form of:

a) Electricity b) Magnetism c) Heat d) Energy

Chapter 16 Water: A Precious Resource

Which percentage of the Earth's surface is covered with water?

a) 50% b) 70% c) 90% d) 30% Answer: b) 70%

The main source of freshwater is:

a) Oceans b) Rivers c) Glaciers d) Lakes Answer: c) Glaciers

The process of converting saltwater into freshwater is called:

a) Distillation b) Filtration c) Condensation d) Evaporation Answer: a) Distillation

The largest source of freshwater for human consumption is:

a) Oceans b) Rivers c) Groundwater d) Icecaps and glaciers Answer: c) Groundwater

Which is the world's largest river by volume?

a) Amazon River b) Nile River c) Mississippi River d) Yangtze River Answer: a) Amazon River

Which of the following statements is true about water scarcity?

a) It only occurs in developing countries. b) It is the same as water pollution. c) It occurs when water demand exceeds supply. d) It does not affect human health. Answer: c) It occurs when water demand exceeds supply.

Which of the following is NOT a step for conserving water at home?

a) Fixing leaky faucets and pipes b) Using a dishwasher instead of handwashing dishes c) Taking shorter showers d) Watering the garden during peak heat hours Answer: d) Watering the garden during peak heat hours

Water pollution caused by harmful chemicals and industrial waste is known as:

a) Thermal pollution b) Groundwater pollution c) Surface water pollution d) Ozone depletion Answer: c) Surface water pollution

The process of supplying water to crops through pipes and ditches is called:

a) Rainwater harvesting b) Drip irrigation c) Damming d) Canal irrigation Answer: d) Canal irrigation

The process of removing impurities and contaminants from water is called:

a) Purification b) Desalination c) Dehydration d) Filtration Answer: d) Filtration

The main cause of water pollution in rivers and lakes is:

a) Industrial waste b) Agricultural runoff c) Oil spills d) Sewage discharge Answer: b) Agricultural runoff

The largest dam in the world, based on total volume of water, is:

a) Hoover Dam b) Three Gorges Dam c) Itaipu Dam d) Grand Coulee Dam Answer: b) Three Gorges Dam

The process of collecting rainwater and storing it for future use is called:

a) Desalination b) Water harvesting c) Water treatment d) Water recycling Answer: b) Water harvesting

What is the main cause of waterborne diseases?

a) Excessive fluoride content b) Excessive iron content c) Bacterial contamination d) High pH level Answer: c) Bacterial contamination

The decrease in the amount of water stored in an aquifer is known as:

a) Waterlogging b) Water scarcity c) Water pollution d) Groundwater depletion Answer: d) Groundwater depletion

The largest icecap in the world is located in:

a) Antarctica b) Greenland c) Canada d) Russia Answer: a) Antarctica

Which of the following is NOT a method for water conservation in agriculture?

a) Flood irrigation b) Drip irrigation c) Sprinkler irrigation d) Crop rotation Answer: a) Flood irrigation

The process of water vapor turning into liquid water is called:

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Precipitation d) Sublimation Answer: a) Condensation

The chemical formula for water is:

a) NaCl b) CO2 c) H2O d) C6H12O6 Answer: c) H2O

Safe drinking water should have a pH level between:

a) 0-2 b) 3-6 c) 7-10 d) 11-14 Answer: c) 7-10

The percentage of groundwater on Earth is approximately:

a) 50% b) 30% c) 10% d) 2% Answer: d) 2%

Water harvesting can help in the recharge of:

a) Rivers b) Oceans c) Glaciers d) Aquifers Answer: d) Aquifers

Which of the following is NOT a human activity that leads to water pollution?

a) Industrial waste discharge b) Oil spills c) Deforestation d) Open defecation Answer: c) Deforestation

The largest river in India is:

a) Yamuna River b) Brahmaputra River c) Ganges River d) Godavari River Answer: c) Ganges River

The process of converting liquid water into water vapor is called:

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Precipitation d) Sublimation Answer: b) Evaporation

Which of the following is NOT a form of water pollution?

a) Thermal pollution b) Noise pollution c) Oil spills d) Eutrophication Answer: b) Noise pollution

The process of removing salt from seawater to make it suitable for drinking is called:

a) Filtration b) Desalination c) Distillation d) Purification Answer: b) Desalination

The primary source of water for public use is obtained from:

a) Glaciers b) Rivers c) Lakes d) Groundwater Answer: b) Rivers

The water cycle is also known as the:

a) Oxygen cycle b) Carbon cycle c) Nitrogen cycle d) Hydrologic cycle Answer: d) Hydrologic cycle

The natural filtering of water that occurs as it passes through layers of soil and rock is known as:

a) Desalination b) Filtration c) Precipitation d) Infiltration Answer: d) Infiltration

The process of removing excess salts and minerals from water is called:

a) Filtration b) Sedimentation c) Coagulation d) Softening Answer: d) Softening

The pH scale measures the acidity or basicity of a substance. A pH value of 7 is considered:

a) Acidic b) Neutral c) Basic d) Alkaline Answer: b) Neutral

What is the main cause of the depleting water table and falling groundwater levels?

a) Overutilization and lack of replenishment b) Excessive rainwater c) Poor storage capacity of aquifers d) Lack of irrigation facilities Answer: a) Overutilization and lack of replenishment

The process of adding chlorine or other disinfectants to drinking water is known as:

a) Sedimentation b) Aeration c) Chlorination d) Coagulation Answer: c) Chlorination

The process of increasing the oxygen content in water is called:

a) Aeration b) Filtration c) Dehydration d) Distillation Answer: a) Aeration

Which of the following human activities contributes directly to water pollution?

a) Afforestation b) Rainwater harvesting c) Use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture d) Recycling of plastic waste Answer: c) Use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture

The process in which water falls from clouds in the form of rain, snow, or sleet is called:

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Precipitation d) Infiltration Answer: c) Precipitation

The largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area is:

a) Lake Victoria b) Lake Superior c) Caspian Sea d) Lake Baikal Answer: b) Lake Superior

Water pollution can negatively impact:

a) Biodiversity b) Human health c) Ecosystem balance d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

The process in which plants release water vapor into the atmosphere is called:

a) Transpiration b) Desalination c) Absorption d) Respiration Answer: a) Transpiration

The main source of marine pollution is:

a) Oil spills b) Overfishing c) Plastic waste d) Coastal erosion Answer: c) Plastic waste

The process of converting frozen water (ice) directly into water vapor is called:

a) Sublimation b) Condensation c) Evaporation d) Precipitation Answer: a) Sublimation

The primary pollutant responsible for the formation of acid rain is:

a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) b) Sulfur dioxide (SO2) c) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) d) Methane (CH4) Answer: b) Sulfur dioxide (SO2)

Which of the following is NOT a method of wastewater treatment?

a) Sedimentation b) Coagulation c) Filtration d) Desalination Answer: d) Desalination

The process of removing dissolved impurities in water by passing it through a semipermeable membra ne is called:

a) Filtration b) Reverse osmosis c) Distillation d) Chlorination Answer: b) Reverse osmosis

The process of collecting and storing rainwater to meet future water needs is known as:

a) Water recycling b) Water conservation c) Rainwater harvesting d) Water reclamation Answer: c) Rainwater harvesting

Which of the following is NOT a waterborne disease?

a) Malaria b) Cholera c) Typhoid d) Dysentery Answer: a) Malaria

Which of the following is NOT a method of water conservation at a personal level?

a) Reusing wastewater for gardening b) Taking shorter showers c) Turning off taps when not in use d) Leaving taps running while brushing teeth Answer: d) Leaving taps running while brushing teeth

The process of removing suspended particles from water by gravity settling is called:

a) Filtration b) Sedimentation c) Precipitation d) Aeration Answer: b) Sedimentation

Which of the following is an example of a non-renewable source of freshwater?

a) Rainwater b) Rivers c) Groundwater d) Icecaps and glaciers Answer: d) Icecaps and glaciers

Chapter 17 Forests: Our Lifeline

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of forests?

a) Providing oxygen b) Controlling soil erosion c) Reducing carbon dioxide levels d) Increasing air pollution Answer: d) Increasing air pollution

Forests help in maintaining the balance of ________ on Earth.

a) Land and water resources b) Oxygen and carbon dioxide c) Food and water d) Plants and animals Answer: b) Oxygen and carbon dioxide

Which layer of the forest has the tallest and broadest trees?

a) Herb layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Canopy layer Answer: d) Canopy layer

What is deforestation?

a) Conservation of forests b) Planting more trees c) Cutting down and clearing of forests d) Forest expansion Answer: c) Cutting down and clearing of forests

Which of the following is a consequence of deforestation?

a) Soil erosion b) Increased rainfall c) Enhanced biodiversity d) Reduced global warming Answer: a) Soil erosion

What is the term used for the practice of growing trees and plants for commercial purposes?

a) Reforestation b) Afforestation c) Deforestation d) Silviculture Answer: d) Silviculture

Which type of forest is found in areas with high rainfall?

a) Tropical evergreen forest b) Deciduous forest c) Thorny bushes d) Alpine forests Answer: a) Tropical evergreen forest

What percentage of the Earth's land area is covered by forests?

a) Approximately 10% b) Approximately 25% c) Approximately 50% d) Approximately 75% Answer: b) Approximately 25%

Forests act as a carbon sink. What does this mean?

a) Forests release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere b) Forests absorb excess oxygen c) Forests store carbon dioxide and reduce its levels in the atmosphere d) Forests produce carbon monoxide Answer: c) Forests store carbon dioxide and reduce its levels in the atmosphere

Which of the following is an example of a natural resource obtained from forests?

a) Oxygen b) Iron ore c) Crude oil d) Natural gas Answer: a) Oxygen

What is the term used to describe the sustainable use and management of forests?

a) Afforestation b) Deforestation c) Conservation d) Extraction Answer: c) Conservation

Which wildlife species is associated with the Sundarbans forest?

a) Tigers b) Elephants c) Rhinoceros d) Deer Answer: a) Tigers

Which layer of the forest receives the least amount of sunlight?

a) Herb layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Canopy layer Answer: a) Herb layer

Which of the following is a medicinal plant commonly found in forests?

a) Rose b) Lavender c) Neem d) Tulip Answer: c) Neem

What is the term used for the process of planting trees in an area where there were no trees previousl y?

a) Reforestation b) Afforestation c) Deforestation d) Silviculture Answer: b) Afforestation

Which layer of the forest has small trees, shrubs, and climbers?

a) Herb layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Canopy layer Answer: c) Understory layer

Which of the following is a human-made cause of deforestation?

a) Natural disasters b) Forest fires c) Urbanization and construction d) Climate change Answer: c) Urbanization and construction

What is the term used for the process of cutting down trees selectively?

a) Clear-cutting b) Agroforestry c) Shelterbelts d) Selective cutting Answer: d) Selective cutting

Which layer of the forest contains small herbs, grasses, and ferns?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: d) Herb layer

Which forest conservation program in India aims to involve local communities in forest management?

a) Project Tiger b) National Parks c) Joint Forest Management d) Silent Valley Project Answer: c) Joint Forest Management

Which of the following is an example of a coniferous forest?

a) Amazon Rainforest b) Sundarbans c) Taiga d) Grassland Answer: c) Taiga

What is the term used for the process of clearing forests for establishing agricultural land?

a) Urbanization b) Reforestation c) Slash and burn d) Encroachment Answer: c) Slash and burn

Which layer of the forest is closest to the forest floor?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: d) Herb layer

Which of the following is NOT a function of forests?

a) Regulating climate b) Providing habitat for wildlife c) Reducing noise pollution d) Generating electricity Answer: d) Generating electricity

Which type of forest is characterized by trees that shed their leaves during a particular season?

a) Deciduous forest b) Tropical evergreen forest c) Coniferous forest d) Alpine forest Answer: a) Deciduous forest

What is the term used to describe the area where a river meets the sea and has a mix of fresh and sal twater?

a) Estuary b) Mangrove c) Delta d) Wetland Answer: a) Estuary

Which layer of the forest has small trees, shrubs, and herbs that grow in shade?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: c) Understory layer

Which of the following is a direct cause of deforestation?

a) Global warming b) Acid rain c) Overgrazing d) Volcanic eruptions Answer: c) Overgrazing

Which wildlife sanctuary in India is known for its population of Indian Rhinoceros?

a) Jim Corbett National Park b) Kaziranga National Park c) Gir Forest National Park d) Periyar National Park Answer: b) Kaziranga National Park

Which layer of the forest receives the maximum sunlight?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: a) Canopy layer

What is the term used for the process of planting trees in a forest that has lost its trees due to natural disasters or human activities?

a) Reforestation b) Afforestation c) Deforestation d) Silviculture Answer: a) Reforestation

Which of the following is an example of a tropical evergreen forest in India?

a) Western Ghats b) Sunderbans c) Rann of Kutch d) Thar Desert Answer: a) Western Ghats

What is the term used for the process of cutting down all the trees in an area at once?

a) Clear-cutting b) Agroforestry c) Shelterbelts d) Selective cutting Answer: a) Clear-cutting

Which layer of the forest contains shrubs and small trees?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: b) Shrub layer

Which of the following is NOT a type of forest ecosystem in India?

a) Grassland b) Desert c) Mangrove d) Alpine Answer: b) Desert

What is the term used for a forest that is permanently lost due to the conversion of land into non-forest use?

a) Agroforestry b) Afforestation c) Deforestation d) Permanent forest Answer: c) Deforestation

Which Indian state is home to the Nilgiri mountains and its associated forests?

a) Kerala b) Tamil Nadu c) West Bengal d) Assam Answer: b) Tamil Nadu

Which layer of the forest is responsible for intercepting rainwater and preventing soil erosion?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: b) Shrub layer

What is the term used for an area with a high concentration of trees and other plants?

a) Forest b) Mountain c) Desert d) Wetland Answer: a) Forest

Which layer of the forest has the highest biodiversity?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: a) Canopy layer

Which of the following is NOT a method for conserving forests?

a) Promoting sustainable harvesting b) Encouraging afforestation c) Implementing reforestation programs d) Encouraging deforestation Answer: d) Encouraging deforestation

What is the term used for the continuous cutting down of trees without allowing them to regrow?

a) Selective cutting b) Agroforestry c) Shelterbelts d) Clear-cutting Answer: d) Clear-cutting

Which of the following is an example of a wildlife sanctuary in India?

a) Great Barrier Reef b) Amazon Rainforest c) Jim Corbett National Park d) Sahara Desert Answer: c) Jim Corbett National Park

Which layer of the forest has a thick canopy formed by tall trees?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: a) Canopy layer

What is the term used for the process of removing trees from a forest with a plan to replace them later ?

a) Clear-cutting b) Agroforestry c) Shelterbelts d) Selective cutting Answer: d) Selective cutting

Which Indian state is home to the Sundarbans forest?

a) West Bengal b) Assam c) Karnataka d) Punjab Answer: a) West Bengal

Which layer of the forest provides habitat for animals and birds?

a) Canopy layer b) Shrub layer c) Understory layer d) Herb layer Answer: c) Understory layer

Which of the following is NOT a threat to forests?

a) Climate change b) Urbanization and construction c) Forest conservation programs d) Overgrazing Answer: c) Forest conservation programs

Which type of forest is characterized by cold climate and coniferous trees?

a) Tropical rainforest b) Alpine forest c) Desert forest d) Deciduous forest Answer: b) Alpine forest

What is the term used for the process of planting trees alongside agricultural fields?

a) Slash and burn b) Encroachment c) Shelterbelts d) Deforestation Answer: c) Shelterbelts

Chapter 1 Integers

What is the additive inverse of -9?

a) 9 b) -9 c) 0 d) -1

Simplify: (-4) + (-7) + (-2) + 3

a) -18 b) -12 c) -10 d) -7

Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 2 and 3?

a) -18 b) -14 c) -10 d) -8

Solve: 4 × (-5) × (-3)

a) 60 b) -60 c) 48 d) -48

What is the absolute value of -12?

a) 12 b) -12 c) 0 d) 1

Which of the following numbers is the smallest?

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) -2

Simplify: -8 ÷ ( -2)

a) 4 b) 3 c) -4 d) -3

What is the sum of -5 and its additive inverse?

a) -6 b) 0 c) -5 d) 5

If the sum of two negative integers is -15, what is their difference?

a) 20 b) -20 c) 10 d) -10

Which of the following numbers is equal to its additive inverse?

a) 0 b) -1 c) 1 d) -2

Simplify: -3 × 4 ÷ (-2)

a) 6 b) -6 c) -12 d) 12

What is the opposite of -11?

a) -11 b) 11 c) 0 d) 1

If -4 is subtracted from -7, what is the result?

a) -11 b) -3 c) 3 d) 11

The product of two negative integers is always:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Indeterminate

Which of the following numbers is not a multiple of both 2 and 3?

a) 12 b) -18 c) -24 d) 36

What is the difference between -13 and its additive inverse?

a) -14 b) 0 c) 14 d) -1

Which of the following is the greatest negative integer?

a) -100 b) -10 c) -1 d) -1000

Find the sum of -9 and -3.

a) -12 b) 12 c) -6 d) 9

The result of multiplying three negative integers is always:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Indeterminate

Which of the following is the smallest positive integer?

a) -1 b) 0 c) 1 d) -2

Find the product of -7 and -8.

a) 56 b) -56 c) -15 d) 15

Simplify: (-2) × (-2) × (-2)

a) 4 b) -4 c) 8 d) -8

Which of the following is equal to the additive inverse of -5?

a) 5 b) -5 c) 0 d) 1

Solve: 7 - (-3)

a) 10 b) 4 c) -4 d) -10

What is the sum of -9 and the opposite of -9?

a) 0 b) -9 c) 18 d) 9

Which of the following numbers is divisible by both -2 and -3?

a) -12 b) -14 c) -10 d) -8

Simplify: -7 ÷ (-1)

a) 7 b) -7 c) -6 d) 6

What is the product of -5 and the opposite of -2?

a) 7 b) -7 c) 10 d) -10

If the sum of two positive integers is -15, what is their difference?

a) 20 b) -20 c) 10 d) -10

What is the opposite of 0?

a) -1 b) 1 c) 0 d) Indeterminate

Find the difference between -13 and -5.

a) -8 b) 8 c) -18 d) 18

What is the product of -3 and the opposite of -4?

a) 12 b) -12 c) -1 d) 1

Simplify: (-6) × (-5) ÷ 2

a) 15 b) -15 c) 30 d) -30

Which of the following is equal to the opposite of -17?

a) -17 b) 17 c) 0 d) 1

What is the sum of -5 and 0?

a) 0 b) -5 c) -6 d) 5

Find the product of -2 and -6.

a) 12 b) -12 c) -8 d) 8

Simplify: -9 × (-3) ÷ (-1)

a) 27 b) -27 c) -9 d) 9

Which of the following numbers is divisible by both 4 and -2?

a) 12 b) -14 c) -8 d) -16

What is the absolute value of 0?

a) 0 b) -1 c) 1 d) Indeterminate

What is the sum of -8 and the opposite of -6?

a) 14 b) -14 c) 2 d) -2

If the sum of two positive integers is 10, what is their difference?

a) 20 b) -20 c) 5 d) -5

What is the opposite of the opposite of -5?

a) -5 b) 5 c) 0 d) 1

Find the difference between -10 and its opposite.

a) -20 b) 20 c) -10 d) 10

What is the sum of -7 and -7?

a) -14 b) 14 c) -6 d) 6

Simplify: (-3) × (-3) × (-3)

a) 9 b) -9 c) -27 d) 27

Which of the following numbers is not a multiple of either 2 or 3?

a) 8 b) -14 c) -9 d) 24

What is the difference between 0 and its opposite?

a) 0 b) -1 c) 1 d) Indeterminate

Solve: -9 + (-3) - 2

a) -14 b) -10 c) -4 d) 4

What is the product of -1 and the opposite of -6?

a) 6 b) -6 c) -1 d) 1

Simplify: (-4) ÷ (-4) ÷ (-4)

a) 1/4 b) -1/4 c) -64 d) 64

Chapter 2 Fractions and Decimals

Which of the following numbers is a proper fraction?

a) 3/5 b) 9/7 c) 2 d) 5/2

What is the decimal representation of the fraction ¾?

a) 0.25 b) 1.25 c) 0.75 d) 1.75

Simplify the fraction 24/36 to its simplest form.

a) 2/3 b) 3/4 c) 4/5 d) 5/6

Express 0.45 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 45/100 b) 9/20 c) 90/200 d) 4/5

What is the decimal equivalent of 5/16?

a) 0.3125 b) 0.25 c) 0.625 d) 0.5

Simplify the fraction 7/12 to its simplest form.

a) 1/3 b) 3/7 c) 7/9 d) 7/12

What is the fraction equivalent of 0.6?

a) 3/5 b) 6/10 c) 6/100 d) 6/15

Convert the fraction 5/8 to its decimal form.

a) 0.6 b) 0.625 c) 0.8 d) 0.875 9. What is the decimal representation of the fraction 7/20? a) 0.35 b) 0.7 c) 0.075 d) 0.35

Simplify the fraction 16/20 to its simplest form.

a) 8/10 b) 8/15 c) 4/5 d) 32/40

Express 0.375 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 375/1000 b) 3/8 c) 37/100 d) 375/100

What is the fraction equivalent of 0.9?

a) 9/10 b) 9/100 c) 90/100 d) 90/10

Convert the fraction 3/5 to its decimal form.

a) 0.5 b) 0.6 c) 0.7 d) 0.8

Simplify the fraction 15/25 to its simplest form.

a) 3/5 b) 15/20 c) 15/25 d) 10/15

Express 0.15 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 15/100 b) 15/10 c) 3/5 d) 5/15

What is the decimal representation of the fraction 3/8?

a) 0.375 b) 0.38 c) 0.385 d) 0.8

Simplify the fraction 9/15 to its simplest form.

a) 9/10 b) 3/5 c) 6/9 d) 1/3

Express 0.875 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 875/1000 b) 7/8 c) 875/100 d) 875/10000

What is the fraction equivalent of 0.4?

a) 40/10 b) 4/10 c) 4/100 d) 4/5

Convert the fraction 2/3 to its decimal form.

a) 0.3 b) 1.33 c) 0.66 d) 0.666

Simplify the fraction 12/20 to its simplest form.

a) 3/5 b) 12/25 c) 2/3 d) 4/5

What is the decimal representation of the fraction 9/16?

a) 0.625 b) 0.5625 c) 0.05625 d) 0.225

Express 0.65 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 65/100 b) 13/20 c) 6.5/10 d) 13/200

What is the fraction equivalent of 0.12?

a) 1/2 b) 12/100 c) 12/10 d) 6/5

Convert the fraction 7/10 to its decimal form.

a) 0.7 b) 0.175 c) 0.071 d) 17/10

Simplify the fraction 18/27 to its simplest form.

a) 2/3 b) 18/25 c) 9/13 d) 6/7

Express 0.175 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 175/1000 b) 17/100 c) 1/75 d) 175/100

What is the decimal representation of the fraction 5/12?

a) 0.452 b) 0.4166 c) 0.15 d) 0.41666

Simplify the fraction 30/50 to its simplest form.

a) 3/5 b) 3/10 c) 15/25 d) 2/3

Express 0.9 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 9/10 b) 9/100 c) 9/1 d) 9/20

What is the fraction equivalent of 0.8?

a) 8/10 b) 800/1000 c) 8/100 d) 8/8

Convert the fraction 6/7 to its decimal form.

a) 0.857 b) 87/7 c) 0.8571 d) 0.85714

Simplify the fraction 24/32 to its simplest form.

a) 5/7 b) 3/4 c) 24/64 d) 12/16

What is the decimal representation of the fraction 2/9?

a) 0.225 b) 0.222 c) 0.2222 d) 0.22

Express 0.625 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 625/1000 b) 625/100 c) 5/8 d) 6.25/10

What is the fraction equivalent of 0.6?

a) 3/5 b) 60/10 c) 6/10 d) 6/100

Convert the fraction 4/9 to its decimal form.

a) 0.44 b) 4/9 c) 0.049 d) 0.444

Simplify the fraction 27/45 to its simplest form.

a) 3/5 b) 9/15 c) 4/9 d) 6/10

Express 0.45 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 4.5/10 b) 45/100 c) 45/10 d) 9/20

What is the decimal representation of the fraction 7/11?

a) 0.636 b) 0.115 c) 0.777 d) 0.909

Simplify the fraction 20/35 to its simplest form.

a) 4/7 b) 40/70 c) 10/15 d) 20/35

What is the fraction equivalent of 0.17?

a) 17/100 b) 17/10 c) 17/7 d) 17/1

Convert the fraction 3/4 to its decimal form.

a) 0.75 b) 0.375 c) 3/4 d) 0.25

Simplify the fraction 6/10 to its simplest form.

a) 3/5 b) 6/8 c) 6/15 d) 2/3

Express 0.96 as a fraction in simplest form.

a) 96/100 b) 48/50 c) 24/25 d) 96/10

What is the decimal representation of the fraction 9/14?

a) 0.643 b) 0.65 c) 0.6432 d) 0.64322

Chapter 3 Data Handling

Which of the following is an example of primary data?

a) Census data collected by the government b) Data collected from a survey c) Data collected from a research paper d) None of the above

The measure of central tendency that represents the middle value in a set of data is called:

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range

The histogram is a graphical representation of:

a) Discrete data b) Continuous data c) Categorical data d) None of the above

The measure of dispersion that tells us how spread out the data is from the mean is called:

a) Variance b) Range c) Standard deviation d) Median

The number that appears most frequently in a set of data is called the:

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range

A sample space is: a) The set of possible outcomes of an experiment b) The set of actual outcomes of an experiment c) The set of favorable outcomes of an experiment d) None of the above

Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Variance

If the mean of a set of data is 25 and the sum of the data values is 250, how many data values are ther e?

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

The probability of an event happening can range from:

a) 0 to 1 b) 0 to 100 c) 0 to infinity d) None of the above

A cumulative frequency table is used to:

a) Calculate the mean of a data set b) Display the frequency distribution of a data set c) Calculate the median of a data set d) None of the above

The chance of an event not happening is called:

a) Complementary event b) Mutually exclusive event c) Independent event d) None of the above

The range of a data set is defined as:

a) The difference between the highest and lowest values b) The sum of all the values c) The middle value of the data set d) None of the above

The mode of a data set is:

a) The most frequently occurring value b) The value in the middle of the data set c) The sum of all the values d) None of the above

A stem-and-leaf plot is used to:

a) Display the frequency distribution of a data set b) Calculate the mean of a data set c) Calculate the standard deviation of a data set d) None of the above

The probability of two independent events happening is calculated by:

a) Adding their probabilities together b) Multiplying their probabilities together c) Subtracting their probabilities d) None of the above

The median of a data set is: a) The sum of all the values divided by the number of values b) The value that appears most frequently c) The value in the middle of the ordered data set d) None of the above

The interquartile range is a measure of:

a) Central tendency b) Dispersion c) Skewness d) None of the above

A box-and-whisker plot is used to display the:

a) Mean of a data set b) Median of a data set c) Mode of a data set d) None of the above

The probability of an impossible event is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of the above

Outliers are: a) Data values that are very different from the others b) Data values that are close to the mean c) Data values that are in the middle of the range d) None of the above

The probability of two mutually exclusive events happening is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of the above

The mode of a data set can be:

a) None b) One c) Multiple d) None of the above

The number of times an event occurs divided by the total number of possible outcomes is called:

a) Multiplication rule b) Addition rule c) Relative frequency d) None of the above

A pie chart is used to display:

a) Discrete data b) Continuous data c) Categorical data d) None of the above

The measure of central tendency that is not affected by outliers is:

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range

The probability of two dependent events happening is calculated by:

a) Adding their probabilities together b) Multiplying their probabilities together c) Subtracting their probabilities

None of the above 27. The variance of a data set is defined as:

a) The sum of all the values divided by the number of values b) The difference between the highest and lowest values c) The average of the squared differences from the mean d) None of the above

The number of times a data value occurs in a data set is called its:

a) Frequency b) Relative frequency c) Cumulative frequency d) None of the above

A bar graph is used to display:

a) Discrete data b) Continuous data c) Categorical data d) None of the above

The probability of two independent events happening is always:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of the above

The z-score is a measure of:

a) Central tendency b) Dispersion c) Skewness d) None of the above

The measure of dispersion that tells us the average distance of the data values from the mean is calle d:

a) Variance b) Range c) Standard deviation d) Median

The measure of central tendency that is not affected by extreme values is:

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range 34. The number of favorable outcomes divided by the total number of possible outcomes is called: a) Multiplication rule b) Addition rule c) Relative frequency d) Probability

A frequency distribution table is used to:

a) Calculate the mean of a data set b) Display the frequency distribution of a data set c) Calculate the median of a data set d) None of the above

The probability of an event happening is always:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of the above

The measure of dispersion that tells us how spread out the data is from the median is called:

a) Variance b) Range c) Standard deviation d) Mean

The measure of central tendency that is affected by extreme values is:

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range

The probability of two mutually exclusive events happening is always:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of the above

Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a) Variance b) Range c) Standard deviation d) Mode

The mean of a data set is affected by:

a) Outliers b) Median c) Variance d) None of the above

The measure of central tendency that is influenced by every data value is:

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range

The probability of an event happening and its complement happening is always:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of the above

The measure of dispersion that tells us the spread of data around the median is called:

a) Variance b) Range c) Standard deviation d) Mean

The sum of the probabilities of all possible outcomes of an event is always:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 0.5 d) None of the above

Chapter 4 Simple Equations

Solve the equation: 3x + 7 = 22

a) x = 5 b) x = 8 c) x = 15 d) x = 9

If 2x + 5 = 17, find the value of x.

a) x = 8 b) x = 6 c) x = 9 d) x = 7

Solve the equation: 4(x + 3) = 32

a) x = 4 b) x = 5 c) x = 6 d) x = 7

If x/5 = 2, find the value of x.

a) x = 7 b) x = 10 c) x = 6 d) x = 11

Simplify the equation: 2x - 3 = 10x + 5

a) x = -1 b) x = 2 c) x = 3 d) x = 4

Solve the equation: 2(x - 4) + 5 = 14

a) x = 5 b) x = 6 c) x = 7 d) x = 8

Find the value of x: 3(x + 4) - 5 = 26

a) x = 3 b) x = 5 c) x = 6 d) x = 9

If 3x + 2 = 11, what is the value of x?

a) x = 3 b) x = 4 c) x = 5 d) x = 6

Solve the equation: 5(x - 2) - 3 = 17

a) x = 6 b) x = 7 c) x = 8 d) x = 9

If 4x - 3 = 25, find the value of x.

a) x = 7 b) x = 8 c) x = 9 d) x = 10

Simplify the equation: 2x + 3 = 4(x - 5) - 7

a) x = 10 b) x = 12 c) x = 13 d) x = 14

Find the value of x: 2(3x + 4) = 14 + x

a) x = 2 b) x = 3 c) x = 4 d) x = 5

Solve the equation: 2(5 - x) + 3 = 4(x - 2)

a) x = 4 b) x = 5 c) x = 6 d) x = 7

If x/4 + 3 = 7, what is the value of x?

a) x = 22 b) x = 24 c) x = 26 d) x = 28

Simplify the equation: 3(2x - 1) = 12 - 4x

a) x = 2 b) x = 3 c) x = 4 d) x = 5

Solve the equation: 5(2x + 3) - 2 = 30

a) x = 4 b) x = 5 c) x = 6 d) x = 7

Find the value of x: 0.5(x + 7) = 2(x - 2)

a) x = 5 b) x = 6 c) x = 7 d) x = 8

If 6x - 4 = 14, what is the value of x?

a) x = 3 b) x = 4 c) x = 5 d) x = 6

Simplify the equation: 3(2 - x) - 2 = 5x + 10

a) x = -4 b) x = -3 c) x = -2 d) x = -1

Solve the equation: 4(3x + 2) = 5(x - 1) + 4

a) x = 6 b) x = 7 c) x = 8 d) x = 9

Find the value of x: 2(x - 3) - 1 = 5 - (x - 2)

a) x = 3 b) x = 4 c) x = 5 d) x = 6

If 2x + 7 = 21, what is the value of x?

a) x = 7 b) x = 8 c) x = 9 d) x = 10

Simplify the equation: 3x + 2 = 5(x - 1) - 1

a) x = 1 b) x = 2 c) x = 3 d) x = 4

Solve the equation: 7(x - 3) + 2 = 25

a) x = 5 b) x = 6 c) x = 7 d) x = 8

Find the value of x: 4(x + 5) - 3(x - 2) = 15

a) x = -1 b) x = 0 c) x = 1 d) x = 2

If 5x - 3 = 17, what is the value of x?

a) x = 4 b) x = 5 c) x = 6 d) x = 7

Simplify the equation: 3x + 7 - 2x = 24

a) x = 17 b) x = 18 c) x = 19 d) x = 20

Solve the equation: 2(x - 4) - 3 = 5 - (x + 2)

a) x = 4 b) x = 5 c) x = 6 d) x = 7

Find the value of x: 3(2x + 5) = 4(x - 1) + 7

a) x = 3 b) x = 4 c) x = 5 d) x = 6

If x/3 + 2 = 7, what is the value of x?

a) x = 15 b) x = 18 c) x = 21 d) x = 24

Simplify the equation: 4(x + 2) = x + 3 - 2(x - 1)

a) x = 1 b) x = 2 c) x = 3 d) x = 4

Solve the equation: 3(5 - x) + 2 = 12

a) x = 2 b) x = 3 c) x = 4 d) x = 5

Find the value of x: 2(x + 4) - 5 = 3(x - 2) + 1

a) x = 3 b) x = 4 c) x = 5 d) x = 6

If 4(x - 3) = 24, what is the value of x?

a) x = 6 b) x = 7 c) x = 8 d) x = 9

Simplify the equation: 2(3 - x) + 4 = 5x - 1

a) x = -1 b) x = -2 c) x = -3 d) x = -4

Solve the equation: 5(x + 3) - 2 = 3(x - 4)

a) x = 4 b) x = 5 c) x = 6 d) x = 7

Find the value of x: 2(x + 5) + 7 = 3(x - 1) - 2

a) x = 1 b) x = 2 c) x = 3 d) x = 4

If 3x + 4 = 22, what is the value of x?

a) x = 6 b) x = 7 c) x = 8 d) x = 9

Simplify the equation: 4(2 - x) - 3 = 7

a) x = -1 b) x = -2 c) x = -3 d) x = -4

Chapter 5 Lines and Angles

In a right triangle, the longest side is called:

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Perpendicular d) Adjacent side

Two angles with a common vertex and one common side, but no common interior points are called:

a) Adjacent angles b) Supplementary angles c) Complementary angles d) Vertically opposite angles

A straight line that intersects two or more parallel lines is called a:

a) Perpendicular line b) Transversal line c) Vertical line d) Parallel line

If two parallel lines are cut by a transversal, then the corresponding angles are:

a) Supplementary b) Complementary c) Equal d) Both a and c

The sum of angles of a triangle is always equal to:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

Two angles whose sum is 180 degrees are called:

a) Right angles b) Obtuse angles c) Complementary angles d) Supplementary angles

The measure of an exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of its:

a) Interior angles b) Opposite angles c) Adjacent angles d) Complementary angles

The sum of the exterior angles of any polygon is always equal to:

a) 45 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 180 degrees d) 360 degrees

In a cyclic quadrilateral, the opposite angles are:

a) Supplementary b) Complementary c) Equal d) Perpendicular

The sum of the measures of the angles of a quadrilateral is equal to:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

Angles formed by two intersecting lines are called:

a) Vertical angles b) Adjacent angles c) Complementary angles d) Linear angles

The angle formed by a straight line is:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

An angle that is less than 90 degrees is called:

a) Acute angle b) Right angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

In a parallelogram, opposite angles are:

a) Supplementary b) Complementary c) Equal d) Perpendicular 15. The angle formed when a line intersects a parallel line is: a) Right angle b) Acute angle c) Obtuse angle d) Reflex angle

A triangle with three equal sides is called:

a) Obtuse triangle b) Equilateral triangle c) Isosceles triangle d) Scalene triangle

A triangle with one angle greater than 90 degrees is called:

a) Obtuse triangle b) Equilateral triangle c) Isosceles triangle d) Scalene triangle

A triangle with two equal sides is called:

a) Obtuse triangle b) Equilateral triangle c) Isosceles triangle d) Scalene triangle

A triangle with no equal sides is called:

a) Obtuse triangle b) Equilateral triangle c) Isosceles triangle d) Scalene triangle

The angle subtended by a chord at the center of a circle is:

a) Right angle b) Acute angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

Two angles that sum up to 180 degrees are called:

a) Right angles b) Acute angles c) Complementary angles d) Supplementary angles

A circle is divided into 360 equal parts called:

a) Degrees b) Angles c) Sides d) Radii

The angle formed by two radii of a circle is called:

a) Right angle b) Acute angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

Two angles whose measures add up to 90 degrees are called:

a) Right angles b) Acute angles c) Complementary angles d) Supplementary angles

The ratio of the length of the hypotenuse to the length of the side adjacent to an acute angle in a right

triangle is called: a) Sine b) Cosine c) Tangent d) Secant

The angle formed by a chord and a tangent of a circle is:

a) Right angle b) Acute angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

The angle formed by two tangents drawn to a circle from an external point is:

a) Right angle b) Acute angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

In a cyclic quadrilateral, the opposite angles are:

a) Supplementary b) Complementary c) Equal d) Perpendicular

In a parallelogram, the opposite sides are:

a) Supplementary b) Complementary c) Equal d) Parallel

The sum of the angles of a hexagon is equal to:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

Two angles whose measures add up to 180 degrees are called:

a) Adjacent angles b) Linear angles c) Vertically opposite angles d) Corresponding angles

An angle that is greater than 90 degrees but less than 180 degrees is called:

a) Acute angle b) Right angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

An angle that is equal to 90 degrees is called:

a) Acute angle b) Right angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

The measure of an exterior angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of its:

a) Vertically opposite angles b) Interior angles c) Corresponding angles d) Complementary angles

In a right triangle, the side opposite the right angle is called:

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Perpendicular d) Adjacent side

Two lines that never meet or intersect are called:

a) Parallel lines b) Perpendicular lines c) Transversal lines d) Skew lines

An angle that is equal to 180 degrees is called:

a) Acute angle b) Right angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

In a right triangle, the side adjacent to an acute angle is called:

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Perpendicular d) Adjacent side

Two angles whose measures add up to 180 degrees are called:

a) Adjacent angles b) Linear angles c) Vertically opposite angles d) Corresponding angles

The angle formed by a line and a transversal line intersecting two parallel lines is called:

a) Alternate interior angle b) Corresponding angle c) Alternate exterior angle d) Supplementary angle

In a trapezium, the pair of opposite angles are:

a) Complementary b) Supplementary c) Equal d) Parallel

The angle formed by a straight line is:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

The sum of the measures of the angles of a quadrilateral is equal to:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

An angle that is equal to 180 degrees is called:

a) Acute angle b) Right angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

The angle formed by a line and a transversal line intersecting two parallel lines is called:

a) Alternate interior angle b) Corresponding angle c) Alternate exterior angle d) Supplementary angle

Two lines that never meet or intersect are called:

a) Parallel lines b) Perpendicular lines c) Transversal lines d) Skew lines

The angle subtended by a chord at the center of a circle is:

a) Right angle b) Acute angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

The sum of the angles of a hexagon is equal to:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

A triangle with three equal sides is called:

a) Obtuse triangle b) Equilateral triangle c) Isosceles triangle d) Scalene triangle

A triangle with one angle greater than 90 degrees is called:

a) Obtuse triangle b) Equilateral triangle c) Isosceles triangle d) Scalene triangle

Chapter 6 The Triangle and its Properties

Which of the following statements is true about an isosceles triangle?

a) It has three congruent sides b) It has three congruent angles c) It has two congruent sides and two congruent angles d) It has two congruent sides and one congruent angle

Which of the following statements is true about a scalene triangle?

a) It has three congruent sides b) It has three congruent angles c) It has no congruent sides or angles d) It has two congruent sides and two congruent angles

A triangle with one right angle is called a ________ triangle.

a) Acute b) Obtuse c) Right-angled d) Scalene

The sum of the measures of the angles in a triangle is ________ degrees.

a) 90 b) 180 c) 270 d) 360

The longest side in a right-angled triangle is called the ________.

a) Hypotenuse b) Altitude c) Base d) Perpendicular

An equilateral triangle has ________ congruent sides.

a) One b) Two c) Three d) None

In an isosceles triangle, the angles opposite the congruent sides are ________.

a) Congruent b) Supplementary c) Right angles d) Acute angles

The sum of any two sides of a triangle must be ________ than the third side.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) None of the above

The area of a triangle can be calculated using the formula ________.

a) Base × Height b) Length × Width c) 1/2 × Base × Height d) 1/2 × Length × Width

Which of the following statements is true about an acute-angled triangle?

a) It has one angle measuring exactly 90 degrees b) It has three angles measuring less than 90 degrees c) It has one angle measuring more than 90 degrees d) It has two angles measuring 90 degrees each

A triangle with all sides of different lengths is called a ________ triangle.

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Right-angled

The sum of any two angles in a triangle is ________ than the third angle.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) None of the above

The line segment joining any two nonadjacent vertices of a polygon is called a ________.

a) Side b) Base c) Median d) Diagonal

The altitude of a triangle is a line segment drawn from a vertex to the ________ of the opposite side.

a) Midpoint b) Center c) Perpendicular d) Circumcenter

A triangle with two congruent sides is called a ________ triangle.

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Right-angled

A triangle can have ________ right angle(s).

a) One b) Two c) Three d) None

The perpendicular bisectors of the sides of a triangle intersect at a point called the ________.

a) Incenter b) Centroid c) Circumcenter d) Orthocenter

The area of an equilateral triangle with side length 'a' can be calculated using the formula ________.

a) a^2 b) 1/2 × a^2 c) 1/4 × a^2 d) √3/4 × a^2

The median of a triangle is a line segment drawn from a vertex to the ________ of the opposite side.

a) Midpoint b) Center c) Perpendicular d) Circumcenter

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be ________ than the third side.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) None of the above

The area of a triangle can be calculated using the formula ________.

a) Base × Height b) Length × Width c) 1/2 × Base × Height d) 1/2 × Length × Width

The sum of the measures of the angles in a triangle is ________ degrees.

a) 90 b) 180 c) 270 d) 360

The longest side in a right-angled triangle is called the ________.

a) Hypotenuse b) Altitude c) Base d) Perpendicular

An isosceles triangle has ________ congruent sides.

a) One b) Two c) Three d) None

In an equilateral triangle, each angle measures ________ degrees.

a) 30 b) 45 c) 60 d) 90

A triangle with one right angle is called a ________ triangle.

a) Acute b) Obtuse c) Right-angled d) Scalene

In a scalene triangle, all angles are ________.

a) Acute b) Obtuse c) Right angles d) Congruent

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is ________ than the third side.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) None of the above

The circumcenter of a triangle is the point of intersection of the ________.

a) Medians b) Perpendicular bisectors c) Altitudes d) Diagonals

A triangle with all sides of different lengths is called a ________ triangle.

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Right-angled

The sum of any two angles in a triangle is ________ than the third angle.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) None of the above

The area of a triangle can be calculated using the formula ________.

a) Base × Height b) Length × Width c) 1/2 × Base × Height d) 1/2 × Length × Width

The altitude of a triangle is a line segment drawn from a vertex to the ________ of the opposite side.

a) Midpoint b) Center c) Perpendicular d) Circumcenter

A triangle with two congruent sides is called a ________ triangle.

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Right-angled

A triangle can have ________ right angle(s).

a) One b) Two c) Three d) None

The perpendicular bisectors of the sides of a triangle intersect at a point called the ________.

a) Incenter b) Centroid c) Circumcenter d) Orthocenter

The area of an equilateral triangle with side length 'a' can be calculated using the formula ________.

a) a^2 b) 1/2 × a^2 c) 1/4 × a^2 d) √3/4 × a^2

The median of a triangle is a line segment drawn from a vertex to the ________ of the opposite side.

a) Midpoint b) Center c) Perpendicular d) Circumcenter

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle must be ________ than the third side.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) None of the above

The area of a triangle can be calculated using the formula ________.

a) Base × Height b) Length × Width c) 1/2 × Base × Height d) 1/2 × Length × Width

The sum of the measures of the angles in a triangle is ________ degrees.

a) 90 b) 180 c) 270 d) 360

The longest side in a right-angled triangle is called the ________.

a) Hypotenuse b) Altitude c) Base d) Perpendicular

An isosceles triangle has ________ congruent sides.

a) One b) Two c) Three d) None

In an equilateral triangle, each angle measures ________ degrees.

a) 30 b) 45 c) 60 d) 90

A triangle with one right angle is called a ________ triangle.

a) Acute b) Obtuse c) Right-angled d) Scalene

In a scalene triangle, all angles are ________.

a) Acute b) Obtuse c) Right angles d) Congruent

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is ________ than the third side.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) None of the above

The circumcenter of a triangle is the point of intersection of the ________.

a) Medians b) Perpendicular bisectors c) Altitudes d) Diagonals

Chapter 7 Congruence of Triangles

What is the sum of the three angles of a triangle?

a) 90° b) 180° c) 270° d) 360°

If two angles of a triangle are 60° and 80°, what is the measure of the third angle?

a) 40° b) 60° c) 80° d) 100°

In a triangle, if one angle is equal to the sum of the other two angles, then the triangle is:

a) Equilateral b) Obtuse c) Right-angled d) Scalene

What is the criterion for two triangles to be congruent?

a) SAS (Side-Angle-Side) b) ASA (Angle-Side-Angle) c) SSS (Side-Side-Side) d) RHS (Right Angle-Hypotenuse-Side)

In a triangle, if the sides are of lengths 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm, then the triangle is:

a) Acute-angled b) Obtuse-angled c) Right-angled d) None of the above

The area of a triangle with base 7 cm and height 5 cm is:

a) 12 cm² b) 17.5 cm² c) 24.5 cm² d) 35 cm²

If two sides and the included angle of one triangle are equal to the corresponding parts of another trian gle, then the triangles are:

a) Similar b) Congruent c) Equilateral d) None of the above

Two triangles are congruent if: a) Their corresponding angles are equal b) Their corresponding sides are equal c) Their corresponding diagonals are equal d) None of the above

If the corresponding angles of two triangles are equal, then the triangles are:

a) Similar b) Congruent c) Equilateral d) None of the above

In a triangle, which of the following congruence criterion is true?

a) SAS b) ASA c) SSS d) All of the above

The perpendicular bisectors of the sides of a triangle meet at a point called the:

a) Centroid b) Circumcenter c) Incenter d) Orthocenter

If two angles and a side of one triangle are equal to the corresponding angles and side of another tria ngle, then the triangles are:

a) Similar b) Congruent c) Equilateral d) None of the above

Two triangles are congruent if they have:

a) Equal side lengths b) Equal angles c) Equal altitudes d) Equal diagonals

In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of any two sides is always:

a) Equal to the length of the third side b) Less than the length of the third side c) Greater than the length of the third side d) None of the above

If the triangles are congruent, then the corresponding angles and sides are:

a) Equal b) Parallel c) Perpendicular d) None of the above

In a right-angled triangle, the side opposite the right angle is called the:

a) Hypotenuse b) Base c) Altitude d) Median

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is always:

a) Greater than the difference of the other two sides b) Less than the difference of the other two sides c) Equal to the difference of the other two sides d) None of the above

In a triangle, if the square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then th e triangle is:

a) Acute-angled b) Obtuse-angled c) Right-angled d) None of the above

If the corresponding sides of two triangles are proportional, then the triangles are:

a) Similar b) Congruent c) Equilateral d) None of the above

If in a triangle, the square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then th

e triangle is: a) Acute-angled b) Obtuse-angled c) Right-angled d) None of the above

If the corresponding angles of two triangles are equal and the corresponding sides are proportional, th en the triangles are:

a) Similar b) Congruent c) Equilateral d) None of the above

In a triangle, the measure of an exterior angle is equal to:

a) The sum of the two interior opposite angles b) The difference of the two interior opposite angles c) Half the measure of the two interior opposite angles d) None of the above

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is greater than:

a) The length of the third side b) Half the length of the third side c) One-fourth of the length of the third side d) None of the above

In a triangle, if two angles are equal, then the opposite sides are:

a) Equal b) Unequal c) Parallel d) None of the above

The longest side of a triangle is always opposite the:

a) Shortest side b) Second longest side c) Largest angle d) Smallest angle

In a congruent triangle, if angle A is equal to angle P, angle B is equal to angle Q, and side BC is equ al to side QR, then angle C is equal to:

a) Angle R b) Angle P c) Angle B d) Angle Q

In a triangle, if one angle is 90°, then the triangle is called:

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Right-angled

In a triangle, the line segment joining a vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side is called the:

a) Median b) Altitude c) Perpendicular bisector d) None of the above

In a triangle, if all the angles are equal, then the triangle is:

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Acute-angled

If the corresponding sides of two triangles are proportional, then the triangles are:

a) Similar b) Congruent c) Equilateral d) None of the above

In a triangle, the sum of any two sides is always _____ than the third side.

a) Greater b) Less c) Equal d) None of the above

If two triangles have the same three sides, then they are:

a) Similar b) Congruent c) Equilateral d) None of the above

In a triangle, the angle opposite the longest side is always:

a) The largest angle b) The smallest angle c) The right angle d) None of the above

If two triangles have the same three angles, then they are:

a) Similar b) Congruent c) Equilateral d) None of the above

In a triangle, the line segment joining the vertex to the midpoint of the opposite side is divided into two

segments in the ratio: a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:3 d) 1:4

If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1:4:5, then the triangle is:

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) None of the above

In a triangle, the line segment joining the midpoint of one side to a vertex is called the:

a) Median b) Altitude c) Perpendicular bisector d) None of the above

In a triangle, if the square of one side is equal to the sum of the squares of the other two sides, then th

e triangle is: a) Acute-angled b) Obtuse-angled c) Right-angled d) None of the above

In a triangle, if two sides are of lengths 7 cm and 10 cm, then the third side can have any length betwe en:

a) 3 cm and 17 cm b) 2 cm and 10 cm c) 1 cm and 7 cm d) None of the above

In a triangle, if the lengths of two sides are in the ratio 4:7, then the lengths of the angles opposite the

se sides are in the ratio: a) 4:7 b) 7:4 c) 2:3 d) None of the above

Two triangles are congruent if they have: a) Equal side lengths b) Equal angles c) Equal perimeters d) Equal areas

What is the name of a triangle with all angles less than 90°?

a) Acute-angled b) Obtuse-angled c) Right-angled d) None of the above

Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities

A shopkeeper sells a product at a 20% discount on its marked price. If the product costs 2000, what is i ts original marked price?

a) 2400 b) 2500 c) 3200 d) 4000

In a school, there are 800 students out of which 60% are girls. How many boys are there in the school?

a) 240 b) 320 c) 400 d) 480

The ratio of the lengths of two sticks is 5:12. If the length of one stick is 24 cm, what is the length of the

other stick? a) 10 cm b) 28 cm c) 58 cm d) 60 cm

The cost of a shirt after a 10% discount is 540. What was its original cost?

a) 500 b) 550 c) 585 d) 600

A number increased by 25% gives the result of the number multiplied by 2. What is the number?

a) 40 b) 48 c) 56 d) 64

A bike travels at a speed of 40 km/h. How much distance will it cover in 2 hours?

a) 40 km b) 60 km c) 80 km d) 100 km

The cost of a watch after a 15% discount is 425. What was its original cost?

a) 500 b) 510 c) 590 d) 600

The ratio of boys to girls in a class is 5:3. If there are 24 girls, how many boys are there?

a) 20 b) 30 c) 36 d) 48

Gopal purchased a bag at a 20% discount. If he paid 800 for the bag, what was its original price?

a) 850 b) 880 c) 1000 d) 1200

The ratio of the ages of Ram and Shyam is 3:5. If Ram is 15 years old, what is the age of Shyam?

a) 20 years b) 25 years c) 30 years d) 35 years

Two sticks have lengths 9 cm and 12 cm respectively. What is the ratio of their lengths in simplest for m?

a) 3:4 b) 2:3 c) 3:2 d) 4:3

A book is sold at a loss of 20% of its cost. If the loss is 60, what is the selling price of the book?

a) 240 b) 300 c) 320 d) 400

The cost price of a TV is 8000. If it is sold for 10,000, what is the profit percentage?

a) 20% b) 22.5% c) 25% d) 30%

A dealer sells a product at a 30% profit, but while packing it, he realizes the product is damaged. If he reduces the selling price by 20%, what is his overall profit percentage?

a) 12% b) 8% c) 10% d) 16%

In a class, the number of girls is 40% of the total strength and the number of boys is 60% of the total s trength. If the total strength is 400, how many boys are there?

a) 200 b) 240 c) 280 d) 320

25% of a number is 50. What is 60% of the same number?

a) 120 b) 150 c) 180 d) 200

The cost price of a pen is 40. If it is sold at a loss of 10%, what is the selling price?

a) 30 b) 35 c) 36 d) 37

A car travels at an average speed of 60 km/h. How much time will it take to travel a distance of 240 k m?

a) 3 hours b) 4 hours c) 5 hours d) 6 hours

What is the percentage increase if a number is increased from 50 to 80?

a) 40% b) 50% c) 60% d) 80%

The cost price of a pair of shoes is 600. If it is sold for 700, what is the profit percentage?

a) 16.67% b) 14.29% c) 17.67% d) 19.23%

The ratio of the weights of two objects is 3:5. If the weight of one object is 27 kg, what is the weight of

the other object? a) 15 kg b) 45 kg c) 36 kg d) 40 kg

A glass bottle was bought for 150 and sold for 180. What is the profit percentage?

a) 10% b) 18% c) 20% d) 25%

30% of a number is 90. What is 40% of the same number?

a) 120 b) 150 c) 180 d) 200

The price of a toy is 800 after a 20% discount. What was its original price?

a) 960 b) 1000 c) 1020 d) 1200

A cycle is sold for 2660 after a 25% profit. What was its cost price?

a) 2000 b) 2130 c) 2200 d) 2400

In a school, 50% of the students play football and 40% of the students play cricket. If 20% of the stude nts play both sports, what percentage of students do not play either sport?

a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40%

The profit percentage on an article is 60%. If its selling price is 1800, what is its cost price?

a) 1000 b) 1100 c) 1125 d) 1200

A box contains 45 red balls, 60 green balls, and 75 blue balls. What is the ratio of red balls to the total

number of balls? a) 1:3 b) 2:3 c) 3:4 d) 1:2

The length of a rectangle is increased by 10% and its breadth is increased by 15%. What is the perce ntage increase in its area?

a) 20% b) 25% c) 26.5% d) 27.5%

The marked price of a product is 4000. After a 25% discount, it is sold for 3000. What is the percentag e profit?

a) 15% b) 20% c) 25% d) 30%

The cost price of a bicycle is 2400. If it is sold at a 25% profit, what is the selling price?

a) 3000 b) 3300 c) 3500 d) 3750

The ratio of the number of boys to girls in a school is 5:8. If there are 40 boys, what is the total strengt

h of the school? a) 80 b) 120 c) 200 d) 320

A shopkeeper buys a watch for 1200 and sells it for 1500. What is the profit percentage?

a) 10% b) 20% c) 25% d) 30%

The ratio of the lengths of two sticks is 6:13. If the length of one stick is 24 cm, what is the length of th

e other stick? a) 52 cm b) 56 cm c) 72 cm d) 78 cm

The cost of an item after a 20% discount is 600. What was its original cost?

a) 650 b) 700 c) 720 d) 750

Chapter 9 Rational Numbers

What is the equivalent fraction of 3/4?

a. 9/12 b. 6/8 c. 2/3 d. 5/6

Which of the following is a rational number?

a. √2 b. √3 c. √4 d. √5

What is the product of 2/3 and 4/5?

a. 8/15 b. 6/7 c. 1/2 d. 3/4

Simplify the expression: 4 + 1/2

a. 4½ b. 4¼ c. 4⅔ d. 4¾

Which of the following fractions is the largest?

a. 2/3 b. 4/7 c. 1/2 d. 3/5

Evaluate: 3/4 + 5/6

a. 7/12 b. 8/9 c. 1/2 d. 13/16

What is the reciprocal of 7/8?

a. 8/7 b. 7/8 c. 1 d. 0

Simplify the expression: 9/12 - 1/6

a. 2/3 b. 5/6 c. 7/12 d. 3/4

Which of the following fractions is an improper fraction?

a. 5/4 b. 3/2 c. 2/3 d. 4/5

What is the decimal representation of 3/8?

a. 0.25 b. 0.3 c. 0.375 d. 0.4

What is the simplest form of 6/9?

a. 2/3 b. 4/6 c. 3/4 d. 1/3

Which of the following fractions is equal to 0.8?

a. 4/5 b. 2/3 c. 3/4 d. 5/6

What is the multiplicative inverse of -3/7?

a. -7/3 b. 7/3 c. -3/7 d. 3/7

Simplify the expression: 3/5 × 2/7

a. 6/35 b. 3/14 c. 5/21 d. 2/7

Convert the fraction 5/6 to a decimal.

a. 0.6 b. 0.5 c. 0.83 d. 0.8333

Which of the following fractions is the smallest?

a. 3/4 b. 5/6 c. 2/3 d. 7/8

Find the value of x in the equation: 2/3 = 8/x

a. 12 b. 10 c. 24 d. 16

Simplify the expression: 1/5 ÷ 2/3

a. 3/10 b. 2/15 c. 5/6 d. 3/4

What is the sum of 1/2 and -1/3?

a. 5/6 b. -1/6 c. 1/6 d. -5/6

Which of the following fractions is equivalent to 5/8?

a. 10/16 b. 3/4 c. 15/20 d. 25/32

Simplify the expression: 2/3 + 1/4 - 1/6

a. 5/12 b. 7/12 c. 1/2 d. 9/18

Find the value of x in the equation: 3/4x = 5/8

a. 2/3 b. 5/6 c. 1/2 d. 3/8

What is the decimal representation of the fraction 2/5?

a. 0.2 b. 0.4 c. 0.3 d. 0.5

What is the sum of 3/4 and -2/5?

a. 7/20 b. 1/20 c. 1/10 d. 8/20

Simplify the expression: 4/9 × 6/8

a. 2/3 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 4/6

Convert the fraction 7/10 to a percentage.

a. 70% b. 75% c. 55% d. 7%

Which of the following fractions is the largest when expressed as a decimal?

a. 5/9 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 2/5

Simplify the expression: 5/6 ÷ 1/2

a. 5/3 b. 10/3 c. 3/5 d. 2/3

What is the smallest rational number?

a. 0 b. 1 c. -1 d. -√2

Find the value of x in the equation: 4/7 = x/21

a. 12 b. 16 c. 18 d. 24

Simplify the expression: 3/4 - 1/3 + 2/5

a. 19/20 b. 2/5 c. 7/12 d. 20/19

Convert the percentage 25% to a fraction.

a. 1/5 b. 1/4 c. 1/10 d. 2/5

Simplify the expression: 8/9 × 9/10

a. 4/5 b. 3/4 c. 2/3 d. 1/9

What is the sum of -1/2 and -1/3?

a. -3/5 b. -5/6 c. -1/6 d. -1/3

Convert the fraction 3/10 to a decimal.

a. 0.3 b. 0.3 c. 0.33 d. 0.333

Which of the following fractions is equivalent to 3/6?

a. 2/3 b. 6/9 c. 4/7 d. 1/2

Simplify the expression: (2/3) ÷ (4/5)

a. 5/6 b. 3/10 c. 3/4 d. 15/8

Find the value of x in the equation: 2/x = 8/15

a. 30 b. 7 c. 15 d. 10

What is the decimal representation of the fraction 7/8?

a. 0.875 b. 0.7 c. 0.667 d. 0.87

Simplify the expression: 3/4 + 2/3 × 1/2

a. 11/24 b. 4/5 c. 7/12 d. 5/6

Convert the fraction 4/9 to a percentage.

a. 44.4% b. 44% c. 36.4% d. 40%

Which of the following fractions is the smallest when expressed as a decimal?

a. 3/8 b. 4/7 c. 5/6 d. 7/9

Simplify the expression: 5/6 - 1/3 + 1/2

a. 5/12 b. 7/12 c. 1/2 d. 9/18

Find the value of x in the equation: 5/x = 10/25

a. 12 b. 16 c. 18 d. 20

What is the sum of 3/4 and 1/10?

a. 23/40 b. 14/40 c. 13/40 d. 34/40

Simplify the expression: 2/3 ÷ 3/4

a. 8/9 b. 4/9 c. 7/8 d. 3/4

Convert the percentage 75% to a fraction.

a. 3/4 b. 1/3 c. 3/5 d. 2

Chapter 10 Practical Geometry

In a parallelogram, opposite sides are equal. State True/False.

a) True b) False c) Not enough information d) None of the above

A quadrilateral with all sides congruent is called a:

a) Rectangle b) Rhombus c) Square d) Trapezoid

In a right-angled triangle, the side opposite the right angle is called the:

a) Hypotenuse b) Base c) Perpendicular d) None of the above

Two lines that never intersect are called:

a) Parallel lines b) Perpendicular lines c) Intersecting lines d) Skew lines

The sum of the interior angles of a triangle is:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

A line segment that connects two non-consecutive vertices of a polygon is called a:

a) Diagonal b) Perimeter c) Height d) Median

If two angles of a triangle are 30 degrees and 60 degrees, what is the measure of the third angle?

a) 30 degrees b) 60 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 120 degrees

In a regular pentagon, each interior angle measures:

a) 108 degrees b) 120 degrees c) 135 degrees d) 144 degrees

If two angles are congruent, their measures are:

a) Equal b) Less than 90 degrees c) Greater than 90 degrees d) None of the above

The sum of all angles in a hexagon is:

a) 360 degrees b) 540 degrees c) 720 degrees d) 900 degrees

A closed figure with three or more sides is called a:

a) Quadrilateral b) Polygon c) Octagon d) Circle

The area of a rectangle is obtained by multiplying:

a) Length and width b) Base and height c) Radius and height d) Diagonal and circumference

If two triangles have the same base and height, their areas are:

a) Equal b) Inconclusive c) Double d) Half

The longest side of a right-angled triangle is called the:

a) Height b) Hypotenuse c) Base d) Perpendicular

The sum of interior angles of an octagon is:

a) 270 degrees b) 360 degrees c) 540 degrees d) 720 degrees

A rectangle with four congruent sides is called a:

a) Square b) Parallelogram c) Rhombus d) Trapezoid

What is the sum of the angles of a pentagon?

a) 180 degrees b) 360 degrees c) 540 degrees d) 720 degrees

In a trapezoid, the parallel sides are called:

a) Bases b) Heights c) Medians d) Diagonals

Two angles whose sum is 180 degrees are called:

a) Complementary angles b) Supplementary angles c) Congruent angles d) Vertically opposite angles

A polygon with seven sides is called a:

a) Pentagon b) Hexagon c) Heptagon d) Octagon

In a rhombus, all angles are:

a) Right angles b) Acute angles c) Obtuse angles d) Congruent angles

The length of the hypotenuse in a right-angled triangle can be found using:

a) Pythagoras' theorem b) Sine rule c) Cosine rule d) None of the above

The opposite sides of a parallelogram are:

a) Congruent b) Equal c) Parallel d) None of the above

A triangle with three sides of equal length is called an:

a) Acute triangle b) Right-angled triangle c) Equilateral triangle d) Isosceles triangle

A figure with five sides is called a:

a) Pentagon b) Hexagon c) Heptagon d) Octagon

In a trapezoid, the non-parallel sides are called:

a) Bases b) Heights c) Medians d) Legs

The longest side of a triangle is always opposite to the:

a) Smallest angle b) Largest angle c) Right angle d) None of the above

A line segment that connects two midpoints of a triangle is called a:

a) Median b) Perpendicular bisector c) Diagonal d) Altitude

A shape with four equal sides and four right angles is called a:

a) Square b) Rectangle c) Parallelogram d) Rhombus

A triangle with one angle greater than 90 degrees is called:

a) Acute triangle b) Obtuse triangle c) Right-angled triangle d) Isosceles triangle

The area of a circle is given by:

a) πr² b) 2πr c) 2πrh d) None of the above

In a regular octagon, each angle measures:

a) 45 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 135 degrees d) 160 degrees

A triangle with three unequal sides is called a:

a) Scalene triangle b) Equilateral triangle c) Isosceles triangle d) Acute triangle

The perimeter of a rectangle is given by:

a) 2(length + width) b) length × width c) length + width d) None of the above

In a parallelogram, the diagonals:

a) Bisect each other b) Are parallel c) Are equal in length d) All of the above

A polygon with eight sides is called a:

a) Pentagon b) Hexagon c) Heptagon d) Octagon

The sum of angles in a quadrilateral is:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

A triangle with two congruent sides is called an:

a) Acute triangle b) Right-angled triangle c) Equilateral triangle d) Isosceles triangle

The perimeter of a square is given by:

a) 4 × side length b) 2 × side length c) side length × width d) None of the above

Two lines that intersect at a right angle are called:

a) Parallel lines b) Perpendicular lines c) Skew lines d) Intersecting lines

The area of a triangle is given by:

a) ½ × base × height b) length × width c) πr² d) None of the above

In a rhombus, the diagonals:

a) Are equal b) Are perpendicular c) Bisect each other d) All of the above

A triangle with three angles greater than 90 degrees is called a:

a) Acute triangle b) Obtuse triangle c) Right-angled triangle d) Isosceles triangle

The sum of angles in a hexagon is:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 360 degrees d) 720 degrees

In a trapezoid, the sum of the lengths of the two bases is:

a) Equal to the height b) Equal to the length of the non-parallel sides c) Inconclusive d) None of the above

A polygon with nine sides is called a:

a) Pentagon b) Hexagon c) Heptagon d) Nonagon

The area of a circle with radius 5 cm is:

a) 25π cm² b) 100π cm² c) 50π cm² d) None of the above

In a regular hexagon, each interior angle measures:

a) 90 degrees b) 120 degrees c) 135 degrees d) 160 degrees

A triangle with three congruent sides is called an: a) Acute triangle b) Right-angled triangle c) Equilateral triangle d) Scalene triangle

The perimeter of a triangle is given by:

a) Sum of the lengths of all sides b) 2 × base + height c) 3 × side length d) None of the above

Chapter 11 Perimeter and Area

The perimeter of a rectangle is 30 cm and its length is 8 cm. What is its width?

a) 1 cm b) 7 cm c) 6 cm d) 2 cm

Find the area of a rectangle with length 5 cm and width 3 cm.

a) 10 cm² b) 15 cm² c) 30 cm² d) 8 cm²

A square has a perimeter of 20 cm. What is the length of each side?

a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 7 cm d) 4 cm

Find the area of a circle with a radius of 6 cm.

a) 36π cm² b) 12π cm² c) 18π cm² d) 72π cm²

The length of the base of a triangle is 10 cm and its height is 8 cm. What is its area?

a) 80 cm² b) 18 cm² c) 40 cm² d) 64 cm²

Find the perimeter of a regular hexagon with a side length of 4 cm.

a) 24 cm b) 8 cm c) 16 cm d) 32 cm

The length of one side of a square is 7 cm. What is its area?

a) 49 cm² b) 14 cm² c) 28 cm² d) 21 cm²

Find the perimeter of a triangle with sides measuring 8 cm, 15 cm, and 17 cm.

a) 40 cm b) 30 cm c) 50 cm d) 32 cm

The length and width of a rectangle are in the ratio 3:5. If the length is 18 cm, what is the width?

a) 10 cm b) 15 cm c) 12 cm d) 30 cm

Find the area of a trapezium with parallel sides measuring 5 cm and 12 cm, and a height of 8 cm.

a) 85 cm² b) 68 cm² c) 40 cm² d) 96 cm²

The circumference of a circle is 44 cm. What is its radius?

a) 22 cm b) 7 cm c) 14 cm d) 11 cm

Find the area of a parallelogram with base 10 cm and height 6 cm.

a) 16 cm² b) 30 cm² c) 60 cm² d) 36 cm²

The perimeter of a square is 32 cm. What is the length of each side?

a) 4 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 16 cm

Find the area of a triangle with base 12 cm and height 9 cm.

a) 54 cm² b) 27 cm² c) 108 cm² d) 18 cm²

A rectangle has a length of 12 cm and width of 5 cm. What is its perimeter?

a) 34 cm b) 52 cm c) 24 cm d) 60 cm

Find the area of a circle with a diameter of 10 cm.

a) 78.5 cm² b) 31.4 cm² c) 50 cm² d) 100 cm²

The perimeter of a triangle is 24 cm. If two sides measure 6 cm and 9 cm, what is the length of the thir

d side? a) 13 cm b) 3 cm c) 18 cm d) 28 cm

The length and width of a rectangle are in the ratio 4:7. If the width is 21 cm, what is the length?

a) 12 cm b) 14 cm c) 36 cm d) 48 cm

Find the area of a trapezium with parallel sides measuring 6 cm and 10 cm, and a height of 7 cm.

a) 49 cm² b) 56 cm² c) 35 cm² d) 42 cm²

A square has an area of 64 cm². What is the length of each side?

a) 4 cm b) 8 cm c) 16 cm d) 32 cm

Find the perimeter of a regular octagon with a side length of 5 cm.

a) 40 cm b) 20 cm c) 50 cm d) 80 cm

The length of one side of a square is 10 cm. What is its perimeter?

a) 20 cm b) 40 cm c) 30 cm d) 100 cm

The circumference of a circle is 66 cm. What is its diameter?

a) 33 cm b) 22 cm c) 44 cm d) 11 cm

Find the area of a triangle with base 14 cm and height 6 cm.

a) 42 cm² b) 28 cm² c) 84 cm² d) 12 cm²

The perimeter of a rectangle is 48 cm and its length is 16 cm. What is its width?

a) 8 cm b) 12 cm c) 10 cm d) 6 cm

Find the area of a parallelogram with base 8 cm and height 9 cm.

a) 72 cm² b) 72.4 cm² c) 36 cm² d) 18 cm²

A rectangle has a perimeter of 26 cm. If its length is 8 cm, what is its width?

a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 3 cm d) 6 cm

The length and width of a rectangle are in the ratio 2:5. If the width is 10 cm, what is the length?

a) 4 cm b) 8 cm c) 25 cm d) 20 cm

Find the area of a trapezium with parallel sides measuring 9 cm and 14 cm, and a height of 6 cm.

a) 69 cm² b) 39 cm² c) 83 cm² d) 54 cm²

A square has an area of 49 cm². What is the length of each side?

a) 7 cm b) 14 cm c) 23 cm d) 36 cm

Find the perimeter of a regular pentagon with a side length of 7 cm.

a) 21 cm b) 35 cm c) 28 cm d) 14 cm

The area of a rectangle is 72 cm² and its length is 9 cm. What is its width?

a) 8 cm b) 6 cm c) 12 cm d) 16 cm

The circumference of a circle is 88 cm. What is its radius?

a) 14 cm b) 11 cm c) 22 cm d) 44 cm

Find the area of a triangle with base 18 cm and height 8 cm.

a) 72 cm² b) 9 cm² c) 36 cm² d) 90 cm²

A rectangle has a length of 15 cm and width of 6 cm. What is its perimeter?

a) 42 cm b) 36 cm c) 30 cm d) 26 cm

Find the area of a circle with a diameter of 14 cm.

a) 154 cm² b) 308 cm² c) 44 cm² d) 616 cm²

The perimeter of a triangle is 36 cm. If two sides measure 8 cm and 10 cm, what is the length of the th

ird side? a) 18 cm b) 2 cm c) 20 cm d) 16 cm

The length and width of a rectangle are in the ratio 3:4. If the width is 12 cm, what is the length?

a) 9 cm b) 18 cm c) 16 cm d) 24 cm

Find the area of a trapezium with parallel sides measuring 8 cm and 13 cm, and a height of 5 cm.

a) 60.5 cm² b) 47.5 cm² c) 88 cm² d) 104.5 cm²

A square has an area of 25 cm². What is the length of each side?

a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 15 cm d) 20 cm

Chapter 12 Algebraic Expressions

Which of the following is an algebraic expression?

a) 3 − 7 b) 5 × 2 c) 2x + 3 d) 9 ÷ 3

Simplify the expression: 4p + 2q − p + 5q − 3p

a) 2p − 3q b) 4p − q c) 2p − 3 d) p + q

Expand the expression: 3(2x + 5)

a) 2x + 5 b) 6x + 15 c) 6x + 10 d) 5x + 6

Evaluate the expression: 4a + 2b, when a = 3 and b = 5.

a) 22 b) 26 c) 24 d) 18

Simplify the expression: 3x − (4 − x)

a) 2x + 4 b) 3x + 4 c) 2x − 4 d) −x + 4

Which of the following is an algebraic equation?

a) 5 = 2x + 3 b) 7 × 2 = 14 c) 8 ÷ 4 = 2 d) 5 + 3 = 7

Expand and simplify the expression: 2(x + 3) − 3(x + 2)

a) −5x − 6 b) 5x + 6 c) 5 − 3x d) 5x − 6

Evaluate the expression: 3a + 2b, when a = 4 and b = 7.

a) 29 b) 23 c) 26 d) 33

Simplify the expression: 2x + 3y − (4y − x)

a) 3x − y b) 3x + y c) x − 7y d) 3x − 7y

Which of the following is an algebraic term?

a) 5 + 3 b) 2xy c) 8 ÷ 4 d) x − y

Expand and simplify the expression: 4(3x + 5) + 2(2x − 3)

a) 14x + 26 b) 16x − 22 c) 10 + 7x d) 12x + 10

Evaluate the expression: 2a − b, when a = 6 and b = 3.

a) 6 b) 9 c) 8 d) 12

Simplify the expression: 5y − 2(y + 3)

a) 3y − 6 b) 3y − 12 c) 7y − 6 d) 7y − 12

Which of the following is an algebraic equation?

a) 9 × 2 = 14 b) 2x − 5 = 10 c) 6 ÷ 3 = 2 d) 7 + 3 = 10

Expand and simplify the expression: 3x(5 − 2x)

a) 15x − 2x² b) 2x − 5 c) 15x² − 6x d) 3x² − 10x

Evaluate the expression: 3a + 4b, when a = 5 and b = 2.

a) 23 b) 26 c) 22 d) 25

Simplify the expression: 2x − (3x + 5)

a) −1x − 5 b) −x + 5 c) −x − 5 d) x − 5

Which of the following is an algebraic term?

a) 2 × 3 b) 4xy c) 12 ÷ 4 d) x + y

Expand and simplify the expression: 2(x − 3) + 4(2x + 1)

a) 10x + 2 b) 2x − 10 c) 8x + 8 d) 8x + 2

Evaluate the expression: 4a − 3b, when a = 7 and b = 2.

a) 17 b) 20 c) 19 d) 21

Simplify the expression: 3y − (2y − 4)

a) 2y + 4 b) 2y − 1 c) y − 4 d) −y + 4

Which of the following is an algebraic equation?

a) 6 × 2 = 12 b) 3x + 2 = 8 c) 6 ÷ 3 = 2 d) 4 + 3 = 7

Expand and simplify the expression: 5(4x + 3) − 2(3x − 2)

a) 2x + 23 b) 20x − 3 c) 20x + 13 d) 26x − 3

Evaluate the expression: 5a + 3b, when a = 2 and b = 4.

a) 23 b) 30 c) 22 d) 19

Simplify the expression: 4x − (3 − 2x)

a) 6x + 3 b) 5x + 7 c) 6x + 5 d) −6x + 5

Which of the following is an algebraic term?

a) 5 × 7 b) 3xy c) 9 ÷ 3 d) x − 2y

Expand and simplify the expression: 2(x + 4) − 3(x + 1)

a) −7x + 8 b) −x − 2 c) −7x − 2 d) x + 2

Evaluate the expression: 2a + 5b, when a = 3 and b = 6.

a) 34 b) 28 c) 20 d) 23

Simplify the expression: 3x + 2y − (5y − x)

a) 4x − 3y b) 6x + 3y c) 4x + 7y d) 6x − 7y

Which of the following is an algebraic equation?

a) 10 × 2 = 18 b) 5x − 2 = 7 c) 4 ÷ 2 = 3 d) 4 + 2 = 6

Expand and simplify the expression: 3(2x + 1) − 2(3x − 2)

a) x + 1 b) 6x − 2 c) 6x + 7 d) 5x + 8

Evaluate the expression: 3a − 4b, when a = 8 and b = 3.

a) 16 b) 18 c) 14 d) 20

Simplify the expression: 4x − (5 − 3x)

a) 7x + 5 b) x + 2 c) 7x + 2 d) 8x + 2

Which of the following is an algebraic term?

a) 6 + 3 b) 7xy c) 12 ÷ 6 d) x ÷ y

Expand and simplify the expression: 2(x − 2) + 3(3x + 1)

a) 2x − 7 b) 14x + 5 c) 11x + 4 d) 2x + 5

Chapter 13 Exponents and Powers

What is the value of (2^3)^4?

a) 6 b) 64 c) 4096 d) 128

Simplify 3^5 ÷ 3^2.

a) 9 b) 30 c) 18 d) 27

Evaluate (-3)^4.

a) 81 b) 12 c) -81 d) 3

Simplify 10^2 × 10^(-1).

a) 100 b) 10 c) 1000 d) 1

Which of the following is equivalent to 2^0?

a) 1 b) 0 c) 2 d) -1

What is the value of (5^2)^3?

a) 25 b) 625 c) 125 d) 1250

Simplify 6^(-3).

a) 1/6 b) 216 c) 1/216 d) 36

Evaluate (-2)^4.

a) -8 b) 8 c) -16 d) 16

What is the value of (9^(-2))^(-2)?

a) 81 b) 243 c) 1/243 d) 6561

Simplify 7^4 × 7^(-2).

a) 2401 b) 49 c) 15708 d) 98

Evaluate (-4)^3.

a) -64 b) 64 c) -12 d) 144

What is the value of (8^3)^(-1)?

a) 1/64 b) 8 c) 64 d) 512

Simplify 5^2 ÷ 5^5.

a) 1/25 b) 25 c) 1/125 d) 125

Evaluate 0.5^(-3).

a) 0.125 b) -0.375 c) 8 d) 0.75

What is the value of (2^3)^(-2)?

a) 8 b) 0.125 c) 2 d) 16

Simplify 4^2 × 4^(-4).

a) 1/16 b) 64 c) 256 d) 16

Evaluate 10^(-2).

a) 1/10 b) 100 c) 0.01 d) 1000

What is the value of (-5)^2?

a) -25 b) 25 c) -10 d) 10

Simplify 3^(-4).

a) 12 b) 1/81 c) 81 d) -81

Evaluate (1/2)^3. a) 2 b) 1/8 c) 4 d) 1/2

What is the value of (-7)^3?

a) -343 b) 49 c) -12 d) 343

Simplify (-3)^2 + (-3)^3.

a) -18 b) -24 c) -36 d) 36

Evaluate 1.5^(-2).

a) 0.4444 b) -0.25 c) 2.25 d) 0.625

What is the value of (6^(-1))^(-2)?

a) 36 b) 1/36 c) 6 d) -36

Simplify (-4)^4 ÷ (-4)^(-2).

a) -256 b) -1024 c) 16 d) -16

Evaluate 0.2^(-3).

a) -125 b) 125 c) 2.5 d) 12

What is the value of (1/3)^(-2)?

a) 9 b) 1/9 c) 3 d) -9

Simplify (-2)^2 × (-2)^(-3).

a) 1/8 b) -8 c) 16 d) -16

Evaluate (0.4)^4.

a) 0.256 b) 0.16 c) 0.04 d) -0.04

What is the value of (-10)^3?

a) -100 b) -1000 c) -10000 d) 1000

Simplify (-1)^2 ÷ (-1)^(-3).

a) -1 b) 1 c) -3 d) 3

Evaluate 1.25^(-2).

a) 0.64 b) 0.8 c) 2.56 d) 0.32

What is the value of (2^(-3))^(-2)?

a) 1/8 b) 8 c) 16 d) 1/16

Simplify 9^(-1).

a) 3 b) 81 c) -9 d) 1/9

Evaluate (-0.5)^4.

a) -0.0625 b) 0.125 c) -0.25 d) 0.25

What is the value of (4^(-2))^(-1)?

a) 16 b) 1/16 c) 1/4 d) -16

Simplify (-6)^2 × (-6)^(-3).

a) -1/36 b) 36 c) 216 d) -216

Evaluate (0.8)^(-3).

a) 0.512 b) 1.25 c) -0.125 d) 1/8

What is the value of (-9)^2?

a) -81 b) 9 c) -18 d) 81

Simplify (-2)^3 ÷ (-2)^(-2).

a) -2 b) -8 c) 8 d) 2

Evaluate (-0.1)^(-2).

a) 10 b) -100 c) 100 d) -10

What is the value of (3^(-1))^(-3)?

a) 1/27 b) -27 c) 1/9 d) 27

Simplify (-5)^(-1).

a) -5 b) 1/5 c) 25 d) -0.2

Evaluate (0.6)^3.

a) 0.36 b) 0.4 c) 0.216 d) -0.216

What is the value of (-7)^3 + (-7)^2?

a) -686 b) -168 c) 2401 d) -2415

Simplify (2^(-2))^(-3).

a) 64 b) 1/64 c) 1/8 d) -8

Evaluate 0.25^(-2).

a) -4 b) 16 c) 0.0625 d) 0.25

What is the value of (-0.3)^2?

a) -0.09 b) 0.09 c) 0.3 d) -0.3

Simplify (-1)^2 × (-1)^(-4).

a) -1 b) 0 c) -2 d) 1

Evaluate (1/7)^(-3).

a) -343 b) 1/343 c) 49 d) -49

Chapter 14 Symmetry

Which of the following types of symmetry does the letter 'A' possess?

a) Rotational symmetry b) Line symmetry c) No symmetry d) Reflective symmetry

How many lines of symmetry does a rectangle have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

An object is said to have rotational symmetry when it looks the same after rotating it by _____ degrees.

a) 45 b) 90 c) 180 d) 360

How many lines of symmetry does a circle have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) Infinite

Which of the following shapes does not have any lines of symmetry? a) Square b) Triangle c) Rectangle d) Pentagon

Which of the following shapes has rotational symmetry of order 2?

a) Rectangle b) Square c) Hexagon d) Pentagon

How many lines of symmetry does an equilateral triangle have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Which of the following letters has two lines of symmetry?

a) M b) E c) H d) A

Which of the following statements is true regarding symmetry?

a) Only shapes have symmetry. b) Only geometrical figures have symmetry. c) Both shapes and geometrical figures can have symmetry. d) Symmetry does not exist in mathematics.

How many lines of symmetry does the letter 'Y' have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Which of the following figures has the least number of lines of symmetry?

a) Square b) Rectangle c) Isosceles triangle d) Circle

The line of symmetry in a parallelogram bisects it into two congruent _______.

a) Lines b) Angles c) Sides d) Diagonals

Which of the following figures has rotational symmetry of order 1?

a) Pentagon b) Circle c) Square d) Hexagon

A line of symmetry in a figure divides it into two _______ parts.

a) Unique b) Identical c) Congruent d) Random

How many lines of symmetry does an isosceles triangle have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

The half-rotational symmetry of an object is called _______ symmetry.

a) Reflective b) Line c) Rotational d) Geometrical

Which of the following shapes has at least one line of symmetry?

a) Irregular hexagon b) Rhombus c) Scalene triangle d) Trapezoid

How many lines of symmetry does a regular pentagon have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5

Objects that possess symmetry are often considered to be aesthetically _______.

a) Unpleasing b) Random c) Balanced d) Disorganized

Which of the following figures has reflective symmetry but no rotational symmetry?

a) Rectangle b) Circle c) Isosceles triangle d) Hexagon

Which of the following statements is true regarding rotational symmetry?

a) All shapes have rotational symmetry. b) Only regular shapes have rotational symmetry. c) Only irregular shapes have rotational symmetry. d) Rotational symmetry is not applicable to shapes.

How many lines of symmetry does a regular hexagon have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 6

In a figure with rotational symmetry, the angle of rotation is always a multiple of _______ degrees.

a) 45 b) 60 c) 90 d) 120

Which of the following figures has both reflective symmetry and rotational symmetry?

a) Square b) Pentagon c) Trapezoid d) Circle

An isosceles triangle can have _______ lines of symmetry.

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

How many lines of symmetry does a regular octagon have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 8

Which of the following shapes has no lines of symmetry?

a) Rectangle b) Rhombus c) Scalene triangle d) Parallelogram

A figure has line symmetry if it can be divided into two _______ parts.

a) Equal b) Identical c) Congruent d) Random

How many lines of symmetry does a kite have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

The line of symmetry in an isosceles triangle is also the _______.

a) Base b) Altitude c) Median d) Perpendicular bisector

Which of the following figures has both reflective symmetry and rotational symmetry of order 2?

a) Rectangle b) Square c) Hexagon d) Pentagon

The rotational symmetry of an object is associated with its _______.

a) Area b) Perimeter c) Shape d) Volume

How many lines of symmetry does an irregular hexagon have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 6

Which of the following figures has no lines of symmetry but rotational symmetry?

a) Rectangle b) Circle c) Parallelogram d) Rhombus

An object has rotational symmetry of order 4. How many degrees will it rotate to reach its original posit

ion? a) 45 b) 90 c) 180 d) 360

How many lines of symmetry does a regular heptagon have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 7

Which letter of the alphabet has rotational symmetry of order 1?

a) B b) C c) D d) E

A parallelogram has _______ lines of symmetry.

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 4

How many lines of symmetry does an irregular pentagon have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 5

Which of the following figures has the maximum number of lines of symmetry?

a) Square b) Rectangle c) Regular hexagon d) Regular octagon

A regular polygon with ‘n’ sides has _______ lines of symmetry.

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) n

Which of the following figures has both reflective symmetry and rotational symmetry of order 3?

a) Rectangle b) Square c) Hexagon d) Pentagon

A figure has rotational symmetry of order 0 if it does not change after a _______.

a) Rotate b) Reflect c) Translate d) Dilate

How many lines of symmetry does an irregular octagon have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 8

A regular hexagon can have _______ lines of symmetry.

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 6

Which of the following figures has reflective symmetry but no rotational symmetry?

a) Rectangle b) Circle c) Trapezoid d) Parallelogram

A figure has rotational symmetry of order 3. How many times will it have to rotate to reach its original p

osition? a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) Infinite

How many lines of symmetry does an irregular heptagon have

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 7

A regular polygon with an even number of sides has _______ lines of symmetry

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) n/2

Which of the following figures has no lines of symmetry but rotational symmetry of order 2

a) Rectangle b) Circle c) Parallelogram d) Rhombus

Chapter 15 Visualizing Solid Shapes

Which of the following shapes does not have any parallel lines?

a) Cube b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Cuboid

What is the sum of the number of vertices and edges of a tetrahedron?

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

Which of the following is a polyhedron?

a) Sphere b) Pyramid c) Hemisphere d) Cylinder

How many edges does a cube have?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

How many faces does a triangular pyramid have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

Which of the following can best represent a square pyramid?

a) Cylinder b) Sphere c) Cone d) Cuboid

A cuboid has how many right angles?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

How many vertices does a triangular prism have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the shape of a cricket ball?

a) Sphere b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Hemisphere

How many curved surfaces does a cone have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

A triangular pyramid has how many faces?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the total number of edges in a rectangular prism?

a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

How many faces are there in a pentagonal pyramid?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

Which of the following shapes has zero vertices?

a) Cone b) Cylinder c) Sphere d) Cuboid

How many equal faces does a cube have?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

Which of the following is not a polyhedron?

a) Pyramid b) Prism c) Sphere d) Cuboid

What is the sum of the number of edges and vertices of a rectangular pyramid?

a) 6 b) 7 c) 8 d) 9

Which of the following shapes has only one curved surface?

a) Cylinder b) Cone c) Prism d) Sphere

How many triangular faces does a pyramid have?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

Which of the following shapes has all sides equal?

a) Hemisphere b) Cuboid c) Cone d) Cube

What is the shape of a table tennis ball?

a) Cylinder b) Sphere c) Pyramid d) Cuboid

How many vertices does a cube have?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

Which of the following is not a 3D shape?

a) Triangle b) Square c) Circle d) Rectangle

What is the sum of the number of edges and faces of a triangular prism?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

How many curved surfaces does a cylinder have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

A pyramid with a hexagonal base has how many faces?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

What is the shape of a pizza base?

a) Cuboid b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Sphere

How many equal edges does a rectangular prism have?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

Which of the following shapes has all right angles?

a) Sphere b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Cuboid

How many vertices does a triangular pyramid have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the total number of faces in a rectangular prism?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

Which of the following shapes has only one base?

a) Pyramid b) Prism c) Sphere d) Cuboid

How many parallel lines does a rectangular prism have?

a) 0 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

What is the shape of a basketball?

a) Sphere b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Hemisphere

How many edges does a triangular pyramid have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

Which of the following shapes has all sides curved?

a) Cube b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Cuboid

How many triangular faces does a triangular prism have?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

What is the sum of the number of edges and vertices of a triangular pyramid?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

Which of the following shapes has only one flat surface?

a) Cylinder b) Cone c) Prism d) Sphere

How many faces are there in a hexagonal pyramid?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

A pyramid with a triangular base has how many faces?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the shape of a dice?

a) Cuboid b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Sphere

How many vertices does a rectangular prism have?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

Which of the following is not a 3D shape?

a) Rectangle b) Square c) Circle d) Triangle

What is the sum of the number of edges and faces of a hexagonal prism?

a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11

How many curved surfaces does a cone have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

A prism with a square base has how many faces?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 8

What is the shape of a cricket stumps?

a) Cuboid b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Hemisphere

How many equal edges does a cube have?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 12

Which of the following shapes has only one vertex?

a) Pyramid b) Prism c) Sphere d) Cuboid