Class 8 Science and Math's MCQ's Free

Chapter 1 Crop Production and Management

Which of the following is an example of a rabi crop?

a) Wheat b) Rice c) Maize d) Sugarcane Answer: a) Wheat

Which of the following is a kharif crop?

a) Mustard b) Jute c) Barley d) Pea Answer: b) Jute

Which agricultural practice involves turning the soil upside down?

a) Sowing b) Tilling c) Harvesting d) Irrigation Answer: b) Tilling

Which type of soil is best suited for growing crops?

a) Sandy soil b) Clayey soil c) Loamy soil d) Rocky soil Answer: c) Loamy soil

What should be the ideal time for sowing a rabi crop?

a) December-January b) June-July c) September-October d) April-May Answer: a) December-January

Which greenhouse gas is released during paddy cultivation?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Methane Answer: d) Methane

To protect crops from pests, we can use __________.

a) Fungicides b) Pesticides c) Herbicides d) Insecticides Answer: d) Insecticides

Which of the following is not a natural source of water for irrigation?

a) River b) Pond c) Well d) Canal Answer: d) Canal

Which agricultural practice helps in maintaining soil fertility?

a) Crop rotation b) Overgrazing c) Monoculture d) Excessive use of fertilizers Answer: a) Crop rotation

Which method is used for separating lighter and heavier components of a mixture?

a) Filtration b) Sedimentation c) Winnowing d) Threshing Answer: c) Winnowing

The process of drying harvested crops in the sun is called __________.

a) Threshing b) Harvesting c) Storage d) Curing Answer: d) Curing

Which instrument is used for measuring the rainfall?

a) Barometer b) Hydrometer c) Rain gauge d) Thermometer Answer: c) Rain gauge

Which of the following is a leguminous crop?

a) Wheat b) Rice c) Gram d) Sugarcane Answer: c) Gram

Which method is used for removing husk from grains?

a) Threshing b) Sowing c) Tilling d) Harvesting Answer: a) Threshing

Which of the following nutrients is not required in large amounts by plants?

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Potassium d) Calcium Answer: d) Calcium

Which method is used for ploughing the field with the help of animals?

a) Manual b) Mechanical c) Traditional d) Animal Answer: d) Animal

The process of separating grains from the chaff is called __________.

a) Harvesting b) Threshing c) Winnowing d) Sowing Answer: b) Threshing

Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?

a) Cotton b) Rice c) Maize d) Wheat Answer: d) Wheat

Which type of soil can retain water for a longer time?

a) Sandy soil b) Clayey soil c) Loamy soil d) None of the above Answer: b) Clayey soil

What is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther to the stigma called?

a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Transpiration Answer: a) Pollination

What is the ideal period required for the maturation of wheat crop?

a) 100-120 days b) 50-60 days c) 200-220 days d) 80-90 days Answer: a) 100-120 days

Which of the following is a type of manure?

a) Compost b) Fungicide c) Insecticide d) Herbicide Answer: a) Compost

Which is the most essential natural resource for crop production?

a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Sunlight Answer: b) Soil

What is the process of soaking seeds in water before sowing called?

a) Drying b) Germination c) Soaking d) Sowing Answer: c) Soaking

What is the term used for the conversion of excessive water to gaseous form from the plant’s surface?

a) Irrigation b) Transpiration c) Evaporation d) Condensation Answer: b) Transpiration

Which of the following is a rabi crop?

a) Bajra b) Rice c) Soybean d) Mustard Answer: d) Mustard

Crop rotation helps in maintaining the __________ of the soil.

a) Fertility b) Porosity c) Acidity d) Alkalinity Answer: a) Fertility

Which of the following is a micronutrient required by plants in very small amounts?

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Potassium d) Zinc Answer: d) Zinc

Which of the following is a storage organ in plants?

a) Leaves b) Stem c) Root d) Flower Answer: c) Root

Which method of irrigation saves water?

a) Drip irrigation b) Sprinkler irrigation c) Furrow irrigation d) Flooding irrigation Answer: a) Drip irrigation

Which of the following is not a kharif crop?

a) Sugarcane b) Cotton c) Wheat d) Paddy Answer: c) Wheat

In which season are rabi crops sown?

a) Winter b) Summer c) Monsoon d) Spring Answer: a) Winter

Which crop is known as the ’Golden Fiber’?

a) Jute b) Wheat c) Rice d) Mustard Answer: a) Jute

What is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther to the stigma called?

a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Transpiration Answer: a) Pollination

Which of the following methods is used for controlling weeds?

a) Use of fertilizers b) Use of insecticides c) Use of herbicides d) Use of fungicides Answer: c) Use of herbicides

Which agricultural practice helps in loosening the soil and killing weeds?

a) Sowing b) Irrigation c) Harvesting d) Ploughing Answer: d) Ploughing

What is the term used for removing undesirable plants from a cultivated field?

a) Sowing b) Harvesting c) Weeding d) Threshing Answer: c) Weeding

What is the process of separating the grains from the harvested crop called?

a) Threshing b) Harvesting c) Winnowing d) Sowing Answer: a) Threshing

Which of the following is a cereal crop?

a) Potato b) Tomato c) Wheat d) Cauliflower Answer: c) Wheat

What is the main ingredient of organic manure?

a) Fertilizers b) Chemicals c) Decomposed plant and animal matter d) Insects Answer: c) Decomposed plant and animal matter

Which of the following is a biodegradable waste product?

a) Plastic b) Glass c) Paper d) Metal Answer: c) Paper

What is the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther to the stigma called?

a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Transpiration Answer: a) Pollination

What is the process of removing excess water from the field called?

a) Ploughing b) Weeding c) Harvesting d) Drainage Answer: d) Drainage

Which of the following tools is used for removing weeds from the field?

a) Harrow b) Plough c) Rake d) Wheelbarrow Answer: a) Harrow

What is the process of Paddy cultivation called?

a) Ploughing b) Transplantation c) Manuring d) Harvesting Answer: b) Transplantation

Which type of soil drains water most easily?

a) Sandy soil b) Clayey soil c) Loamy soil d) Rocky soil Answer: a) Sandy soil

Which type of soil retains more water?

a) Sandy soil b) Clayey soil c) Loamy soil d) Rocky soil Answer: b) Clayey soil

Which of the following is not a natural source of water for irrigation?

a) River b) Pond c) Well d) Canal Answer: d) Canal

Which of the following is not a rabi crop?

a) Wheat b) Rice c) Barley d) Mustard Answer: b) Rice

What do you call the process of cutting and gathering mature crops from the field?

a) Sowing b) Transplantation c) Harvesting d) Threshing Answer: c) Harvesting

Chapter 2 Microorganisms: Friend and Foe

Which of the following is an example of a microorganism?

a. Dog b. Ant c. Bacteria d. Rose Answer: c. Bacteria

Bacteria that help in the process of nitrogen fixation are found in the:

a. Air b. Soil c. Water d. Human body Answer: b. Soil

Yeast is an example of a:

a. Bacterium b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: c. Fungus

The process of converting sugar into alcohol is known as:

a. Fermentation b. Photosynthesis c. Respiration d. Transpiration Answer: a. Fermentation

Which microorganism causes the disease malaria?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: b. Virus

Antibiotics are medicines used to treat infections caused by:

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Parasites Answer: a. Bacteria

Which microorganisms are used for the preparation of curd?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

What is the shape of bacteria that are rod-like in appearance?

a. Coccus b. Spirillum c. Bacillus d. Fungus Answer: c. Bacillus

The process of conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form by bacteria is called:

a. Nitrogen fixation b. Nitrification c. Denitrification d. Ammonification Answer: a. Nitrogen fixation

Which microorganism is responsible for causing tooth decay?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Which microorganism is used in the production of bread?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: c. Fungi

Which disease is caused by a protozoan?

a. Typhoid b. Tuberculosis c. Malaria d. Cholera Answer: c. Malaria

The process of converting milk into curd is an example of:

a. Fermentation b. Anaerobic respiration c. Photosynthesis d. Excretion Answer: a. Fermentation

Antibiotics are produced by:

a. Fungi b. Viruses c. Bacteria d. Algae Answer: a. Fungi

Which microorganism causes ringworm infection?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: c. Fungus

The process of conversion of ammonia into nitrates and nitrites by bacteria is called:

a. Nitrogen fixation b. Nitrification c. Denitrification d. Ammonification Answer: b. Nitrification

Which of the following is responsible for the fermentation process in the production of alcohol?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: c. Fungi

Which disease is caused by both bacteria and viruses?

a. Tuberculosis b. Malaria c. Cholera d. Influenza Answer: d. Influenza

The process of decomposition of organic matter by microorganisms is called:

a. Fermentation b. Decomposition c. Anaerobic respiration d. Photosynthesis Answer: b. Decomposition

Which microorganism is responsible for the formation of curd from milk?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Which microorganism causes the disease dengue?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: b. Virus

Antibiotics are effective against:

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Both a and c Answer: a. Bacteria

Which microorganism is responsible for fixing atmospheric nitrogen in leguminous plants?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

The process of conversion of nitrates and nitrites into atmospheric nitrogen by bacteria is called:

a. Nitrogen fixation b. Nitrification c. Denitrification d. Ammonification Answer: c. Denitrification

Which disease is caused by a virus?

a. Tuberculosis b. Malaria c. Cholera d. AIDS Answer: d. AIDS

The process of converting milk into curd is an example of:

a. Fermentation b. Anaerobic respiration c. Photosynthesis d. Excretion Answer: a. Fermentation

Antibiotics are chemicals produced by microorganisms that can:

a. Kill other microorganisms b. Slow down the growth of microorganisms c. Inhibit the reproduction of microorganisms d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above

Which microorganism causes the disease tetanus?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Which microorganism is responsible for the conversion of milk to yogurt?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Which disease is caused by a bacterium?

a. Malaria b. Tuberculosis c. Cholera d. Influenza Answer: b. Tuberculosis 31. The process of converting ammonia into organic matter by bacteria is called: a. Nitrogen fixation b. Nitrification c. Denitrification d. Ammonification Answer: d. Ammonification

Which microorganism is used in the production of antibiotics?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: c. Fungi

Which organism is used to prepare bread and cake?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: c. Fungi

Which microorganism causes the disease flu?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: b. Virus

Which microorganism converts atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form for plants and animals?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Antibiotics are not effective against:

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Both b and c Answer: d. Both b and c

Which microorganism causes the disease tuberculosis?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Which disease is caused by a parasite?

a. Malaria b. Tuberculosis c. Cholera d. Typhoid Answer: a. Malaria

The process of conversion of nitrites and nitrates into atmospheric nitrogen by bacteria is called:

a. Nitrogen fixation b. Nitrification c. Denitrification d. Ammonification Answer: c. Denitrification

Which microorganism causes the disease cholera?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Which microorganism is used in the production of vaccines?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: b. Virus

The process of conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into nitrites and nitrates by bacteria is called:

a. Nitrogen fixation b. Nitrification c. Denitrification d. Ammonification Answer: b. Nitrification

Which microorganism causes the disease typhoid?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungus d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Which microorganism is used in the production of penicillin?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: c. Fungi

Which disease is caused by a fungus?

a. Tuberculosis b. Malaria c. Cholera d. Ringworm Answer: d. Ringworm

The process of conversion of dead plants and animals into peat, coal, and petroleum is an example of :

a. Fermentation b. Decomposition c. Nitrification d. Denitrification Answer: b. Decomposition

Antibiotics were discovered by:

a. Alexander Fleming b. Louis Pasteur c. Robert Koch d. Gregor Mendel Answer: a. Alexander Fleming

Which microorganism is used in the production of vinegar?

a. Bacteria b. Virus c. Fungi d. Algae Answer: a. Bacteria

Which disease is caused by a bacterium that affects the lungs? a. Malaria b. Tuberculosis c. Cholera d. Influenza Answer: b. Tuberculosis

The process by which bacteria convert urea into ammonia is known as:

a. Nitrogen fixation b. Nitrification c. Denitrification d. Ammonification

Chapter 3 Synthetic Fibres and Plastics

Which of the following is a natural fiber?

a) Nylon b) Polyester c) Cotton d) Acrylic Answer: c) Cotton

Which of the following is an example of a synthetic fiber?

a) Jute b) Silk c) Rayon d) Wool Answer: c) Rayon

Which synthetic fiber is also known as artificial silk?

a) Nylon b) Acrylic c) Polyester d) Rayon Answer: d) Rayon

Which of the following is a property of synthetic fibers?

a) Highly breathable b) Absorbs moisture quickly c) Easy to wrinkle d) Shows resistance to pests Answer: d) Shows resistance to pests

Polyester is synthesized from which raw material?

a) Coal b) Petroleum c) Cotton d) Wood pulp Answer: b) Petroleum

Which of the following is NOT a synthetic fiber?

a) Nylon b) Rayon c) Wool d) Polyester Answer: c) Wool

Which synthetic fiber is commonly used for making parachutes and ropes?

a) Nylon b) Rayon c) Acrylic d) Polyester Answer: a) Nylon

Bakelite is an example of which type of plastic?

a) Thermosetting b) Thermoplastic c) Biodegradable d) Synthetic Answer: a) Thermosetting

Which of the following plastics is commonly used for making bottles and food containers?

a) PVC b) PET c) LDPE d) HDPE Answer: b) PET

Which property makes PVC suitable for making water pipes?

a) Transparency b) High flexibility c) Durability d) Resistance to heat Answer: c) Durability

Which of the following is a common use of nylon?

a) Making shirts b) Making carpets c) Making electrical wires d) Making toothbrush bristles Answer: b) Making carpets

Which type of plastic is used to make reusable grocery bags?

a) PVC b) HDPE c) LDPE d) PET Answer: c) LDPE

Which of the following is an example of a thermoplastic?

a) Bakelite b) Polythene c) Melamine d) Polyester Answer: b) Polythene

Polythene is commonly used for making which of the following?

a) Electrical wires b) Food packaging c) Kitchen utensils d) Insulation material Answer: b) Food packaging

Which property of plastics makes them non-biodegradable?

a) High flexibility b) High durability c) Resistance to heat d) Transparency Answer: b) High durability

Which of the following is a natural polymer?

a) Nylon b) PVC c) Bakelite d) Proteins Answer: d) Proteins

Which synthetic fiber is most similar to wool in terms of its properties?

a) Acrylic b) Rayon c) Nylon d) Polyester Answer: a) Acrylic

Which type of plastic is commonly used for making electrical switches?

a) PVC b) PET c) HDPE d) LDPE Answer: a) PVC

Which of the following is an example of a biodegradable plastic?

a) PVC b) PET c) HDPE d) PHA Answer: d) PHA

What happens when a thermoplastic is heated?

a) It melts and can be reshaped b) It hardens and becomes rigid c) It decomposes and releases toxic gases d) It retains its shape without any change Answer: a) It melts and can be reshaped

Which type of plastic is used for making lighters, combs, and toys?

a) PVC b) PET c) HDPE d) PS Answer: d) PS

Which synthetic fiber is commonly used for making stockings and parachutes?

a) Nylon b) Rayon c) Acrylic d) Polyester Answer: a) Nylon

The chemical name of polyester is:

a) Polyurethane b) Polyethylene terephthalate c) Polyvinyl chloride d) Polypropylene Answer: b) Polyethylene terephthalate

Which of the following is an example of a thermosetting plastic?

a) Polyethylene b) Polypropylene c) Melamine d) Polystyrene Answer: c) Melamine

Which type of plastic is used for making water tanks and dustbins?

a) PVC b) PET c) HDPE d) PS Answer: c) HDPE

The process of conversion of a fiber into a fabric is called:

a) Spinning b) Weaving c) Felting d) Knitting Answer: b) Weaving

Which of the following is NOT a natural fiber?

a) Cotton b) Jute c) Silk d) Polyester Answer: d) Polyester

PVC stands for:

a) Polyvinyl chloride b) Polypropylene c) Polyethylene terephthalate d) Polystyrene Answer: a) Polyvinyl chloride

Which type of synthetic fiber is commonly used for making raincoats and umbrellas?

a) Acrylic b) Rayon c) Nylon d) Polyester Answer: d) Polyester

Which of the following synthetic fibers is a substitute for wool?

a) Rayon b) Nylon c) Acrylic d) Polyester Answer: c) Acrylic

Heating of thermoplastics can cause:

a) Melting b) Evaporation c) Sublimation d) Decomposition Answer: a) Melting

The basic building block of polymers is called:

a) Monomer b) Polymerase c) Monosaccharide d) Lipid Answer: a) Monomer

The process of making fabric from fibers is called:

a) Felting b) Knitting c) Weaving d) Spinning Answer: c) Weaving

Polyester is synthesized from which raw material?

a) Coal b) Petroleum c) Natural gas d) Wood pulp Answer: b) Petroleum

Which of the following is NOT a synthetic fiber?

a) Rayon b) Polyester c) Silk d) Nylon Answer: c) Silk

Which plastic is commonly used for making electrical insulation?

a) PVC b) PET c) HDPE d) LDPE Answer: a) PVC

What is the common name of a thermoplastic polymer of propylene?

a) Rayon b) Nylon c) Polythene d) Bakelite Answer: c) Polythene

Which synthetic fiber is commonly used for making curtains and bed sheets?

a) Acrylic b) Rayon c) Nylon d) Polyester Answer: d) Polyester

Which plastic is commonly used for making microwave-safe food containers?

a) PVC b) PET c) HDPE d) PP Answer: d) PP

Which of the following is a synthetic fiber made from wood pulp?

a) Nylon b) Rayon c) Acrylic d) Polyester Answer: b) Rayon

What is the process of converting fibers into yarn called?

a) Winding b) Weaving c) Spinning d) Dyeing Answer: c) Spinning

Which type of plastic is commonly used for making water bottles?

a) PVC b) PET c) HDPE d) LDPE Answer: b) PET

Which of the following is NOT a natural fiber?

a) Jute b) Cotton c) Wool d) Rayon Answer: d) Rayon

What is the process of making fabric directly from fibers called?

a) Felting b) Knitting c) Weaving d) Spinning Answer: a) Felting

Which of the following is a property of synthetic fibers?

a) Biodegradable b) Breathable c) Easily wrinkled d) Pests resistant Answer: d) Pests resistant

Which plastic is commonly used for making yogurt containers and disposable cups?

a) PVC b) PET c) HDPE d) LDPE Answer: d) LDPE

What is the common name of a thermoplastic polymer of ethylene?

a) Bakelite b) Nylon c) Polythene d) Rayon Answer: c) Polythene

Which synthetic fiber is commonly used for making swimwear and sportswear?

a) Acrylic b) Rayon c) Nylon d) Polyester Answer: c) Nylon

Which of the following is a natural polymer?

a) PVC b) PET c) Cotton d) Melamine Answer: c) Cotton

Which synthetic fiber is commonly used for making carpets and fake fur?

a) Acrylic b) Rayon c) Nylon d) Polyester Answer: a) Acrylic

Chapter 4 Materials: Metals and Non-Metals

Which of the following is a characteristic property of metals?

a) Brittleness b) Ductility c) Transparency d) Low melting point Answer: b) Ductility

Which metal is the best conductor of electricity?

a) Iron b) Copper c) Aluminium d) Silver Answer: d) Silver

Which of the following is a non-metal?

a) Sodium b) Calcium c) Phosphorus d) Nickel Answer: c) Phosphorus

Which of the following elements is a metalloid?

a) Gold b) Iron c) Silicon d) Nitrogen Answer: c) Silicon

Which property of metals makes them suitable for making electric wires?

a) Malleability b) Conductivity c) Ductility d) Sonority Answer: b) Conductivity

Which metals can be easily cut with a knife?

a) Copper b) Gold c) Aluminium d) Sodium Answer: c) Aluminium

Which non-metal is present in abundance in the earth’s atmosphere?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon d) Hydrogen Answer: b) Nitrogen

Which non-metal is essential for respiration in living organisms?

a) Carbon b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen Answer: b) Oxygen

Which metal is commonly used for making cooking utensils?

a) Aluminium b) Iron c) Copper d) Zinc Answer: a) Aluminium

Which of the following is a physical property of metals?

a) Corrosion b) Malleability c) Non-lustrous d) Brittle Answer: b) Malleability

Which non-metal is a poor conductor of heat and electricity?

a) Sulphur b) Carbon c) Hydrogen d) Oxygen Answer: a) Sulphur

Which metal is used in making electric switches and wires?

a) Copper b) Zinc c) Lead d) Potassium Answer: a) Copper

Which non-metal is present in all acids?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon c) Sulphur d) Hydrogen Answer: d) Hydrogen

Which metal is used for making coins?

a) Aluminium b) Gold c) Silver d) Iron Answer: c) Silver

Which non-metal is a good disinfectant?

a) Oxygen b) Sulphur c) Chlorine d) Nitrogen Answer: c) Chlorine

Which metal is used in making electrical wires due to its low electrical resistance?

a) Gold b) Silver c) Copper d) Iron Answer: c) Copper

Which non-metal is present in all organic compounds?

a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon d) Nitrogen Answer: c) Carbon

Which metal is the most abundant in the earth’s crust?

a) Gold b) Iron c) Aluminium d) Copper Answer: b) Iron

Which non-metal is essential for the formation of glucose during photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon d) Sulphur Answer: c) Carbon

Which metal is used for making musical instruments like bells and gongs?

a) Zinc b) Copper c) Silver d) Iron Answer: b) Copper

Which non-metal is a yellow, non-metallic solid at room temperature?

a) Sulphur b) Carbon c) Hydrogen d) Oxygen Answer: a) Sulphur

Which metal is used for galvanization of iron?

a) Aluminium b) Zinc c) Copper d) Silver Answer: b) Zinc

Which non-metal is used in the production of fertilizers?

a) Carbon b) Sulphur c) Nitrogen d) Oxygen Answer: c) Nitrogen

Which property of non-metals makes them brittle?

a) Malleability b) Ductility c) Hardness d) Lack of metallic bond Answer: d) Lack of metallic bond

Which metal is used in the thermite welding process?

a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Zinc d) Iron Answer: b) Aluminium

Which non-metal is the second most abundant element in the earth’s crust?

a) Silicon b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Carbon Answer: a) Silicon

Which metal is used for making high tension wires?

a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Gold d) Silver Answer: b) Aluminium

Which non-metal is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors?

a) Helium b) Neon c) Argon d) Carbon dioxide Answer: a) Helium

Which metal is used for making aircraft bodies?

a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Silver d) Zinc Answer: a) Aluminium

Which non-metal is a liquid at room temperature?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon d) Bromine Answer: d) Bromine

Which metal is used for making jewelry?

a) Aluminium b) Silver c) Gold d) Copper Answer: c) Gold

Which non-metal is used as a reducing agent in metallurgy?

a) Oxygen b) Sulphur c) Carbon d) Nitrogen Answer: c) Carbon

Which metal is used for making storage batteries?

a) Iron b) Aluminium c) Lead d) Zinc Answer: c) Lead

Which non-metal is present in all proteins?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon d) Sulphur Answer: b) Nitrogen

Which metal is used for making electrical heating devices?

a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Iron d) Nichrome Answer: d) Nichrome

Which non-metal is used for making pencils?

a) Oxygen b) Sulphur c) Graphite d) Carbon dioxide Answer: c) Graphite

Which metal is used for making aircraft engines?

a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Silver d) Steel Answer: d) Steel

Which non-metal is the lightest element?

a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Carbon Answer: a) Hydrogen

Which metal is used for making electrical contacts?

a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Silver d) Zinc Answer: c) Silver

Which non-metal is used for making matchstick heads?

a) Phosphorus b) Sulphur c) Carbon d) Oxygen Answer: a) Phosphorus

Which metal is used for making cooking pots and pans?

a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Silver d) Zinc Answer: b) Aluminium

Which non-metal is used in the manufacturing of glass?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon c) Nitrogen d) Silicon Answer: d) Silicon

Which metal is used for making automobile parts?

a) Aluminium b) Copper c) Silver d) Iron Answer: a) Aluminium

Which non-metal is responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer?

a) Carbon b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Chlorine Answer: d) Chlorine

Which metal is used for making wires for electric bulbs?

a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Tungsten d) Iron Answer: c) Tungsten

Which non-metal is responsible for the foul smell of rotten eggs?

a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Sulphur Answer: d) Sulphur

Which metal is used for galvanization of iron to prevent rusting?

a) Copper b) Zinc c) Aluminium d) Silver Answer: b) Zinc

Which non-metal is used for making fertilizer explosives?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon d) Sulphur Answer: b) Nitrogen

Which metal is used for making electric resistors?

a) Copper b) Aluminium c) Silver d) Nichrome Answer: d) Nichrome

Which non-metal is present in all carbohydrates?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon d) Sulphur Answer: c) Carbon

Chapter 5 Coal and Petroleum

Which of the following is not a fossil fuel?

a) Coal b) Petroleum c) Natural gas d) Biomass Answer: d) Biomass

Coal is formed from the remains of:

a) Plants b) Animals c) Both plants and animals d) Microorganisms Answer: a) Plants

The main ingredient present in natural gas is:

a) Methane b) Ethane c) Propane d) Butane Answer: a) Methane

The process of separating different fractions of petroleum is called:

a) Refining b) Purification c) Distillation d) Cracking Answer: c) Distillation

Which of the following is the most volatile fraction of petroleum?

a) Diesel b) Kerosene c) Petrol d) Lubricating oil Answer: c) Petrol

The process of breakdown of heavy hydrocarbons into lighter fractions is known as:

a) Cracking b) Distillation c) Polymerization d) Combustion Answer: a) Cracking

The primary constituent of natural gas is:

a) Methane b) Ethane c) Propane d) Butane Answer: a) Methane

Which of the following is an example of an environmental concern related to the use of fossil fuels?

a) Air pollution b) Soil erosion c) Water scarcity d) Noise pollution Answer: a) Air pollution

Which of the following is an example of a non-renewable resource?

a) Solar energy b) Wind energy c) Coal d) Biomass Answer: c) Coal

The fossil fuel with the highest carbon content is:

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Petroleum d) Lignite Answer: a) Coal

Which of the following fossil fuels is often called black gold?

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Petroleum d) Peat Answer: c) Petroleum

Which of the following organic substances is not considered a fossil fuel?

a) Methane hydrates b) Tar sands c) Shale gas d) Uranium Answer: d) Uranium

The heating value of a fuel is expressed in terms of:

a) Kilocalories (Kcal) b) Joules (J) c) Kilowatts (kW) d) Watts (W) Answer: a) Kilocalories (Kcal)

Bituminous coal is commonly used for:

a) Making jewelry b) Generating electricity c) Making plastic d) Producing natural dyes Answer: b) Generating electricity

Which of the following is not a by-product of petroleum?

a) Lubricating oil b) Diesel c) Natural gas d) Biodiesel Answer: d) Biodiesel

The process of decay of organic matter under high pressure and temperature for the formation of coal is known as:

a) Liquefaction b) Carbonization c) Oxidation d) Cracking Answer: b) Carbonization

The highest grade of coal is:

a) Peat b) Lignite c) Bituminous d) Anthracite Answer: d) Anthracite

The main environmental concern associated with burning fossil fuels is the emission of:

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen gas c) Carbon dioxide d) Water vapor Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

Which of the following is the cleanest burning fossil fuel?

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Diesel d) Petrol Answer: b) Natural gas

The process of converting coal into liquid hydrocarbons is known as:

a) Combustion b) Distillation c) Gasification d) Hydrogenation Answer: c) Gasification

Which of the following is a drawback of using fossil fuels?

a) Availability in abundance b) Low carbon emissions c) Contribution to climate change d) Renewable energy source Answer: c) Contribution to climate change

The process of complete combustion of fossil fuels produces:

a) Carbon dioxide and water vapor b) Carbon monoxide and sulfur dioxide c) Nitrogen oxides and particulate matter d) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) Answer: a) Carbon dioxide and water vapor

Which of the following fossil fuels has the highest energy content per unit mass?

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Petroleum d) Peat Answer: b) Natural gas

Which of the following is not a type of coal?

a) Peat b) Lignite c) Bituminous d) Graphite Answer: d) Graphite

Which of the following fossil fuels is used as a reducing agent in the extraction of metals like iron?

a) Natural gas b) Petroleum c) Coal d) Lignite Answer: c) Coal

The process of burning a fossil fuel in the presence of excess air is called:

a) Complete combustion b) Incomplete combustion c) Spontaneous combustion d) Rapid combustion Answer: a) Complete combustion

The process of drilling a hole in the ground to extract petroleum is known as:

a) Refining b) Mining c) Extraction d) Drilling Answer: d) Drilling

The process of converting solid coal into gaseous fuel is called:

a) Carbonization b) Gasification c) Decarboxylation d) Photolysis Answer: b) Gasification

The process of turning plant and animal remains into crude oil is called:

a) Sedimentation b) Digestion c) Carbonization d) Fossilization Answer: c) Carbonization

Which of the following is the cleanest burning fossil fuel in terms of carbon emissions?

a) Diesel b) Biogas c) Coal d) Petrol Answer: b) Biogas

The process of breaking down peat to form coal is called:

a) Distillation b) Liquefaction c) Carbonization d) Combustion Answer: c) Carbonization

The first stage in the formation of coal is:

a) Peat b) Lignite c) Bituminous d) Anthracite Answer: a) Peat

Which of the following is not a type of petroleum product?

a) Kerosene b) Diesel c) Petrol d) Graphite Answer: d) Graphite

Which of the following is not a characteristic of petroleum?

a) Black color b) High density c) Low viscosity d) Flammable Answer: b) High density

The process of separating petroleum into different fractions is known as:

a) Refining b) Cracking c) Combustion d) Distillation Answer: d) Distillation

The by-product of the combustion of fossil fuels that causes acid rain is:

a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulfur dioxide c) Nitrogen oxides d) Methane Answer: b) Sulfur dioxide

The process by which crude oil is heated to produce useful petroleum fractions is called:

a) Refining b) Distillation c) Filtration d) Evaporation Answer: b) Distillation

Which of the following fossil fuels is not found in gaseous form?

a) Coal gas b) Natural gas c) Petroleum gas d) Bio gas Answer: a) Coal gas

Which of the following is an example of an alternative to fossil fuels?

a) Wind energy b) Hydroelectric energy c) Solar energy d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

The process of converting coal into a gas fuel is known as:

a) Carbonization b) Gasification c) Liquefaction d) Combustion Answer: b) Gasification

The sludge left behind after the refining of petroleum is called:

a) Residue b) Coke c) Tar d) Ash Answer: a) Residue

Which of the following is not a petrochemical product?

a) Plastics b) Detergents c) Fertilizers d) Peat Answer: d) Peat

The flashpoint of a fuel refers to its:

a) Ignition temperature b) Boiling point c) Melting point d) Combustion point Answer: a) Ignition temperature

The process of converting petroleum fractions into gasoline is called:

a) Cracking b) Hydrogenation c) Distillation d) Combustion Answer: a) Cracking

Fossil fuels are derived from the remains of:

a) Living organisms b) Minerals c) Water bodies d) Volcanic eruptions Answer: a) Living organisms

The main environmental concern associated with the extraction of fossil fuels is:

a) Deforestation b) Land pollution c) Water pollution d) Noise pollution Answer: c) Water pollution

The process of converting solid coal into a liquid fuel is called:

a) Carbonization b) Gasification c) Liquefaction d) Cracking Answer: c) Liquefaction

The process of forcing carbon dioxide underground to enhance oil recovery is known as:

a) Fracking b) Carbon capture and storage (CCS) c) Gasification d) Carbonization Answer: b) Carbon capture and storage (CCS)

Which of the following fossil fuels is a non-renewable resource?

a) Natural gas b) Solar energy c) Wind energy d) Geothermal energy Answer: a) Natural gas

The process of converting biomass into a usable fuel is called:

a) Gasification b) Carbonization c) Fermentation d) Pyrolysis Answer: d) Pyrolysis

Chapter 6 Combustion and Flame

Which of the following is a chemical process?

a) Combustion b) Evaporation c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above Answer: c) Both a) and b)

What is the meaning of the term ’combustion’?

a) Production of heat b) Chemical reaction involving oxygen and a fuel c) Release of smoke d) None of the above Answer: b) Chemical reaction involving oxygen and a fuel

Which gas is necessary for combustion to occur?

a) Carbon dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen Answer: c) Oxygen

Which of the following is a source of heat energy?

a) Sun b) Burning coal c) Rubbing hands together d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

What is the minimum temperature at which a substance catches fire and burns?

a) Ignition temperature b) Boiling point c) Melting point d) Flashpoint Answer: a) Ignition temperature

Which type of combustion is responsible for producing firewood and coal?

a) Rapid combustion b) Spontaneous combustion c) Explosive combustion d) Complete combustion Answer: a) Rapid combustion

What is the main cause of incomplete combustion?

a) Insufficient fuel b) Lack of oxygen c) Low ignition temperature d) All of the above Answer: b) Lack of oxygen

What marks the completion of combustion?

a) Charcoal formation b) Ash formation c) Smoke formation d) None of the above Answer: b) Ash formation

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

a) LPG stands for Liquefied Petroleum Gas b) Combustion of fossil fuels releases harmful gases c) Candle flame emits only heat and light d) Forest fires can be both useful and harmful Answer: c) Candle flame emits only heat and light

Which of the following is an example of a non-luminous flame?

a) Matchstick flame b) Candle flame c) Bunsen burner flame d) Campfire flame Answer: c) Bunsen burner flame

Which component of fire extinguisher cuts off the supply of oxygen?

a) Carbon dioxide b) Nitrogen c) Water d) Foam Answer: a) Carbon dioxide

What causes a firework to explode in the sky?

a) Rapid combustion b) Explosive combustion c) Slow combustion d) None of the above Answer: b) Explosive combustion

What is the product of the complete combustion of hydrocarbons?

a) Carbon monoxide b) Carbon dioxide c) Sulphur dioxide d) Nitrogen oxide Answer: b) Carbon dioxide

Which type of burning process is used for cooking in villages?

a) Fuel wood b) LPG c) Kerosene d) CNG Answer: a) Fuel wood

What is the color of a candle flame?

a) Blue b) Red c) Yellow d) White Answer: c) Yellow

Which of the following is not a safety measure against fire accidents?

a) Using electrical appliances carefully b) Storing flammable materials properly c) Smothering fire with a blanket d) Throwing water on an electrical fire Answer: d) Throwing water on an electrical fire

What type of materials are considered good conductors of heat?

a) Wood and plastic b) Glass and rubber c) Metal and stone d) Paper and cloth Answer: c) Metal and stone

What is the process of removal of moisture from substances by heating called?

a) Evaporation b) Sublimation c) Combustion d) Drying Answer: d) Drying

What is the name of the instrument used to measure the heat produced during combustion?

a) Thermometer b) Hydrometer c) Lactometer d) Calorimeter Answer: d) Calorimeter

What is the advantage of using a pressure stove over traditional stoves?

a) Saves fuel b) Burns faster c) Produces less heat d) None of the above Answer: a) Saves fuel

Which material is used as a fuel in rockets and jet engines?

a) Kerosene b) Diesel c) Petrol d) Hydrogen Answer: d) Hydrogen

What is the chemical formula of methane gas?

a) CH4 b) CO2 c) N2 d) NH3 Answer: a) CH4

What is the common name for calcium oxide?

a) Lime b) Chalk c) Plaster of Paris d) Baking soda Answer: a) Lime

Which of the following is not a product of combustion?

a) Water vapor b) Carbon monoxide c) Sulphur dioxide d) Nitrogen gas Answer: d) Nitrogen gas

What causes a fuel to release a lot of heat during combustion?

a) High ignition temperature b) Low calorific value c) High calorific value d) None of the above Answer: c) High calorific value

What is the physical state of fuels like coal and wood?

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Plasma Answer: a) Solid

What is the process of producing heat and light energy called?

a) Combustion b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Sublimation Answer: a) Combustion

What is the minimum amount of heat energy required for a substance to undergo combustion called?

a) Heat of vaporization b) Heat of combustion c) Heat capacity d) Heat of fusion Answer: b) Heat of combustion

Which substance is used in firecrackers to produce a loud sound?

a) Sulfur b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Gunpowder Answer: d) Gunpowder

Which type of fuel leaves behind a lot of ash after combustion?

a) Solid fuels b) Liquid fuels c) Gaseous fuels d) All fuels are the same Answer: a) Solid fuels

Which of the following is a natural source of light and heat?

a) Electric bulb b) Sun c) Candle d) Torch Answer: b) Sun

What component of the candle is responsible for producing the brightest part of the flame?

a) Non-luminous zone b) Luminous zone c) Wick d) Smoke Answer: b) Luminous zone

What do we need to light a matchstick?

a) Oxygen b) Water c) Fuel d) Carbon dioxide Answer: a) Oxygen

What is the minimum temperature at which a substance in the air starts burning on its own?

a) Combustion temperature b) Autoignition temperature c) Flashpoint temperature d) Boiling point temperature Answer: b) Autoignition temperature

Which type of combustion produces a lot of heat and light energy?

a) Spontaneous combustion b) Complete combustion c) Incomplete combustion d) Both b) and c) Answer: b) Complete combustion

What do we call the process of converting a solid substance into a gaseous state without passing thro ugh the liquid state?

a) Sublimation b) Condensation c) Vaporization d) Fusion Answer: a) Sublimation

Which component of the fire triangle refers to the fuel source for combustion?

a) Heat b) Oxygen c) Fuel d) Fire extinguisher Answer: c) Fuel

Which of the following is an example of spontaneous combustion?

a) Lighting a matchstick b) Burning of gasoline in a car engine c) Burning of paper in a fireplace d) Fire caused by oily rags in a garage Answer: d) Fire caused by oily rags in a garage

What is the color of the innermost part of a candle flame?

a) Yellow b) Blue c) Red d) Black Answer: b) Blue

What type of fuel is commonly used for cooking in urban areas?

a) Cow dung cake b) Wood c) LPG d) Coal Answer: c) LPG

What happens to the weight of a body when it is burnt?

a) It increases b) It decreases c) It remains the same d) It depends on the type of body Answer: b) It decreases

Which gas produced during combustion leads to the formation of acid rain?

a) Nitrogen dioxide b) Oxygen c) Carbon dioxide d) Water vapor Answer: a) Nitrogen dioxide

What precaution should be taken while heating an inflammable substance?

a) Use a large flame b) Heat from below c) Heat in a closed room d) All of the above Answer: b) Heat from below

What is the name of the flame produced by a burning candle?

a) Simple flame b) Single flame c) Luminous flame d) Bright flame Answer: c) Luminous flame

What is the process of extinguishing a fire by cutting off the supply of air called?

a) Cooling b) Smothering c) Blanketing d) Dousing Answer: b) Smothering

Which of the following is an example of artificial sources of light and heat?

a) Sun b) Stars c) Fire d) Lightning Answer: c) Fire

Which type of fuel is commonly used for generating electricity in power plants?

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Nuclear fuel d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

What type of combustion is used in steam engines?

a) Slow combustion b) Rapid combustion c) Spontaneous combustion d) Explosive combustion Answer: b) Rapid combustion

Which of the following is not a classification of fuel based on physical state? a) Gaseous fuel b) Liquid fuel c) Solid fuel d) Biofuel Answer: d) Biofuel

What is the process of converting a liquid substance into a gaseous state called?

a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Sublimation d) Melting Answer: a) Evaporation

Chapter 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals

Which of the following is an example of an endangered animal?

a) Cow b) Tiger c) Goat d) Dog Answer: b) Tiger

Which of the following is an example of an extinct plant?

a) Neem tree b) Tulsi plant c) Wheat plant d) Dodo tree Answer: d) Dodo tree

Which organization is responsible for the conservation of wildlife in India?

a) WHO b) UNESCO c) IUCN d) Wildlife Trust of India Answer: d) Wildlife Trust of India

What is the term for keeping animals in captivity for breeding purposes?

a) Sanctuary b) National Park c) Captive breeding d) Zoological garden Answer: c) Captive breeding

What is the purpose of a wildlife sanctuary?

a) To provide habitat for migratory birds b) To breed animals for commercial purposes c) To protect and conserve wildlife d) To conduct scientific experiments on animals Answer: c) To protect and conserve wildlife

What is the primary cause of the loss of biodiversity?

a) Pollution b) Deforestation c) Overhunting d) Climate change Answer: b) Deforestation

Which of the following is an example of a biosphere reserve in India?

a) Gir National Park b) Keoladeo National Park c) Jim Corbett National Park d) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve Answer: d) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve

What is the term for the protection and regeneration of natural resources?

a) Wildlife conservation b) Biodiversity conservation c) Sustainable development d) Ecosystem preservation Answer: c) Sustainable development

Which of the following methods is used to control air pollution?

a) Afforestation b) Rainwater harvesting c) Use of CFCs d) Use of catalytic converters in vehicles Answer: d) Use of catalytic converters in vehicles

Which of the following is a cause of soil erosion?

a) Overgrazing of livestock b) Planting of trees c) Constructing terraces d) Composting of organic waste Answer: a) Overgrazing of livestock

Which of the following is an example of an extinct animal?

a) Peacock b) Elephant c) Giraffe d) Dinosaur Answer: d) Dinosaur

What is the term for the breeding of domesticated plants and animals?

a) Deforestation b) Captive breeding c) Cultivation d) Farming Answer: d) Farming

What is the term for the process of capturing, killing, and selling wild animals?

a) Poaching b) Illegal trade c) Hunting d) Trophy hunting Answer: a) Poaching

Which of the following is an example of an endangered plant species?

a) Rice b) Tulsi c) Potato d) Sunflower Answer: b) Tulsi

Which of the following is a method of conserving water?

a) Planting more trees b) Constructing dams c) Rainwater harvesting d) Chemical treatment of water Answer: c) Rainwater harvesting

What is the main cause of deforestation?

a) Industrialization b) Urbanization c) Agricultural activities d) Mining activities Answer: c) Agricultural activities

Which of the following is an example of an endemic species?

a) Peacock b) Mango tree c) Neem tree d) Rhinoceros Answer: d) Rhinoceros

What is the term for the intentional killing of a species to ensure survival of another species?

a) Predation b) Poaching c) Conservation hunting d) Culling Answer: d) Culling

What is the main cause of the depletion of the ozone layer?

a) Deforestation b) Pollution c) Industrialization d) Use of CFCs Answer: d) Use of CFCs

Which of the following is an example of a national park in India?

a) Sunderbans National Park b) Surajkund National Park c) Sariska National Park d) Silent Valley National Park Answer: a) Sunderbans National Park

What is the term for the protection and management of natural resources to ensure their sustainable u se?

a) Biodiversity conservation b) Environmental preservation c) Wildlife conservation d) Natural resource management Answer: d) Natural resource management

Which of the following is an example of a migratory animal?

a) Turtle b) Lion c) Camel d) Penguin Answer: d) Penguin

What is the purpose of a gene bank?

a) To store seeds of endangered plant species b) To breed animals for commercial purposes c) To store DNA of extinct species d) To conduct genetic experiments on animals Answer: a) To store seeds of endangered plant species

What is the term for the process of converting waste materials into reusable materials?

a) Recycling b) Composting c) Incineration d) Landfilling Answer: a) Recycling

Which of the following is a method of conserving energy?

a) Deforestation b) Planting more trees c) Using energy-efficient appliances d) Construction of power plants Answer: c) Using energy-efficient appliances

What is the term for the breeding of animals in their natural habitat?

a) Captive breeding b) Artificial breeding c) Natural breeding d) Wildlife breeding Answer: c) Natural breeding

Which of the following is an example of a plant species that has medicinal value?

a) Tulsi b) Marigold c) Rose d) Peacock Answer: a) Tulsi

What is the term for the killing of animals for commercial purposes?

a) Hunting b) Poaching c) Illegal trade d) Commercial hunting Answer: d) Commercial hunting

What is the term for the variety of life on Earth, including plants, animals, and microorganisms?

a) Ecosystem b) Habitat c) Biosphere d) Biodiversity Answer: d) Biodiversity

Which of the following is a method of conserving soil?

a) Overgrazing of livestock b) Deforestation c) Terrace farming d) Industrialization Answer: c) Terrace farming

What is the term for the process of protecting an area to prevent damage, destruction, or degradation ?

a) Conservation b) Preservation c) Deforestation d) Utilization Answer: a) Conservation

Which of the following is an example of a critically endangered animal?

a) Lion b) Elephant c) Rhino d) Tiger Answer: c) Rhino

What is the term for the process of protecting and managing natural resources for their sustainable us e?

a) Wildlife preservation b) Sustainable development c) Genetic conservation d) Environmental protection Answer: b) Sustainable development

Which of the following is a method of conserving biodiversity?

a) Pollution b) Deforestation c) Planting more trees d) Industrialization Answer: c) Planting more trees

What is the term for the practice of using resources in such a way that they are not depleted or perma nently damaged?

a) Sustainable development b) Conservation hunting c) Wildlife conservation d) Captive breeding Answer: a) Sustainable development

Which of the following is an example of an exotic species?

a) Peacock b) Mango tree c) Neem tree d) Eucalyptus tree Answer: d) Eucalyptus tree

What is the term for the process of protecting and conserving natural resources and the environment?

a) Environmentalism b) Wildlife conservation c) Genetic conservation d) Sustainable development Answer: a) Environmentalism

Which of the following is a method of conserving wildlife?

a) Pollution b) Deforestation c) Captive breeding d) Industrialization Answer: c) Captive breeding

What is the term for the protection and management of ecosystems to ensure their long-term stability?

a) Ecosystem preservation b) Wildlife conservation c) Habitat protection d) Biosphere conservation Answer: a) Ecosystem preservation

Which of the following is an example of a migratory bird?

a) Sparrow b) Crow c) Peacock d) Crane Answer: d) Crane

What is the term for the practice of planting trees to create a forest?

a) Afforestation b) Reforestation c) Deforestation d) Urbanization Answer: a) Afforestation

Which of the following is an example of a marine protected area in India?

a) Gir National Park b) Keoladeo National Park c) Jim Corbett National Park d) Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park Answer: d) Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park

What is the term for the method of managing and using natural resources in a way that meets the nee ds of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their needs?

a) Captive breeding b) Wildlife conservation c) Sustainable development d) Genetic conservation Answer: c) Sustainable development

Which of the following is a method of conserving forests?

a) Deforestation b) Urbanization c) Afforestation d) Industrialization Answer: c) Afforestation

What is the term for the practice of protecting and conserving the genetic diversity of plant and animal species?

a) Biodiversity conservation b) Genetic conservation c) Wildlife conservation d) Ecosystem preservation Answer: b) Genetic conservation

Which of the following is an example of a national park in India?

a) Kaziranga National Park b) Bandipur National Park c) Tadoba National Park d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

What is the term for the process of clearing land for agriculture or other purposes?

a) Afforestation b) Deforestation c) Urbanization d) Environmentalism Answer: b) Deforestation

Which of the following is a method of conserving wildlife habitats?

a) Pollution b) Urbanization c) Reintroduction of species d) Soil erosion Answer: c) Reintroduction of species

What is the term for the destruction of natural habitats by human activities?

a) Urbanization b) Pollution c) Habitat destruction d) Industrialization Answer: c) Habitat destruction

Which of the following is an example of an endangered bird species?

a) Sparrow b) Pigeon c) Peacock d) Great Indian Bustard Answer: d) Great Indian Bustard

Chapter 8 Cell – Structure and Functions

Which of the following is the basic structural and functional unit of life?

a) Tissue b) Organ c) Cell d) Organism Answer: c) Cell

Who discovered the cell?

a) Robert Hooke b) Isaac Newton c) Albert Einstein d) Michael Faraday Answer: a) Robert Hooke

Which cell organelle is responsible for the production of energy?

a) Nucleus b) Chloroplast c) Mitochondria d) Ribosome Answer: c) Mitochondria

Which cell organelle is commonly known as the "powerhouse" of the cell?

a) Golgi Apparatus b) Endoplasmic Reticulum c) Lysosome d) Mitochondria Answer: d) Mitochondria

Which part of the cell contains genetic material?

a) Cell membrane b) Cytoplasm c) Vacuole d) Nucleus Answer: d) Nucleus

In plant cells, which structure gives rigid support?

a) Cell membrane b) Cytoplasm c) Cell wall d) Chloroplast Answer: c) Cell wall

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of proteins?

a) Mitochondria b) Lysosome c) Ribosome d) Nucleus Answer: c) Ribosome

What is the function of the cell membrane?

a) Protection and support b) Control the movement of substances in and out of the cell c) Production of energy d) Store genetic material Answer: b) Control the movement of substances in and out of the cell

Which of the following is not found in animal cells?

a) Vacuole b) Cell wall c) Golgi apparatus d) Centrioles Answer: b) Cell wall

Which structure holds the cell organelles together?

a) Nucleus b) Vacuole c) Cytoplasm d) Cell membrane Answer: c) Cytoplasm

Which of the following organisms are made up of a single cell?

a) Bacteria b) Fungi c) Plants d) Insects Answer: a) Bacteria

Which cell organelle is responsible for the digestion of waste materials?

a) Lysosome b) Vacuole c) Mitochondria d) Nucleus Answer: a) Lysosome

What is the function of the chloroplast?

a) Controlling cell activities b) Storage of water and nutrients c) Photosynthesis d) Protein synthesis Answer: c) Photosynthesis

Which organelle is responsible for storing water and other substances in plant cells?

a) Vacuole b) Mitochondria c) Nucleus d) Lysosome Answer: a) Vacuole

Which of the following is not a type of cell?

a) Animal cell b) Plant cell c) Fungal cell d) Earth cell Answer: d) Earth cell

What is the function of the endoplasmic reticulum?

a) Protein synthesis b) Storage of genetic material c) Transportation of substances within the cell d) Control of cell activities Answer: c) Transportation of substances within the cell

Which of the following is responsible for the synthesis of lipids and detoxification of harmful substance s?

a) Chloroplast b) Golgi apparatus c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Nucleus Answer: c) Endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for cell division?

a) Nucleus b) Centrioles c) Golgi apparatus d) Cytoplasm Answer: b) Centrioles

Which part of the cell contains digestive enzymes?

a) Mitochondria b) Ribosome c) Lysosome d) Vacuole Answer: c) Lysosome

Which of the following is NOT a function of the nucleus?

a) Control cell activities b) Store genetic material c) Synthesize proteins d) Reproduction Answer: c) Synthesize proteins

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis and transport of proteins in the cell?

a) Endoplasmic reticulum b) Nucleus c) Mitochondria d) Chloroplast Answer: a) Endoplasmic reticulum

Which of the following is NOT a function of the Golgi apparatus?

a) Modification and packaging of proteins b) Synthesis of lipids c) Secretion of substances outside the cell d) Formation of lysosomes Answer: b) Synthesis of lipids

What is the function of the cytoplasm?

a) Control cell activities b) Protection and support c) Storage of genetic material d) Site for various cell activities Answer: d) Site for various cell activities

Which cell organelle plays a vital role in cell division?

a) Golgi apparatus b) Nucleus c) Mitochondria d) Ribosome Answer: b) Nucleus

Which of the following is NOT found in a bacterial cell?

a) Cell wall b) Nucleus c) Cell membrane d) Cytoplasm Answer: b) Nucleus

Which of the following is responsible for the transport of materials between different cells in the plant?

a) Nucleus b) Cell membrane c) Plasmodesmata d) Cytoplasm Answer: c) Plasmodesmata

What is the function of the flagella in a cell?

a) Movement b) Protein synthesis c) Photosynthesis d) Control cell activities Answer: a) Movement

Which of the following is a specialized cell found in nerve tissues?

a) Neuron b) Chondrocyte c) Adipocyte d) Osteoblast Answer: a) Neuron

What is the function of the cilia in a cell?

a) Protein synthesis b) Movement c) Storage of water and nutrients d) Protection and support Answer: b) Movement

What is the function of the cell wall in a plant cell?

a) Control the movement of substances in and out of the cell b) Protection and support c) Production of energy d) Storage of genetic material Answer: b) Protection and support

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of RNA and the assembly of ribosomes?

a) Nucleus b) Vacuole c) Nucleolus d) Lysosome Answer: c) Nucleolus

What is the function of the peroxisome in a cell?

a) Protein synthesis b) Energy production c) Detoxification of harmful substances d) Control cell activities Answer: c) Detoxification of harmful substances

Which of the following is a cell junction found in animal tissues and allows for communication between cells?

a) Plasmodesmata b) Desmosomes c) Cell wall d) Gap junctions Answer: d) Gap junctions

What is the function of the nuclear membrane?

a) Control cell activities b) Control the movement of substances in and out of the nucleus c) Store genetic material d) Synthesize proteins Answer: b) Control the movement of substances in and out of the nucleus

Which organelle is responsible for the storage and release of cellular energy in the form of ATP?

a) Nucleus b) Vacuole c) Cytoplasm d) Mitochondria Answer: d) Mitochondria

Which structure is responsible for the separation of the genetic material during cell division?

a) Nucleolus b) Chromosome c) Centrosome d) Nucleoplasm Answer: c) Centrosome

Which of the following is NOT a function of the vacuole in a plant cell?

a) Storage of water and nutrients b) Control of cell activities c) Provides support to the plant cell d) Storage of waste materials Answer: b) Control of cell activities

In which part of the cell does photosynthesis occur?

a) Chloroplast b) Centrosome c) Lysosome d) Nucleoplasm Answer: a) Chloroplast

What is the function of the nucleolus in a cell?

a) Control cell activities b) Storage of genetic material c) Synthesis of lipids d) Synthesis of ribosomes Answer: d) Synthesis of ribosomes

Which structure is responsible for the shape and support of the cell?

a) Nucleus b) Cell wall c) Golgi apparatus d) Vacuole Answer: b) Cell wall

What are the two main types of cells?

a) Animal cells and plant cells b) Prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells c) Nerve cells and muscle cells d) Red blood cells and white blood cells Answer: b) Prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells

Which of the following structures are present in animal cells but not in plant cells?

a) Nucleus and mitochondria b) Centrioles and cell wall c) Chloroplast and cell membrane d) Nucleus and ribosomes Answer: b) Centrioles and cell wall

Which process involves the fusion of two gametes to form a zygote?

a) Meiosis b) Mitosis c) Fertilization d) Respiration Answer: c) Fertilization

Which of the following cell organelles contains chlorophyll and is responsible for photosynthesis?

a) Nucleus b) Vacuole c) Golgi apparatus d) Chloroplast Answer: d) Chloroplast

Which substance gives the cell its shape and allows for movement in some cells?

a) Cytoplasm b) Cell membrane c) Cell wall d) Nucleus Answer: a) Cytoplasm

Which part of the cell is considered the control center?

a) Mitochondria b) Nucleus c) Ribosome d) Nucleolus Answer: b) Nucleus

Which of the following is the smallest unit of life?

a) Organ b) Tissue c) Cell d) Organism Answer: c) Cell

What is the function of ribosomes in a cell?

a) Control cell activities b) Storage of genetic material c) Synthesis of proteins d) Synthesis of lipids Answer: c) Synthesis of proteins

Which organelle acts as a packaging and shipping center for proteins in the cell?

a) Golgi apparatus b) Endoplasmic reticulum c) Vacuole d) Nucleus Answer: a) Golgi apparatus

The cell theory states that:

a) All cells are the same in structure and function b) All living organisms are made up of cells c) Only animals are made up of cells d) Only plants are made up of cells Answer: b) All living organisms are made up of cells

Chapter 9 Reproduction in Animals

Which of the following is a mode of reproduction in animals?

a) Fission b) Photosynthesis c) Germination d) Respiration Answer: a) Fission

Reproduction in which only a single parent is involved is called:

a) Asexual reproduction b) Sexual reproduction c) Binary fission d) Fragmentation Answer: a) Asexual reproduction

The process of fusion of male and female gametes is known as:

a) Pollination b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Dispersal Answer: b) Fertilization

The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma is called:

a) Self-pollination b) Cross-pollination c) Pollenation d) Propagation Answer: c) Pollination

In humans, fertilization usually occurs in the:

a) Ovary b) Uterus c) Fallopian tube d) Vagina Answer: c) Fallopian tube

Which is the primary male reproductive organ in humans?

a) Testes b) Ovaries c) Uterus d) Penis Answer: a) Testes

The release of a mature egg from the ovary is called:

a) Ovulation b) Fertilization c) Menstruation d) Gestation Answer: a) Ovulation

Which hormone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: c) Testosterone

The process by which a young one develops from a single cell is called:

a) Fertilization b) Reproduction c) Embryogenesis d) Gestation Answer: c) Embryogenesis

The formation of a zygote takes place during:

a) Fertilization b) Ovulation c) Pollination d) Fragmentation Answer: a) Fertilization

Which of the following is an example of viviparous animals?

a) Fish b) Bird c) Reptile d) Kangaroo Answer: d) Kangaroo

The gestation period in humans is approximately:

a) 3 weeks b) 4 months c) 9 months d) 1 year Answer: c) 9 months

The process of shedding and regrowth of antlers in deer is an example of:

a) Asexual reproduction b) External fertilization c) Indirect development d) Regeneration Answer: d) Regeneration

The fusion of the male and female gametes to form a zygote occurs in the:

a) Ovaries b) Uterus c) Oviducts d) Placenta Answer: c) Oviducts

Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?

a) Malaria b) Typhoid c) Tuberculosis d) Syphilis Answer: d) Syphilis

The process of development of a new individual from the body part of the parent is called:

a) Budding b) Spore formation c) Regeneration d) Vegetative propagation Answer: c) Regeneration

The development of an embryo inside the mother’s body is known as:

a) Oviparity b) Ovoviviparity c) Viviparity d) Parthenogenesis Answer: c) Viviparity

The function of an ovary in the female reproductive system is to:

a) Produce eggs b) Produce sperm c) Produce hormones d) Store urine Answer: a) Produce eggs

Which of the following is an example of a mammal that lays eggs?

a) Kangaroo b) Platypus c) Dolphin d) Bat Answer: b) Platypus

In humans, the baby receives nutrients and oxygen from the mother’s body through the:

a) Umbilical cord b) Placenta c) Amniotic sac d) Cervix Answer: b) Placenta

Which of the following is not a method of contraception?

a) Condoms b) Birth control pills c) Vasectomy d) Fertilization Answer: d) Fertilization

The process by which a seed grows into a new plant is called: a) Germination b) Pollination c) Fertilization d) Fragmentation Answer: a) Germination

Hermaphrodite animals have:

a) Two pairs of wings b) Ability to reproduce both sexually and asexually c) Both male and female reproductive organs d) Protective exoskeleton Answer: c) Both male and female reproductive organs

The period of adolescence in humans is marked by the onset of:

a) Puberty b) Infancy c) Old age d) Adulthood Answer: a) Puberty

The process of development of a seed into a new plant without the formation of flowers is known as:

a) Fertilization b) Pollination c) Asexual reproduction d) Germination Answer: d) Germination

Where does fertilization occur in chickens?

a) Ovary b) Oviduct c) Uterus d) Cloaca Answer: b) Oviduct

The hormone responsible for the development of female secondary sexual characteristics is:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) FSH (Follicle-stimulating hormone) Answer: a) Estrogen

The process of giving birth to young ones in mammals is called:

a) Pollination b) Ovulation c) Gestation d) Fertilization Answer: c) Gestation

Which of the following is not an external method of fertilization?

a) Fish b) Frog c) Bird d) Starfish Answer: c) Bird

What is the role of the stamen in a flower?

a) To produce pollen b) To produce nectar c) To protect the ovary d) To receive pollen Answer: a) To produce pollen

The development of a new individual from a bud is called:

a) Regeneration b) Fragmentation c) Budding d) Binary fission Answer: c) Budding

The thin-walled structure in plants that houses the developing embryo is called the:

a) Ovary b) Oviduct c) Zygote d) Seed Answer: a) Ovary

The seahorse is an example of:

a) Oviparous animal b) Viviparous animal c) Ovoviviparous animal d) Parthenogenetic animal Answer: c) Ovoviviparous animal

Which of the following is a method of artificial vegetative propagation?

a) Fertilization b) Fragmentation c) Germination d) Ovulation Answer: b) Fragmentation

The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of the same flower is called:

a) Self-fertilization b) Cross-fertilization c) Pollination d) Growth Answer: a) Self-fertilization

The outermost layer of the seed is called the:

a) Embryo b) Testa c) Cotyledon d) Endosperm Answer: b) Testa

The process of shedding the outer layer or skin in snakes and lizards is called:

a) Moulting b) Ovulation c) Copulation d) Gestation Answer: a) Moulting

The development of an embryo outside the mother’s body with the help of eggshells is known as:

a) Oviparity b) Ovoviviparity c) Viviparity d) Parthenogenesis Answer: a) Oviparity

Which of the following is not a method of asexual reproduction?

a) Budding b) Binary fission c) Spore formation d) Pollination Answer: d) Pollination

The process of fusion of male and female gametes to form a zygote occurs in the:

a) Uterus b) Ovary c) Oviduct d) Embryo Answer: c) Oviduct

The release of mature eggs from the ovary is known as:

a) Ovulation b) Fertilization c) Germination d) Regeneration Answer: a) Ovulation

Which of the following is a male reproductive organ in plants?

a) Stigma b) Ovary c) Anther d) Sepal Answer: c) Anther

The structures in a flower that protect the developing bud are called:

a) Sepals b) Petals c) Stigma d) Ovary Answer: a) Sepals

The fusion of a male and a female gamete is known as:

a) Budding b) Fertilization c) Pollination d) Germination Answer: b) Fertilization

Which of the following is a method of contraception used by males?

a) Tubectomy b) Condom c) IUD (Intrauterine device) d) Birth control pills Answer: b) Condom

Asexual reproduction is common in:

a) Plants b) Flowering plants c) Mammals d) Birds Answer: a) Plants

The process by which a nucleus divides into two identical nuclei is known as:

a) Fertilization b) Budding c) Binary fission d) Pollination Answer: c) Binary fission

The fusion of male and female gametes does not occur in the process of:

a) Budding b) Spore formation c) Germination d) Fertilization Answer: a) Budding

Which of the following is an example of an oviparous animal?

a) Kangaroo b) Elephant c) Dog d) Chicken Answer: d) Chicken

Which of the following is not a function of the male reproductive system?

a) Production of sperm cells b) Production of hormones c) Delivery of sperm to the female reproductive system d) Production of eggs Answer: d) Production of eggs

Chapter 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence

What is the age range for reaching adolescence?

a) 10-12 years b) 13-15 years c) 16-18 years d) 19-21 years Answer: b) 13-15 years

Which hormone is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters in boys?

a) Estrogen b) Androgen c) Progesterone d) Testosterone Answer: d) Testosterone

The sudden release of which hormone causes the growth spurt during adolescence?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Insulin d) Growth hormone Answer: d) Growth hormone

In boys, the first sign of puberty is the enlargement of which part?

a) Testes b) Penis c) Voice box d) Adrenal gland Answer: a) Testes

Which of the following is not a secondary sexual characteristic in boys?

a) Growth of facial hair b) Deepening of voice c) Enlargement of breasts d) Growth of pubic hair Answer: c) Enlargement of breasts

Menstruation in females begins between the age of:

a) 5-8 years b) 9-11 years c) 12-14 years d) 15-17 years Answer: c) 12-14 years

The shedding of the uterine lining is called:

a) Ovulation b) Menarche c) Menstruation d) Fertilization Answer: c) Menstruation

The development of breasts in females is controlled by which hormone?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: a) Estrogen

Puberty is triggered by which gland in the brain?

a) Pineal gland b) Pituitary gland c) Thyroid gland d) Adrenal gland Answer: b) Pituitary gland

Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic in girls?

a) Broadening of shoulders b) Decrease in height c) Widening of hips d) Increase in weight Answer: c) Widening of hips

In males, sperm production starts at what age?

a) Birth b) Puberty c) Adulthood d) Old age Answer: b) Puberty

Which of the following is an external reproductive organ in males?

a) Uterus b) Vagina c) Prostate gland d) Penis Answer: d) Penis

The menstrual flow lasts for how many days?

a) 1-2 days b) 3-5 days c) 7-10 days d) 12-14 days Answer: b) 3-5 days

Which female hormone is responsible for the release of an egg from the ovary?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: c) Luteinizing hormone

The onset of menstruation is called:

a) Menarche b) Menopause c) Ovulation d) Fertilization Answer: a) Menarche

Which hormone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: c) Testosterone

The term ’adolescence’ is derived from the Latin word meaning:

a) Growing adult b) Blossoming c) Confusion d) Infant Answer: a) Growing adult

In females, the development of eggs occurs in which organ?

a) Uterus b) Vagina c) Fallopian tube d) Ovary Answer: d) Ovary

Which gland is responsible for the secretion of the growth hormone in the body?

a) Thyroid gland b) Adrenal gland c) Pituitary gland d) Pancreas Answer: c) Pituitary gland

Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic in both boys and girls?

a) Enlargement of breasts b) Growth of facial hair c) Enlargement of hips d) Development of Adam’s apple Answer: d) Development of Adam’s apple

The fusion of male and female gametes is called:

a) Fertilization b) Implantation c) Gestation d) Reproduction Answer: a) Fertilization

In females, the fertilized egg gets implanted in the:

a) Ovary b) Uterus c) Fallopian tube d) Vagina Answer: b) Uterus

Which of the following is a symptom of early puberty in girls?

a) Delayed growth spurt b) Decreased breast size c) Increased height d) Appearance of acne Answer: d) Appearance of acne

The process of the menstrual cycle is controlled by which hormone?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Follicle-stimulating hormone d) Luteinizing hormone Answer: c) Follicle-stimulating hormone

In males, the development of sperm occurs in which organ?

a) Uterus b) Vagina c) Testes d) Prostate gland Answer: c) Testes

Which of the following is a sign of puberty in boys?

a) Breast development b) Increase in height c) Ovulation d) Deepening of voice Answer: d) Deepening of voice

The absence of menstruation is known as:

a) Menarche b) Menopause c) Amenorrhea d) Dysmenorrhea Answer: c) Amenorrhea

The reduction in the size of the uterus after childbirth is called:

a) Menarche b) Menopause c) Lactation d) Involution Answer: d) Involution

Which of the following is a female hormone?

a) Progesterone b) Testosterone c) Androgen d) Growth hormone Answer: a) Progesterone

The age at which fertility ends in women is known as:

a) Menarche b) Menopause c) Puberty d) Adolescence Answer: b) Menopause

The sex hormones, estrogen, and progesterone are produced in the:

a) Ovaries b) Testes c) Uterus d) Adrenal glands Answer: a) Ovaries

Which of the following is not a secondary sexual characteristic in girls?

a) Development of breasts b) Growth of pubic hair c) Widening of hips d) Growth of facial hair Answer: d) Growth of facial hair

Which hormone is responsible for uterine contraction during childbirth?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Oxytocin Answer: d) Oxytocin

The first menstruation is usually preceded by which body change?

a) Enlargement of breasts b) Growth of pubic hair c) Increase in height d) Deepening of voice Answer: a) Enlargement of breasts

Which of the following is a female reproductive disorder characterized by irregular periods?

a) Menstruation b) Menarche c) Menopause d) Polycystic ovary syndrome Answer: d) Polycystic ovary syndrome

Facial hair in males is due to the influence of which hormone?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: c) Testosterone

The fusion of sperm and egg forms a single cell known as a:

a) Zygote b) Embryo c) Fetus d) Gamete Answer: a) Zygote

Which hormone stimulates milk production in the mammary glands?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Prolactin d) Luteinizing hormone Answer: c) Prolactin

The temporary stoppage of menstruation during pregnancy is known as:

a) Implantation b) Menopause c) Ovulation d) Pregnancy Answer: d) Pregnancy

The time period during which a child develops inside the mother’s womb is called:

a) Implantation b) Puberty c) Gestation d) Fertilization Answer: c) Gestation

In boys, the secretion of which hormone is responsible for the growth of facial hair?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Androgen d) Luteinizing hormone Answer: c) Androgen

The first stage of adolescence is called:

a) Pre-adolescence b) Early adolescence c) Late adolescence d) Post-adolescence Answer: a) Pre-adolescence

Which hormone stimulates ovulation in females?

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Follicle-stimulating hormone d) Luteinizing hormone Answer: d) Luteinizing hormone

The hormone that regulates the menstrual cycle in females is:

a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Luteinizing hormone d) Follicle-stimulating hormone Answer: b) Progesterone

In girls, the development of eggs begins at what age?

a) Birth b) Puberty c) Adulthood d) Old age Answer: b) Puberty

The sudden increase in height and weight during adolescence is known as:

a) Puberty b) Menarche c) Growth spurt d) Menopause Answer: c) Growth spurt

The process of releasing the mature egg from the ovary is called:

a) Ovulation b) Menarche c) Menopause d) Pregnancy Answer: a) Ovulation

Which of the following is a symptom of early puberty in boys?

a) Delayed growth spurt b) Decreased muscle mass c) Decreased testicular size d) Deepening of voice Answer: d) Deepening of voice

The age at which fertility begins in men is known as:

a) Puberty b) Menarche c) Menopause d) Adolescence Answer: a) Puberty

The secondary sexual characteristics in boys include all of the following except:

a) Growth of facial hair b) Enlargement of breasts c) Deepening of voice d) Growth of pubic hair Answer: b) Enlargement of breasts

Chapter 11 Force and Pressure

Which of the following is an example of a contact force?

a) Magnetic force b) Frictional force c) Gravitational force d) Electrostatic force Answer: b) Frictional force

The quantity that measures the heaviness of an object is called:

a) Mass b) Weight c) Force d) Pressure Answer: a) Mass

When we push or pull an object, we apply:

a) Heat force b) Electrical force c) Frictional force d) Muscular force Answer: d) Muscular force

A force that acts on an object to oppose its motion through a fluid is called:

a) Frictional force b) Tension force c) Drag force d) Magnetic force Answer: c) Drag force

What happens to the pressure when the area over which a force is applied decreases?

a) Pressure decreases b) Pressure remains the same c) Pressure increases d) Pressure becomes zero Answer: c) Pressure increases

The SI unit of pressure is:

a) Newton b) Watt c) Pascal d) Joule Answer: c) Pascal

When a force is applied perpendicular to the surface of an object, it is called:

a) Normal force b) Tension force c) Elastic force d) Gravitational force Answer: a) Normal force

Which law states that "Every object in a state of uniform motion tends to remain in that state of motion unless an external force is applied to it"? a) Newton’s First law of motion b) Newton’s Second law of motion c) Newton’s Third law of motion d) Law of Conservation of Momentum Answer: a) Newton’s First law of motion

The force exerted by a stretched or compressed spring is called: a) Tension force b) Magnetic force c) Elastic force d) Gravitational force Answer: c) Elastic force

Which force is responsible for holding the layers of the atmosphere together?

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Centripetal force d) Magnetic force Answer: a) Gravitational force

When a ball is dropped from a height, what type of force is acting on it during free fall?

a) Frictional force b) Air resistance force c) Magnetic force d) Gravitational force Answer: d) Gravitational force

Which law states that "The force exerted by an object on another object is equal in magnitude and op posite in direction"?

a) Newton’s First law of motion b) Newton’s Second law of motion c) Newton’s Third law of motion d) Law of Conservation of Momentum Answer: c) Newton’s Third law of motion

A force of 10 N is applied on an object with an area of 2 m². What is the pressure exerted on the objec t?

a) 5 Pa b) 10 Pa c) 20 Pa d) 30 Pa Answer: c) 20 Pa

Which type of force is responsible for the flow of electricity in a wire?

a) Magnetic force b) Electrical force c) Gravitational force d) Frictional force Answer: b) Electrical force

When a force is applied to change the shape or size of an object, it is called:

a) Frictional force b) Elastic force c) Magnetic force d) Gravitational force Answer: b) Elastic force

Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

a) Barometer b) Voltmeter c) Thermometer d) Hydrometer Answer: a) Barometer

The force that opposes the motion of one surface over another is known as:

a) Magnetic force b) Gravitational force c) Frictional force d) Centripetal force Answer: c) Frictional force

The force that opposes the motion of an object through a liquid is called:

a) Frictional force b) Tension force c) Drag force d) Magnetic force Answer: c) Drag force

When an object is in equilibrium, the net force acting on it is:

a) Zero b) Positive c) Negative d) Greater than zero Answer: a) Zero

Which law states that "The rate of change of momentum of an object is directly proportional to the app lied force"?

a) Newton's First law of motion b) Newton's Second law of motion c) Newton's Third law of motion d) Law of Conservation of Momentum Answer: b) Newton's Second law of motion

An object weighs 40 N in air and 35 N when submerged in water. What is the upthrust acting on the o bject?

a) 5 N b) 40 N c) 35 N d) 75 N Answer: a) 5 N

A person weighing 500 N stands on a rectangular board of length 1 m and width 0.5 m. What is the pr essure exerted by the person on the board?

a) 500 Pa b) 1000 Pa c) 250 Pa d) 2000 Pa Answer: d) 2000 Pa

Archimedes' principle states that:

a) The force applied to an object is equal to the mass of the object times its acceleration b) The pressure of a fluid decreases as its velocity increases c) The buoyant force acting on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object d) The acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the net force applied to it and inversely proportio nal to its mass Answer: c) The buoyant force acting on an object is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by the object

When a force is applied at an angle to the direction of motion, it can be resolved into two components.

These components are: a) Gravitational and magnetic b) Tensile and compressive c) Rectangular and parallel d) Transverse and longitudinal Answer: c) Rectangular and parallel

Which type of force is responsible for the attraction between two masses?

a) Electric force b) Magnetic force c) Gravitational force d) Frictional force Answer: c) Gravitational force

When a force is applied to an object and it moves in the direction of the force, work is said to be:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinite Answer: a) Positive

The S.I. unit of force is:

a) Newton b) Watt c) Pascal d) Joule Answer: a) Newton

The force required to pull an object along a surface, overcoming friction, is known as:

a) Tension force b) Elastic force c) Gravitational force d) Applied force Answer: d) Applied force

Pressure is defined as the:

a) Mass per unit volume b) Force per unit area c) Distance covered per unit time d) Energy per unit mass Answer: b) Force per unit area

The force of gravity acting on an object is also known as its:

a) Inertial force b) Gravitational force c) Contact force d) Applied force Answer: b) Gravitational force

Which law states that "For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction"?

a) Newton's First law of motion b) Newton's Second law of motion c) Newton's Third law of motion d) Law of Conservation of Momentum Answer: c) Newton's Third law of motion

Which of the following is an example of a non-contact force?

a) Frictional force b) Tension force c) Magnetic force d) Applied force Answer: c) Magnetic force

The force exerted by a liquid or gas on an object immersed in it is called:

a) Drag force b) Air resistance force c) Upthrust force d) Magnetic force Answer: c) Upthrust force

When a ball is thrown upwards, what type of force is acting on it at the highest point of its trajectory?

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Centripetal force d) Zero force Answer: a) Gravitational force

A force of 20 N is applied on an object with an area of 5 m². What is the pressure exerted on the objec t?

a) 4 Pa b) 20 Pa c) 100 Pa d) 400 Pa Answer: a) 4 Pa

Which instrument is used to measure force?

a) Barometer b) Voltmeter c) Thermometer d) Dynamometer Answer: d) Dynamometer

The force required to keep an object moving in a circular path is known as:

a) Frictional force b) Air resistance force c) Centripetal force d) Magnetic force Answer: c) Centripetal force

The upward force exerted by a liquid on a floating object is called:

a) Tension force b) Elastic force c) Gravitational force d) Buoyant force Answer: d) Buoyant force

Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting pressure?

a) Force applied b) Area over which the force is applied c) Shape of the object d) Mass of the object Answer: d) Mass of the object

The force required to stretch or compress a spring is directly proportional to the:

a) Mass of the object b) Length of the spring c) Force applied d) Stiffness of the spring Answer: c) Force applied

Which type of force causes the direction of an object's motion to change?

a) Magnetic force b) Frictional force c) Gravitational force d) Centripetal force Answer: d) Centripetal force

Which of the following is a contact force?

a) Magnetic force b) Gravitational force c) Frictional force d) All of the above Answer: c) Frictional force

The pressure in a liquid increases with:

a) Decrease in depth b) Increase in temperature c) Decrease in density d) Increase in depth Answer: d) Increase in depth

A box weighing 50 N is pushed with a force of 15 N. What is the net force acting on the box?

a) 50 N b) 15 N c) 65 N d) 35 N Answer: d) 35 N

When a force is applied to an object and it doesn't move, work done is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinite Answer: c) Zero

The surface through which a force is exerted on an object is called the:

a) Applied force b) Area of the object c) Weight of the object d) Contact surface Answer: d) Contact surface

The force that acts against the motion of an object sliding on a surface is called:

a) Tension force b) Gravitational force c) Frictional force d) Magnetic force Answer: c) Frictional force

The force that opposes the motion of an object through a fluid or gas is called:

a) Tension force b) Upthrust force c) Drag force d) Gravitational force Answer: c) Drag force

The force required to hold an object in equilibrium on an inclined plane is known as:

a) Tension force b) Normal force c) Frictional force d) Weight force Answer: c) Frictional force

The weight of an object depends on:

a) Volume of the object b) Mass of the object c) Pressure on the object d) Density of the object Answer: b) Mass of the object

Chapter 12 Friction

The force that opposes the motion between two surfaces in contact is called:

a. Inertia b. Friction c. Magnetic force d. Gravitational force Answer: b. Friction

Friction always acts in a direction ____ to the direction

of motion. a. Opposite b. Parallel c. Perpendicular d. Along Answer: a. Opposite

Which of the following surfaces produces the most friction?

a. Smooth surface b. Rough surface c. Polished surface d. None of the above Answer: b. Rough surface

Friction can be reduced by using:

a. Lubricants b. Rough surfaces c. Heavy objects d. None of the above Answer: a. Lubricants

Friction is beneficial in which of the following activities?

a. Riding a bicycle b. Sliding down a slide c. Writing with a pen d. None of the above Answer: c. Writing with a pen

The force of friction depends on:

a. Mass of the object b. Surface area of the object c. Speed of the object d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above

Which type of friction occurs when an object moves through a liquid?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: d. Fluid friction

The force required to start the motion of a stationary object is called:

a. Kinetic friction b. Rolling friction c. Static friction d. Fluid friction Answer: c. Static friction

Which type of friction is encountered when a wheel is rolling on the ground?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: c. Rolling friction

When an object is in motion, the type of friction encountered is:

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: b. Sliding friction

Which of the following is an example of sliding friction?

a. A car rolling on the road b. Pushing a heavy box across the floor c. Sliding down a water slide d. None of the above Answer: b. Pushing a heavy box across the floor

Which type of friction is generally considered useful?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: c. Rolling friction

The coefficient of friction is a measure of:

a. The force of friction b. The speed of an object c. The roughness of the surface d. The weight of an object Answer: c. The roughness of the surface

The force of friction always acts in a direction:

a. Opposite to motion b. Same as motion c. Perpendicular to motion d. None of the above Answer: a. Opposite to motion

The SI unit of frictional force is:

a. Newton b. Kilogram c. Joule d. Pascal Answer: a. Newton

Which of the following factors does not affect friction?

a. Surface area of the objects b. Weight of the objects c. Shape of the objects d. Color of the objects Answer: d. Color of the objects

When you rub your palms together for warmth, it is an example of:

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: b. Sliding friction

Why does a ball roll downhill without stopping?

a. Due to static friction b. Due to sliding friction c. Due to rolling friction d. Due to fluid friction Answer: c. Due to rolling friction

Which of the following statements is true about friction?

a. Friction always slows things down b. Friction always speeds things up c. Friction is a form of energy d. Friction does not exist in space Answer: a. Friction always slows things down

Which surface will have the least amount of friction?

a. Rough surface b. Smooth surface c. Irregular surface d. Both a and c Answer: b. Smooth surface

The force that prevents an object from sliding on a surface is called:

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: a. Static friction

Match the following types of friction with their examples:

(i) Static friction (a) Sliding a box across the floor (ii) Sliding friction (b) Pushing a car uphill (iii) Rolling friction (c) Rolling a ball on a table (iv) Fluid friction (d) Opening a door Answer: (i - d), (ii - a), (iii - c), (iv - b)

When you walk on the ground, which type of friction helps you move forward? a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: c. Rolling friction

Which of the following does not increase friction?

a. Rough surfaces b. Heavy objects c. Increased speed d. None of the above Answer: c. Increased speed

Which type of friction occurs when a car skids on a road?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: b. Sliding friction

Which type of friction is involved in the working of brakes in a car?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: b. Sliding friction

Which type of friction is considered to be the strongest?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: a. Static friction

Which of the following materials would produce the greatest amount of friction?

a. Metal on metal b. Metal on wood c. Wood on wood d. Plastic on plastic Answer: c. Wood on wood

Which of the following statements is true about friction?

a. Friction depends on the area of contact between two surfaces b. Friction does not depend on the nature of the surfaces in contact c. Friction is independent of the weight of the object d. None of the above Answer: a. Friction depends on the area of contact between two surfaces

Which of the following objects would have the least amount of friction with water? a. Wooden block b. Plastic block c. Metal block d. Rubber block Answer: b. Plastic block

Which force is responsible for the movement of a car?

a. Gravitational force b. Frictional force c. Magnetic force d. None of the above Answer: b. Frictional force

Why does a person slip while walking on a wet floor?

a. Due to static friction b. Due to sliding friction c. Due to rolling friction d. Due to fluid friction Answer: d. Due to fluid friction

Which type of friction allows you to write on paper with a pencil?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: b. Sliding friction

What is the effect of increasing the weight of an object on friction?

a. Friction decreases b. Friction increases c. Friction remains the same d. Depends on the surface Answer: b. Friction increases

Why do car tires have treads?

a. To increase friction b. To reduce friction c. To prevent rolling d. None of the above Answer: a. To increase friction

Which of the following types of friction is associated with a wheel rolling on a surface?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: c. Rolling friction

Which force is responsible for stopping a moving bicycle?

a. Gravitational force b. Frictional force c. Magnetic force d. None of the above Answer: b. Frictional force

Which of the following factors affects the force of friction between two surfaces?

a. Texture of the surfaces b. Weight of the object c. Nature of the surfaces d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above

Which type of friction is responsible for the heating of objects due to rubbing?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: b. Sliding friction

How does friction help to hold nails in a wooden board?

a. Friction increases the weight of the nails b. Friction increases the force of gravity on the nails c. Friction provides a grip between nails and wood d. None of the above Answer: c. Friction provides a grip between nails and wood

Which of the following materials produces the least amount of friction?

a. Wood on metal b. Metal on metal c. Rubber on metal d. Plastic on metal Answer: d. Plastic on metal

When an object is in motion and no external force is applied, it eventually stops due to:

a. Gravity b. Friction c. Magnetic field d. None of the above Answer: b. Friction

Which of the following statements is true about friction and energy?

a. Friction always converts energy into heat b. Friction always converts heat into energy c. Friction does not affect energy transfer d. None of the above Answer: a. Friction always converts energy into heat

Why is it easier to slide an object on a polished surface as compared to a rough surface?

a. Polished surfaces have low friction b. Rough surfaces have low friction c. Polished surfaces have high friction d. Rough surfaces have high friction Answer: a. Polished surfaces have low friction

Which of the following types of friction is also known as "drag"?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: d. Fluid friction

What type of friction allows cars to take turns smoothly?

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: c. Rolling friction

Friction between the soles of our shoes and the ground is an example of:

a. Static friction b. Sliding friction c. Rolling friction d. Fluid friction Answer: a. Static friction

What happens to the force of friction when the surface area of contact increases?

a. Friction increases b. Friction decreases c. Friction remains the same d. Depends on the weight of the object Answer: a. Friction increases

Which of the following statements is true about friction and motion?

a. Friction always opposes motion b. Friction always causes motion c. Friction has no effect on motion d. None of the above Answer: a. Friction always opposes motion

A sliding object comes to a stop because:

a. Gravity pulls it down b. Friction stops it c. Air resistance slows it down d. None of the above Answer: b. Friction stops it

Chapter 13 Sound

Sound is a form of:

a) Light energy b) Kinetic energy c) Potential energy d) Mechanical energy Answer: d) Mechanical energy

Which of the following materials does sound travel through the fastest?

a) Air b) Water c) Steel d) Wood Answer: c) Steel

Sound cannot travel through:

a) Vacuum b) Solid objects c) Liquid d) Gas Answer: a) Vacuum

Sound is produced by the vibration of:

a) Solid objects only b) Liquid only c) Gas only d) Any substance Answer: d) Any substance

The speed of sound is maximum in:

a) Air b) Solid objects c) Water d) Empty space Answer: b) Solid objects

The unit of measurement of sound is:

a) Decibel b) Meter c) Joule d) Newton Answer: a) Decibel

The frequency of sound is measured in:

a) Hertz b) Watts c) Ampere d) Volt Answer: a) Hertz

The pitch of a sound is determined by its:

a) Loudness b) Frequency c) Speed d) Wavelength Answer: b) Frequency

The loudness of sound is measured in:

a) Decibel b) Meter c) Joule d) Watt Answer: a) Decibel

The human ear can hear frequencies up to approximately:

a) 10 Hz b) 100 Hz c) 1000 Hz d) 20,000 Hz Answer: d) 20,000 Hz

Which of the following is an example of a musical instrument that produces sound by plucking or stru mming?

a) Flute b) Trumpet c) Guitar d) Drum Answer: c) Guitar

Sound travels fastest in which medium?

a) Air b) Water c) Vacuum d) Steel Answer: d) Steel

The sound produced by a vibrating object is characterized by its:

a) Wavelength b) Speed c) Frequency d) Amplitude Answer: c) Frequency

What is the minimum number of points required to graph a complete sound wave?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b) 2

Which part of the ear amplifies sound vibrations?

a) Eardrum b) Ear canal c) Cochlea d) Ossicles Answer: d) Ossicles

Which type of sound waves can travel through solids, liquids, and gases?

a) Transverse waves b) Longitudinal waves c) Electromagnetic waves d) None of the above Answer: b) Longitudinal waves

The sound produced by dolphins and bats is called:

a) Infrasound b) Ultrasound c) Audible sound d) Sonic boom Answer: b) Ultrasound

Which part of the ear converts sound waves into electrical signals?

a) Eardrum b) Ear canal c) Cochlea d) Auditory nerve Answer: c) Cochlea

The phenomenon of an echo is caused by:

a) Absorption of sound waves b) Refraction of sound waves c) Reflection of sound waves d) Diffraction of sound waves Answer: c) Reflection of sound waves

The number of vibrations per second of a sound wave is called its:

a) Intensity b) Wavelength c) Frequency d) Amplitude Answer: c) Frequency

Sound waves are a result of:

a) Magnetic forces b) Electric forces c) Vibrating objects d) Gravitational forces Answer: c) Vibrating objects

Sound travels in which direction?

a) Upwards b) Downwards c) In a straight line d) In all directions Answer: d) In all directions

The speed of sound in air at room temperature is approximately:

a) 340 meters per second b) 500 meters per second c) 1000 meters per second d) 1500 meters per second Answer: a) 340 meters per second

Which part of an ear amplifies sound waves?

a) Eardrum b) Cochlea c) Hammer d) Pinna Answer: a) Eardrum

When the amplitude of a sound wave increases, its loudness:

a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains the same d) Cannot be determined Answer: b) Increases

The ringing of a telephone is an example of:

a) Noise b) Musical sound c) Ultrasonic sound d) High-pitched sound Answer: b) Musical sound

Sound travels at its fastest speed through:

a) A vacuum b) Solids c) Gases d) Liquids Answer: b) Solids

Which part of the ear helps in maintaining balance?

a) Cochlea b) Auditory nerve c) Semicircular canals d) Eardrum Answer: c) Semicircular canals

The ability to distinguish between two different sounds is called:

a) Amplitude b) Frequency c) Wavelength d) Pitch Answer: d) Pitch

The distance between two consecutive compressions in a sound wave is:

a) Frequency b) Wavelength c) Amplitude d) Loudness Answer: b) Wavelength

The sound produced by a vibrating tuning fork is an example of a:

a) Transverse wave b) Longitudinal wave c) Electromagnetic wave d) None of the above Answer: b) Longitudinal wave

Which of the following materials is a good conductor of sound?

a) Rubber b) Glass c) Steel d) Wood Answer: c) Steel

The eardrum is also known as the:

a) Tympanic membrane b) Semicircular canals c) Cochlea d) Auditory nerve Answer: a) Tympanic membrane

The reflection of sound waves from a surface is called:

a) Refraction b) Diffraction c) Interference d) Echo Answer: d) Echo

What is the unit of measurement for the intensity of sound?

a) Decibel (dB) b) Meter (m) c) Hertz (Hz) d) Newton (N) Answer: a) Decibel (dB)

Which part of the ear collects sound vibrations?

a) Cochlea b) Eardrum c) Pinna d) Hammer Answer: c) Pinna

The sensation of sound is caused by:

a) Mechanical waves b) Infrared waves c) Electric waves d) No waves Answer: a) Mechanical waves

When a guitar string is plucked, it produces sound due to:

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Resonance d) Diffraction Answer: c) Resonance

The height of a sound wave determines its:

a) Frequency b) Pitch c) Loudness d) Wavelength Answer: c) Loudness

An ultrasonic sound wave has a frequency:

a) Above the range of human hearing b) Below the range of human hearing c) Same as the range of human hearing d) None of the above Answer: a) Above the range of human hearing

The sound produced when two or more sounds combine is called:

a) Echo b) Noise c) Interference d) Resonance Answer: c) Interference

Which material is known as a good absorber of sound?

a) Glass b) Wood c) Steel d) Rubber Answer: d) Rubber

The speed of sound is fastest in:

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) All have the same speed Answer: a) Solid

Why do we hear a sound produced at a distance after some time?

a) The speed of sound is slow b) The speed of sound is fast c) Sound travels in a straight line d) Sound waves get scattered Answer: a) The speed of sound is slow

The sound produced by a bat is an example of:

a) Ultrasonic sound b) Infrasonic sound c) Audible sound d) None of the above Answer: a) Ultrasonic sound

The vibrations produced by sound waves are in which direction?

a) Backwards b) Forwards c) Sideways d) In all directions Answer: d) In all directions

The unit of sound frequency is:

a) Decibel (dB) b) Meter (m) c) Hertz (Hz) d) Newton (N) Answer: c) Hertz (Hz)

Which of the following correctly represents a transverse wave?

a) Light wave b) Sound wave c) Longitudinal wave d) None of the above Answer: a) Light wave

Why does sound travel faster in a denser medium?

a) Denser mediums have more molecules to vibrate b) Denser mediums have fewer molecules to vibrate c) Denser mediums are colder d) There is no relation between density and speed of sound Answer: a) Denser mediums have more molecules to vibrate

Why does sound not travel in space?

a) There is no air in space b) Sound waves get absorbed in space c) Sound waves cannot travel in a vacuum d) Space is too cold for sound waves Answer: c) Sound waves cannot travel in a vacuum

Chapter 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current

What happens when an electric current passes through a conducting solution?

a) The solution boils b) Chemical reactions occur c) The solution evaporates d) The solution freezes Answer: b) Chemical reactions occur

Which material is commonly used as a conducting solution?

a) Water b) Oil c) Paper d) Plastic Answer: a) Water

Which of the following is a non-conducting solution?

a) Saltwater b) Lemon juice c) Vinegar d) Pure water Answer: d) Pure water

What is the process of depositing a layer of desired metal on another material using electricity?

a) Electroplating b) Purification c) Electrolysis d) Transformation Answer: a) Electroplating

In electroplating, the object to be electroplated is:

a) The positive electrode (anode) b) The negative electrode (cathode) c) Both the electrodes d) None of the above Answer: b) The negative electrode (cathode)

What metal is commonly used to electroplate objects?

a) Gold b) Silver c) Copper d) Aluminum Answer: c) Copper

What is the chemical formula of copper sulfate?

a) CuSO3 b) CuSO4 c) CuSO2 d) CuS2O4 Answer: b) CuSO4

Which of the following metals is commonly used for electroplating iron objects to prevent rusting?

a) Zinc b) Copper c) Aluminum d) Silver Answer: a) Zinc

What is the process of passing an electric current through a solution to decompose it into its constituent elements?

a) Electroplating b) Purification c) Electrolysis d) Distillation Answer: c) Electrolysis

Which of the following is not an electrolyte?

a) Common salt solution b) Lemon juice c) Pure water d) Vinegar Answer: c) Pure water

What is the purpose of adding salt to water before electrolysis?

a) To increase the conductivity of water b) To decrease the boiling point of water c) To enhance the color of water d) To make the water taste better Answer: a) To increase the conductivity of water

What do we call the positive electrode in an electrolytic cell?

a) Anode b) Cathode c) Electrolyte d) Solvent Answer: a) Anode

Which of the following materials is not used as an electrode in electrolysis?

a) Graphite b) Copper c) Aluminum d) Wood Answer: d) Wood

What gas is usually liberated at the cathode during electrolysis of water?

a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen Answer: b) Hydrogen

What is the process by which a substance decomposes by passing an electric current through it?

a) Electrolysis b) Sodium hydroxide c) Hydrochloric acid d) Potassium permanganate Answer: a) Electrolysis

Which of the following will not conduct electricity?

a) Dilute sulfuric acid b) Copper sulfate solution c) Sodium chloride solution d) Distilled water Answer: d) Distilled water

What is the unit of electric current?

a) Volt b) Ohm c) Ampere d) Watt Answer: c) Ampere

What effect does electric current have on metal objects immersed in a conducting solution?

a) Deterioration b) Cleaning c) Painting d) Deformation Answer: b) Cleaning

Which of the following is not a chemical effect of electric current?

a) Electroplating b) Electrolysis c) Corrosion d) Magnetism Answer: d) Magnetism

How does the thickness of an electroplated layer depend on the amount of electricity passed through t he electrolyte?

a) It increases with increasing electricity b) It decreases with increasing electricity c) It remains constant d) It is not related to electricity Answer: a) It increases with increasing electricity

What is the main purpose of electroplating an object?

a) To make it shine b) To increase its weight c) To improve its appearance and protect it from corrosion d) To make it conduct electricity Answer: c) To improve its appearance and protect it from corrosion

Which of the following materials changes color during electrolysis?

a) Copper b) Aluminum c) Iron d) Lead Answer: b) Aluminum

Which of the following statements about electrolytes is true?

a) Electrolytes cannot conduct electricity b) Electrolytes are always solids c) Electrolytes can be liquids or solutions that conduct ions d) Electrolytes are only used in batteries Answer: c) Electrolytes can be liquids or solutions that conduct ions

Which of the following is an example of electroplating?

a) Electrolysis of water b) Rusting of iron c) Discharging batteries d) Gold-plating jewelry Answer: d) Gold-plating jewelry 25. What is formed at the anode during the electrolysis of sodium chloride solution? a) Oxygen gas b) Chlorine gas c) Hydrogen gas d) Sodium gas Answer: b) Chlorine gas

What is the process of removing impurities from a metal using electricity?

a) Electroplating b) Electrolysis c) Doping d) Refining Answer: d) Refining

Which of the following is a common application of electroplating?

a) Cooking food b) Generating electricity c) Producing sound d) Coating metal objects Answer: d) Coating metal objects

What effect does the passing of electric current have on conducting liquids?

a) It heats them up b) It solidifies them c) It destroys them d) It causes chemical reactions Answer: d) It causes chemical reactions

Which metal is commonly used as an anode during electroplating of silver objects?

a) Gold b) Copper c) Aluminum d) Silver Answer: b) Copper

What happens at the cathode during the process of electrolysis?

a) Reduction occurs b) Oxidation occurs c) No reaction occurs d) Both reduction and oxidation occur Answer: a) Reduction occurs

What is the chemical formula of common salt?

a) NaOH b) H2SO4 c) NaCl d) HCl Answer: c) NaCl

Which of the following is not a type of electroplating?

a) Nickel plating b) Zinc plating c) Silver plating d) Copper plating Answer: b) Zinc plating

What is the process of separating a mixture of substances based on their boiling points?

a) Distillation b) Electrolysis c) Sublimation d) Filtration Answer: a) Distillation

Which of the following is a non-metallic conductor?

a) Copper b) Aluminum c) Graphite d) Silver Answer: c) Graphite

What is the chemical name of salt commonly used during the electrolysis of water?

a) Sodium hydroxide b) Sodium chloride c) Sodium carbonate d) Sodium sulfate Answer: b) Sodium chloride

What is the purpose of using a salt bridge in an electrolytic cell?

a) To prevent the flow of electricity b) To enhance the electrolysis process c) To connect the electrodes mechanically d) To maintain electrical neutrality Answer: d) To maintain electrical neutrality

Which gas is usually liberated at the anode during the electrolysis of water?

a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Oxygen

What is the purpose of passing an electric current through a conducting solution?

a) To produce heat b) To generate light c) To cause chemical reactions d) To increase conductivity Answer: c) To cause chemical reactions

What effect does the passage of electric current have on metals?

a) It melts the metal b) It solidifies the metal c) It corrodes the metal d) It causes the metal to decompose Answer: c) It corrodes the metal

Which of the following is not a method to prevent the corrosion of metals?

a) Electroplating b) Applying a layer of paint c) Adding acid to the metal d) Using corrosion-resistant materials Answer: c) Adding acid to the metal

How does the application of an electric current affect the rusting of iron?

a) It accelerates rusting b) It slows down rusting c) It prevents rusting completely d) It changes the color of rust Answer: a) It accelerates rusting

What is the process of converting an impure metal into its pure form using electricity called?

a) Electroplating b) Electrolysis c) Purification d) Refining Answer: d) Refining

What happens to the color of copper sulfate solution when an electric current is passed through it duri ng electrolysis?

a) It turns blue b) It turns red c) It turns green d) It remains colorless Answer: a) It turns blue

What is the purpose of using copper electrodes during the electrolysis of copper sulfate solution?

a) To prevent the formation of gas b) To prevent the flow of electricity c) To enhance the color change d) To replace the copper in the solution Answer: d) To replace the copper in the solution

Which of the following metals is commonly used to make electric wires?

a) Aluminum b) Copper c) Silver d) Iron Answer: b) Copper

What is the process of coating an iron object with a layer of zinc to prevent corrosion known as?

a) Electroplating b) Galvanization c) Oxidation d) Reduction Answer: b) Galvanization

Which gas is usually liberated when an electric current is passed through brine (sodium chloride) solut ion?

a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen c) Chlorine d) Nitrogen Answer: c) Chlorine

What happens when an electric current is passed through a copper sulfate solution using copper elect rodes?

a) The copper sulfate decomposes, and pure copper is plated on the cathode b) Pure copper plates on both the anode and the cathode c) The copper sulfate remains unchanged d) Only the cathode turns blue Answer: a) The copper sulfate decomposes, and pure copper is plated on the cathode

Which of the following materials is a poor conductor of electricity?

a) Glass b) Iron c) Aluminum d) Graphite Answer: a) Glass

What is the process of coating an object with a thin layer of silver called?

a) Alloys b) Galvanization c) Nickel plating d) Silver plating Answer: d) Silver plating

Chapter 15 Some Natural Phenomena

What causes lightning?

a) Movement of clouds b) Movement of electrons in the atmosphere c) Movement of raindrops d) Movement of birds Answer: b) Movement of electrons in the atmosphere

Thunder is caused by:

a) Movement of clouds b) Movement of electrons in the atmosphere c) Movement of raindrops d) Movement of birds Answer: b) Movement of electrons in the atmosphere

The shaking of the earth's surface is called:

a) Tornado b) Hurricane c) Earthquake d) Tsunami Answer: c) Earthquake

Earthquakes occur due to:

a) Movements of tectonic plates b) Heavy rainfall c) Volcanic eruptions d) High winds Answer: a) Movements of tectonic plates

Which of the following is NOT a natural phenomenon?

a) Sunrise b) Rainfall c) Earthquake d) Traffic jam Answer: d) Traffic jam

Lightning can be commonly observed during:

a) Rainy weather b) Clear sky c) Snowfall d) Foggy weather Answer: a) Rainy weather

A device used to detect and measure earthquakes is called a:

a) Seismograph b) Microscope c) Thermometer d) Barometer Answer: a) Seismograph

A tornado is characterized by:

a) Heavy rainfall b) Strong winds in a circular motion c) High atmospheric pressure d) Thick fog Answer: b) Strong winds in a circular motion

The funnel-shaped cloud that forms during a tornado is called a:

a) Cumulonimbus cloud b) Stratus cloud c) Cyclone cloud d) Tornado cloud Answer: d) Tornado cloud

What is the cause of a tsunami?

a) Earthquake under the ocean b) High tides c) Cyclone d) Volcanic eruption Answer: a) Earthquake under the ocean

A cyclone is characterized by:

a) Strong winds and heavy rainfall b) Calm weather and clear sky c) Snowfall and freezing temperatures d) Gentle breezes and moderate rainfall Answer: a) Strong winds and heavy rainfall

The Richter scale measures the:

a) Strength of hurricanes b) Intensity of rainfall c) Magnitude of earthquakes d) Speed of tornadoes Answer: c) Magnitude of earthquakes

The phenomenon of a solid turning into a gas (without becoming a liquid first) is called:

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Evaporation d) Condensation Answer: c) Evaporation

The process of conversion of a gas into a liquid is called:

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Evaporation d) Condensation Answer: d) Condensation

The presence of light during a thunderstorm causes:

a) Formation of lightning b) Decrease in thunder intensity c) Decrease in rainfall d) Formation of tornadoes Answer: a) Formation of lightning

A rainbow is formed due to the phenomenon of:

a) Reflection b) Refraction c) Scattering d) Dispersion Answer: b) Refraction

The color of the sky appears blue due to:

a) Reflection of sunlight b) Scattering of sunlight c) Absorption of sunlight d) Diffraction of sunlight Answer: b) Scattering of sunlight

The process in which plants make their own food is called:

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Digestion d) Evaporation Answer: a) Photosynthesis

The process of the gradual wearing away of rocks by wind, water, and other natural agents is called:

a) Erosion b) Weathering c) Sedimentation d) Deposit Answer: b) Weathering

The source of energy for the water cycle is:

a) Sun b) Moon c) Earth's core d) Stars Answer: a) Sun

Heat is transferred from the sun to the Earth through:

a) Conduction b) Convection c) Radiation d) Evaporation Answer: c) Radiation

The process of water molecules changing from a liquid to a gaseous state is called:

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: a) Evaporation

The process of water vapor changing into liquid droplets is called:

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: c) Condensation

What is the role of the ozone layer?

a) Absorbing carbon dioxide b) Providing oxygen for respiration c) Protecting Earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation d) Maintaining the pH balance of oceans Answer: c) Protecting Earth from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation

Hurricanes are most commonly observed in:

a) Coastal regions b) Desert regions c) Polar regions d) Mountainous regions Answer: a) Coastal regions

The process of water falling from the atmosphere to the Earth's surface is called:

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: d) Precipitation

What is the role of the atmosphere in the water cycle?

a) Storing water b) Absorbing water c) Transporting water d) Preventing water loss Answer: c) Transporting water

A solid object floats on water due to:

a) Its weight b) Its volume c) Its density d) Its color Answer: c) Its density

What type of energy is produced during an earthquake?

a) Electrical energy b) Mechanical energy c) Thermal energy d) Nuclear energy Answer: b) Mechanical energy

The movement of plates that causes earthquakes is also responsible for the formation of:

a) Mountains b) Deserts c) Oceans d) Volcanoes Answer: a) Mountains

Which of the following is a natural magnet?

a) Iron nail b) Plastic comb c) Glass rod d) Lodestone Answer: d) Lodestone

The phenomenon of attracting small pieces of iron or steel is called:

a) Repulsion b) Attraction c) Reflection d) Refraction Answer: b) Attraction

The part of the compass that always points towards the magnetic north is called the:

a) Needle b) Scale c) Dial d) Base Answer: a) Needle

Lightning is an example of:

a) Static electricity b) Current electricity c) Magnetism d) Mechanical energy Answer: a) Static electricity

A device used to protect buildings from lightning strikes is called a:

a) Lightning rod b) Circuit breaker c) Power strip d) Transformer Answer: a) Lightning rod

The process of separating different components of a mixture by spinning it rapidly is called:

a) Distillation b) Sedimentation c) Filtration d) Centrifugation Answer: d) Centrifugation

The process of separating salt from seawater is called:

a) Distillation b) Sedimentation c) Filtration d) Evaporation Answer: a) Distillation

The substance that is left behind after evaporation of seawater is:

a) Salt b) Water c) Sand d) Oxygen Answer: a) Salt

The process of converting a gas into a liquid by cooling is called:

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: c) Condensation

A volcano erupts when:

a) Water evaporates b) Lava cools down c) Rocks melt d) Pressure builds up inside the Earth's crust Answer: d) Pressure builds up inside the Earth's crust

The process of water loss through surface evaporation from plants is called:

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: b) Transpiration

Which of the following is NOT a natural disaster?

a) Earthquake b) Flood c) Forest fire d) Traffic jam Answer: d) Traffic jam

The process of breaking down of rocks into smaller pieces due to weathering is called:

a) Erosion b) Sedimentation c) Deposition d) Disintegration Answer: b) Sedimentation

The movement of air in a circular motion is called:

a) Tornado b) Hurricane c) Earthquake d) Tsunami Answer: b) Hurricane

Which layer of the Earth's atmosphere protects us from meteoroids?

a) Troposphere b) Stratosphere c) Mesosphere d) Thermosphere Answer: c) Mesosphere

Which of the following is NOT a source of renewable energy?

a) Solar power b) Wind power c) Fossil fuels d) Hydropower Answer: c) Fossil fuels

Which natural phenomenon is responsible for the formation of stalactites and stalagmites in caves?

a) Erosion b) Weathering c) Deposition d) Sedimentation Answer: c) Deposition

The phenomenon of the sudden release of energy in the Earth's crust is called:

a) Earthquake b) Tornado c) Hurricane d) Tsunami Answer: a) Earthquake

The process of removing impurities from water to make it safe for drinking is called:

a) Filtration b) Sedimentation c) Distillation d) Chlorination Answer: d) Chlorination

The process of conversion of a solid directly into a gas without becoming a liquid is called:

a) Melting b) Boiling c) Evaporation d) Sublimation Answer: d) Sublimation

Chapter 16 Light

What is light?

a) A form of energy b) A type of gas c) A solid substance d) A liquid medium Answer: a) A form of energy

How does light travel?

a) In a straight line b) In a curved path c) In a zigzag pattern d) In a circular motion Answer: a) In a straight line

Which of the following is not a natural source of light?

a) Sun b) Moon c) Stars d) Candle flame Answer: d) Candle flame

What is the fastest speed at which light travels?

a) 100 mph b) 186,000 miles per second c) 1,000 kilometers per hour d) 10 meters per second Answer: b) 186,000 miles per second

Which part of the eye allows light to enter?

a) Cornea b) Pupil c) Retina d) Iris Answer: b) Pupil

Which of the following materials is transparent?

a) Wood b) Metal c) Glass d) Brick Answer: c) Glass

What color does an object appear when it reflects all light?

a) Black b) White c) Green d) Red Answer: b) White

Which color has the highest frequency in the visible spectrum?

a) Red b) Blue c) Green d) Yellow Answer: b) Blue

What happens to the speed of light when it passes from air to water?

a) It slows down b) It speeds up c) It remains the same d) It stops Answer: a) It slows down

When light is incident on a mirror, it:

a) Absorbs the light b) Reflects the light c) Transmits the light d) Scatters the light Answer: b) Reflects the light

Which type of mirror can produce an enlarged and erect image?

a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror c) Concave mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: c) Concave mirror

What happens when light passes through a prism?

a) It bends b) It disappears c) It splits into different colors d) It becomes invisible Answer: c) It splits into different colors

What type of lens is used to correct nearsightedness?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Spherical lens Answer: b) Concave lens

What does the term 'reflection' mean in the context of light?

a) Bouncing of light off a surface b) Absorption of light by a surface c) Scattering of light by a surface d) Refraction of light through a surface Answer: a) Bouncing of light off a surface

Which type of mirror is used as a rear-view mirror in vehicles?

a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror c) Concave mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: b) Convex mirror

How many colors are there in a rainbow?

a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9 Answer: c) 7

What is the unit of measurement for the intensity of light?

a) Watts b) Volts c) Lumens d) Amperes Answer: c) Lumens

What happens to the shadow of an object when it is brought closer to a light source?

a) It becomes bigger b) It becomes smaller c) It stays the same size d) It disappears Answer: a) It becomes bigger

Which part of the eye helps us see color?

a) Pupil b) Cornea c) Lens d) Retina Answer: d) Retina

What is the angle of incidence when light is incident at a perpendicular angle?

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees Answer: c) 90 degrees

What type of lens is used to correct farsightedness?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Spherical lens Answer: a) Convex lens

The speed of light is fastest in which medium?

a) Air b) Water c) Glass d) Vacuum Answer: d) Vacuum

Which type of mirror is used in a shaving mirror?

a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror c) Concave mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: c) Concave mirror

What is the phenomenon behind the formation of a rainbow?

a) Reflection b) Dispersion c) Diffraction d) Polarization Answer: b) Dispersion

What is the angle of reflection when light reflects off a surface?

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) Equal to the angle of incidence Answer: d) Equal to the angle of incidence

How does a convex lens bend light rays?

a) Inward b) Outward c) Upward d) Downward Answer: b) Outward

Which part of the eye helps to focus light on the retina?

a) Pupil b) Iris c) Lens d) Cornea Answer: c) Lens

What is the phenomenon of bending of light as it passes from one medium to another called?

a) Reflection b) Diffraction c) Dispersion d) Refraction Answer: d) Refraction

What type of mirror always forms a virtual and smaller image?

a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror c) Concave mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: b) Convex mirror

How many types of primary colors are there?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c) 3 (Red, Green, Blue)

How does light help us in seeing objects around us?

a) It produces heat b) It illuminates objects c) It creates sound waves d) It gives shapes to objects Answer: b) It illuminates objects

When does an object appear transparent?

a) When it does not allow any light to pass through b) When it allows some light to pass through c) When it reflects all light d) When it absorbs all light Answer: b) When it allows some light to pass through

Which type of lens is thicker in the middle and thinner at the edges?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Spherical lens Answer: a) Convex lens

What is the phenomenon of bending of light when it passes around an obstacle called?

a) Reflection b) Diffraction c) Dispersion d) Refraction Answer: b) Diffraction

What type of mirror is used to see a wider area?

a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror c) Concave mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: b) Convex mirror

Which part of the eye appears colored and controls the size of the pupil?

a) Cornea b) Lens c) Retina d) Iris Answer: d) Iris

What is the process of bending of light when it passes through a lens called?

a) Reflection b) Diffraction c) Dispersion d) Refraction Answer: d) Refraction

When light passes through a convex lens, it converges to form what type of image?

a) Real and inverted b) Real and erect c) Virtual and inverted d) Virtual and erect Answer: a) Real and inverted

What color is obtained by mixing red and blue light?

a) Green b) Purple c) Yellow d) Orange Answer: b) Purple

What type of mirror is commonly used in dressers and bathrooms?

a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror c) Concave mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: a) Plane mirror

Which type of lens can form both real and virtual images?

a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Spherical lens Answer: a) Convex lens

What effect does a concave lens have on light rays? a) It converges them

b) It diverges them c) It absorbs them d) It scatters them Answer: b) It diverges them

How does the color of an object appear when it absorbs all colors of light?

a) White b) Black c) Red d) Green Answer: b) Black

When light passes from a denser medium to a rarer medium, what happens to its speed?

a) It slows down b) It speeds up c) It remains the same d) It varies randomly Answer: b) It speeds up

Which type of mirror gives a magnified, virtual, and erect image?

a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror c) Concave mirror d) Spherical mirror Answer: b) Convex mirror

What is the angle of deviation for a ray of light passing through a prism?

a) 0 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 90 degrees d) Varies with the material of the prism Answer: d) Varies with the material of the prism

What is the role of the lens in a camera?

a) To focus light on the sensor b) To capture light c) To filter light d) To create shadows Answer: a) To focus light on the sensor

What happens to the image formed in a plane mirror when the mirror is tilted?

a) The image becomes smaller b) The image becomes larger c) The image remains the same size d) The image disappears Answer: c) The image remains the same size

Which part of the eye is responsible for detecting color?

a) Pupil b) Retina c) Cornea d) Lens Answer: b) Retina

What happens when light is incident on a concave mirror's focus?

a) It diverges parallel to the principal axis b) It converges parallel to the principal axis c) It reflects back on itself d) It forms a real image behind the mirror Answer: b) It converges parallel to the principal axis

Chapter 17 Stars and The Solar System

What is a star?

a) A burning ball of gas b) A massive satellite c) A giant planet d) A type of galaxy Answer: a) A burning ball of gas

Which of the following is not a star?

a) Sun b) Moon c) Sirius d) Betelgeuse Answer: b) Moon

Which element is primarily responsible for the energy production in stars?

a) Hydrogen b) Oxygen c) Carbon d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Hydrogen

The process through which stars produce energy is called:

a) Fusion b) Fission c) Melting d) Combustion Answer: a) Fusion

What is a supernova?

a) An exploding star b) A star system with two stars c) A star that emits radio waves d) A star with a constant energy output Answer: a) An exploding star

Our solar system consists of:

a) One star and eight planets b) One star and nine planets c) One star and five planets d) One star and six planets Answer: a) One star and eight planets

Which of the following is the largest planet in our solar system?

a) Mars b) Earth c) Jupiter d) Uranus Answer: c) Jupiter

What is the closest star to our solar system?

a) Proxima Centauri b) Sirius c) Alpha Centauri d) Betelgeuse Answer: a) Proxima Centauri

The inner planets of our solar system are:

a) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars b) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune c) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus d) Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn Answer: a) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars

What is a planetesimal?

a) A small planet b) A large asteroid c) A building block of planets d) A moon revolving around a planet Answer: c) A building block of planets

Which planet in our solar system has the Great Red Spot?

a) Jupiter b) Saturn c) Mars d) Neptune Answer: a) Jupiter

What is the age of the universe estimated to be?

a) 4.5 billion years b) 13.8 billion years c) 2 billion years d) 10 million years Answer: b) 13.8 billion years

What is a black hole?

a) A region in space with no gravity b) A collapsed star with extremely high density c) A planet formed after a supernova explosion d) A star with low luminosity Answer: b) A collapsed star with extremely high density

Which planet is known as the "Red Planet"?

a) Mars b) Mercury c) Venus d) Jupiter Answer: a) Mars

How many moons does Earth have?

a) None b) One c) Two d) Five Answer: b) One

Which planet has the most extensive ring system?

a) Saturn b) Uranus c) Jupiter d) Neptune Answer: a) Saturn

What is the name of the largest moon in our solar system?

a) Titan b) Ganymede c) Europa d) Callisto Answer: b) Ganymede

What causes day and night on Earth?

a) Earth's rotation b) Earth's revolution around the Sun c) Moon's gravitational pull d) Sun's gravitational pull Answer: a) Earth's rotation

Which star is closest to the Earth after the Sun?

a) Alpha Centauri b) Sirius c) Proxima Centauri d) Betelgeuse Answer: c) Proxima Centauri

The Hubble Space Telescope is used to study:

a) Stars and galaxies b) Planets and moons c) Meteors and comets d) Asteroids and meteoroids Answer: a) Stars and galaxies

What is a light-year?

a) A unit of time b) A unit of speed c) A unit of distance d) A unit of energy Answer: c) A unit of distance

The process through which a star transforms into a red giant is called:

a) Fusion b) Nuclear decay c) Supernova d) Stellar evolution Answer: d) Stellar evolution

Which planet is known for its beautiful ring system?

a) Neptune b) Uranus c) Saturn d) Jupiter Answer: c) Saturn

The International Space Station (ISS) is a:

a) Spacecraft exploring Mars b) Space telescope observing distant galaxies c) Human-made space station orbiting Earth d) Satellite studying the Sun Answer: c) Human-made space station orbiting Earth

What is a comet?

a) A small, rocky object orbiting the Sun b) A giant planet with rings c) A ball of gas emitting light d) A mixture of ice, dust, and gas Answer: d) A mixture of ice, dust, and gas

What is a satellite?

a) A small, rocky object orbiting the Sun b) A human-made object orbiting a planet or celestial body c) A star system with two stars d) A planet with rings Answer: b) A human-made object orbiting a planet or celestial body

Which star exhibits the phenomenon of nuclear fusion in its core?

a) Sun b) Moon c) Venus d) Mars Answer: a) Sun

How does the Sun produce light and heat?

a) Through nuclear fusion b) Through burning c) Through gravitational pull d) Through radioactive decay Answer: a) Through nuclear fusion

What is the source of energy for stars?

a) Nuclear fusion b) Chemical reactions c) Solar radiation d) Gravitational pull Answer: a) Nuclear fusion

Which planet is often referred to as the "evening star" or "morning star"?

a) Venus b) Jupiter c) Saturn d) Uranus Answer: a) Venus

Which planet is known for its distinct rings made up of ice particles?

a) Saturn b) Jupiter c) Uranus d) Neptune Answer: a) Saturn

What are the small fragments of rocky or metallic substances that enter the Earth's atmosphere called ?

a) Meteors b) Asteroids c) Comets d) Meteoroids Answer: d) Meteoroids

What causes the occurrence of seasons on Earth?

a) Tilt of Earth's axis relative to its orbit around the Sun b) Distance of Earth from the Sun c) Gravitational pull of the Moon d) Rotation of Earth on its axis Answer: a) Tilt of Earth's axis relative to its orbit around the Sun

How many natural satellites (or moons) does Mars have?

a) None b) One c) Two d) Three Answer: a) None

What is the name of the largest volcano in our solar system, located on Mars?

a) Olympus Mons b) Mount Everest c) Mount Vesuvius d) Mount Kilimanjaro Answer: a) Olympus Mons

What is an asteroid?

a) A small, rocky object orbiting the Sun b) A planetesimal c) A moon of Jupiter d) A star with low luminosity Answer: a) A small, rocky object orbiting the Sun

Which planet is known for its iconic rings and prominent gap called the "Cassini Division"?

a) Saturn b) Jupiter c) Uranus d) Neptune Answer: a) Saturn

What is the name of the space probe that landed on the surface of Mars in 2021?

a) Voyager 1 b) Spirit c) Perseverance d) Curiosity Answer: c) Perseverance

Stars emit light due to the process of:

a) Nuclear fusion b) Nuclear fission c) Chemical reactions d) Gravitational pull Answer: a) Nuclear fusion

The process through which stars exhaust their nuclear fuel and collapse under gravity is called:

a) Supernova b) Protostar c) Black hole d) Stellar death Answer: d) Stellar death

What is the name of the galaxy that contains our solar system?

a) The Milky Way b) Andromeda c) Sombrero d) Whirlpool Answer: a) The Milky Way

Which planet in our solar system has the most similar conditions to Earth?

a) Venus b) Mars c) Saturn d) Jupiter Answer: b) Mars

What is the name given to the region around black holes from which no light or matter can escape?

a) Event horizon b) Singularity c) Ergosphere d) Accretion disk Answer: a) Event horizon

What causes the phenomenon of a shooting star or meteor shower?

a) Entry of meteoroids into Earth's atmosphere b) Collisions between two asteroids c) Eruption of a volcano d) Nuclear fusion in stars Answer: a) Entry of meteoroids into Earth's atmosphere

The "Big Bang" is a theory that explains the origin of:

a) The universe b) Stars and galaxies c) Planets and moons d) Comets and asteroids Answer: a) The universe

What is the name of the spacecraft that carried humans to the Moon for the first time in 1969?

a) Apollo 11 b) Voyager 1 c) Hubble Space Telescope d) International Space Station (ISS) Answer: a) Apollo 11

What is the name of the telescope launched by NASA to study distant galaxies and celestial objects?

a) Hubble Space Telescope b) Spitzer Space Telescope c) Kepler Space Telescope d) James Webb Space Telescope Answer: a) Hubble Space Telescope

Which planet has a Great Dark Spot similar to Jupiter's Great Red Spot?

a) Neptune b) Uranus c) Saturn d) Mars Answer: a) Neptune

What is the name of the space agency that successfully landed a rover on the far side of the Moon in 2019?

a) NASA b) ESA (European Space Agency) c) Roscosmos (Russian Space Agency) d) CNSA (China National Space Administration) Answer: d) CNSA (China National Space Administration)

What is the name of the largest volcano in our solar system, located on Venus?

a) Mauna Kea b) Olympus Mons c) Mount Everest d) Sarychev Peak Answer: b) Olympus Mons

Chapter 18 Pollution of Air and Water

What is pollution?

a) The purification of natural resources b) The contamination of natural resources c) The conservation of natural resources d) The separation of natural resources Answer: b) The contamination of natural resources

Which of the following is a major source of air pollution?

a) Forests b) Rivers c) Factories d) Mountains Answer: c) Factories

The burning of fossil fuels releases which gas into the air?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

Acid rain is caused by the release of which gases into the atmosphere?

a) Carbon dioxide and oxygen b) Nitrogen and oxygen c) Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides d) Methane and carbon monoxide Answer: c) Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides

What is the primary cause of water pollution?

a) Excessive rainfall b) Natural disasters c) Industrial waste d) A decrease in water levels Answer: c) Industrial waste

Which of the following is an example of a non-point source of water pollution?

a) Factory wastewater b) Sewage treatment plants c) Oil spills d) Runoff from agricultural fields Answer: d) Runoff from agricultural fields

The pH level below 7 in water indicates:

a) Acidic water b) Alkaline water c) Neutral water d) Pure water Answer: a) Acidic water

Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of:

a) The amount of oxygen present in water b) The amount of pollution in water c) The amount of oxygen needed by aquatic organisms d) The amount of dissolved solids in water Answer: c) The amount of oxygen needed by aquatic organisms

Which of the following is a method to reduce air pollution?

a) Burning plastic waste b) Using public transportation c) Increasing industrial activities d) Decreasing forest cover Answer: b) Using public transportation

What are the main causes of indoor air pollution?

a) Exhaust from vehicles b) Smoke from factories c) Dust and allergens d) Pesticides and fertilizers Answer: c) Dust and allergens

What is the primary source of outdoor noise pollution?

a) Construction sites b) Household appliances c) Natural disasters d) Birds and insects Answer: a) Construction sites

The process of removing salt and impurities from seawater is known as:

a) Desalination b) Filtration c) Distillation d) Chlorination Answer: a) Desalination

Which substance is responsible for depleting the ozone layer in the atmosphere?

a) Carbon dioxide b) Sulfur dioxide c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) d) Nitrogen oxides Answer: c) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

What is the most effective way to conserve water?

a) Taking shorter showers b) Leaving faucets running c) Washing cars daily d) Watering plants during the hottest part of the day Answer: a) Taking shorter showers

What is Eutrophication?

a) The process of cleaning polluted water b) The process of adding nutrients to water bodies c) The process of removing toxic substances from water d) The process of depleting oxygen levels in water Answer: b) The process of adding nutrients to water bodies

Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Solar power d) Nuclear power Answer: c) Solar power

What is the greenhouse effect?

a) The trapping of heat by the ozone layer b) The conversion of sunlight into energy c) The depletion of ozone in the atmosphere d) The trapping of heat by greenhouse gases Answer: d) The trapping of heat by greenhouse gases

What is the main cause of thermal pollution in water bodies?

a) Discharge of hot water from industries b) Accumulation of plastic waste c) Runoff from agricultural fields d) Oil spills in the ocean Answer: a) Discharge of hot water from industries

Which of the following activities can help reduce water pollution?

a) Disposing of chemicals in the sink b) Recycling plastic bottles c) Dumping waste in rivers d) Using excessive amounts of fertilizers Answer: b) Recycling plastic bottles

What is the recommended pH level for safe drinking water?

a) 1 b) 5 c) 7 d) 14 Answer: c) 7

Which of the following diseases is caused by air pollution?

a) Dengue b) Asthma c) Cholera d) Malaria Answer: b) Asthma

How does water pollution affect aquatic life?

a) It improves their habitat b) It provides essential nutrients c) It disrupts their reproductive cycles d) It boosts their population growth Answer: c) It disrupts their reproductive cycles

Which chemical is responsible for "minamata disease" in humans?

a) Mercury b) Arsenic c) Lead d) Cyanide Answer: a) Mercury

What is the main cause of air pollution in metropolitan cities?

a) High traffic congestion b) Increased forest cover c) Low population density d) Fewer industrial activities Answer: a) High traffic congestion

Which government agency is responsible for monitoring and controlling air pollution in India?

a) WHO (World Health Organization) b) BOD (Board of Directors) c) EPA (Environmental Protection Agency) d) CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board) Answer: d) CPCB (Central Pollution Control Board)

What is the role of wetlands in water purification?

a) They release toxic chemicals into water bodies b) They provide breeding grounds for mosquitoes c) They filter pollutants and regulate water flow d) They cause eutrophication in water bodies Answer: c) They filter pollutants and regulate water flow

How can individuals contribute to reducing air pollution?

a) Using electric vehicles b) Burning waste in open areas c) Cutting down trees for fuel d) Using plastic bags for shopping Answer: a) Using electric vehicles

What is the main cause of the depletion of the ozone layer?

a) Volcanic eruptions b) Industrial emissions c) Deforestation d) Acid rain Answer: b) Industrial emissions

Which of the following activities causes water pollution in rivers?

a) Using eco-friendly cleaning products b) Proper disposal of hazardous waste c) Dumping untreated sewage d) Collecting rainwater for reuse Answer: c) Dumping untreated sewage

How does noise pollution affect human health?

a) Improves concentration and focus b) Causes hearing loss and stress c) Reduces communicative abilities d) Enhances sleep patterns Answer: b) Causes hearing loss and stress

What is the main cause of thermal inversion?

a) High temperatures during summer b) Increased wind speeds c) Geographic location d) Trapping of pollutants near the Earth's surface Answer: d) Trapping of pollutants near the Earth's surface

How can industries contribute to reducing water pollution?

a) Discharging untreated wastewater b) Implementing proper waste management systems c) Using water-efficient technologies d) Increasing the usage of plastic packaging Answer: c) Using water-efficient technologies

What is the impact of air pollution on wildlife?

a) Decreases biodiversity b) Promotes habitat conservation c) Enhances reproductive abilities d) Increases resistance to diseases Answer: a) Decreases biodiversity

Which of the following is a point source of water pollution?

a) Industrial discharge b) Rainwater harvesting c) Natural springs d) Underground water borewells Answer: a) Industrial discharge

How does deforestation contribute to air pollution?

a) Reduces the release of oxygen b) Increases the absorption of carbon dioxide c) Alters natural rainfall patterns d) Supports the growth of vegetation Answer: c) Alters natural rainfall patterns

What is the impact of water pollution on human health?

a) Improves immune system b) Causes waterborne diseases c) Enhances cognitive abilities d) Boosts energy levels Answer: b) Causes waterborne diseases

What is the primary source of indoor air pollution in households?

a) Cooking smoke b) Indoor plants c) Air fresheners d) Proper ventilation Answer: a) Cooking smoke

Which harmful gas is released by burning fossil fuels in vehicles?

a) Carbon monoxide b) Nitrous oxide c) Oxygen d) Hydrogen Answer: a) Carbon monoxide

How does water pollution affect agriculture?

a) Increases crop productivity b) Provides essential nutrients c) Decreases soil fertility d) Enhances pollination process Answer: c) Decreases soil fertility

What is the impact of noise pollution on marine life?

a) Increases migration patterns b) Enhances reproductive abilities c) Disrupts communication and navigation d) Stimulates growth and development Answer: c) Disrupts communication and navigation

Which of the following is a renewable source of water?

a) Glaciers b) Underground wells c) Oceans and seas d) Lakes and rivers Answer: d) Lakes and rivers

What is the role of aquatic plants in water purification?

a) Release pollutants into water bodies b) Promote algal bloom formation c) Absorb excess nutrients and toxins d) Decrease the dissolved oxygen levels Answer: c) Absorb excess nutrients and toxins

Which of the following is NOT a method to conserve air quality?

a) Afforestation b) Reduction of vehicular emissions c) Regular vehicle maintenance d) Open burning of waste materials Answer: d) Open burning of waste materials

What is the impact of water pollution on the fishing industry? a) Increases fish populations b) Improves fish habitats c) Decreases fish populations d) Boosts fish growth rate Answer: c) Decreases fish populations

Which of the following gases contributes to the formation of smog?

a) Oxygen b) Methane c) Sulfur dioxide d) Nitrogen Answer: c) Sulfur dioxide

What is the impact of air pollution on historical monuments?

a) Enhances their lifespan b) Causes discoloration and degradation c) Reduces the accumulation of dust d) Boosts their aesthetic appeal Answer: b) Causes discoloration and degradation

Which of the following is NOT a method to conserve water?

a) Rainwater harvesting b) Repairing leaky faucets c) Watering plants during peak sunlight hours d) Using water-efficient appliances Answer: c) Watering plants during peak sunlight hours

How does water pollution affect the availability of safe drinking water?

a) Increases the availability of safe drinking water b) Improves the taste of drinking water c) Decreases the availability of safe drinking water d) Enhances the mineral content of drinking water Answer: c) Decreases the availability of safe drinking water

Which of the following diseases is caused by water pollution?

a) Influenza b) Typhoid c) Jaundice d) Tetanus Answer: b) Typhoid

What is the main cause of the depletion of freshwater resources?

a) Increased precipitation b) Reduced evaporation rates c) Overconsumption and wastage d) Decreased population growth Answer: c) Overconsumption and wastage

Chapter 19 Importance of Water

Which of the following is not a property of water?

a) Colorless b) Odorless c) Tasteless d) Dense Answer: d) Dense

What is the maximum temperature at which water boils?

a) 100°C b) 0°C c) 212°F d) 37°C Answer: a) 100°C

What percentage of the Earth's surface is covered with water?

a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 97% Answer: d) 97%

Which of the following is not a source of water pollution?

a) Industrial waste b) Agricultural runoff c) Proper waste management d) Oil spills Answer: c) Proper waste management

What percentage of the human body is made up of water?

a) 50% b) 60% c) 70% d) 80% Answer: c) 70%

Which gas is released when water is split during photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Hydrogen d) Nitrogen Answer: a) Oxygen

What process removes impurities from water, making it safe for drinking?

a) Evaporation b) Filtration c) Condensation d) Distillation Answer: b) Filtration

What is the pH value of pure water?

a) 7 b) 1 c) 14 d) 0 Answer: a) 7

What is the main factor responsible for the water cycle?

a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Precipitation d) Transpiration Answer: a) Evaporation

Which of the following is not a source of freshwater?

a) Rivers b) Lakes c) Oceans d) Underground aquifers Answer: c) Oceans

Which substance can dissolve more substances than any other liquid?

a) Water b) Oil c) Alcohol d) Acid Answer: a) Water

Which process involves the conversion of water vapor into liquid water?

a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Desalination d) Transpiration Answer: b) Condensation

What property of water allows it to stick to surfaces?

a) Adhesion b) Cohesion c) Density d) Viscosity Answer: a) Adhesion

What is the primary source of energy in the water cycle?

a) Sun b) Moon c) Stars d) Earth's core Answer: a) Sun

Which of the following is not an example of a renewable water resource?

a) Rainwater b) Groundwater c) Rivers d) Fossils Answer: d) Fossils

What is the average percentage of water in the human brain?

a) 45% b) 65% c) 85% d) 95% Answer: b) 65%

What is the process of converting seawater into freshwater called?

a) Desalination b) Distillation c) Filtration d) Precipitation Answer: a) Desalination

What is the freezing point of water?

a) 0°C b) 100°C c) -10°C d) 50°C Answer: a) 0°C

Which term refers to the loss of water from plants through their leaves?

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: b) Transpiration

What is the chemical formula for water?

a) C2H6O b) H2O c) CO2 d) NaCl Answer: b) H2O 21. Water expands when it freezes. True or False? Answer: True

What role does water play in regulating body temperature?

a) It cools down the body b) It heats up the body c) It has no effect on body temperature d) It helps in digestion Answer: a) It cools down the body

What is the process by which water from plants is released into the atmosphere?

a) Photosynthesis b) Respiration c) Absorption d) Evapotranspiration Answer: d) Evapotranspiration

What is the name of the process through which plants absorb water from the ground?

a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Transpiration d) Photosynthesis Answer: a) Osmosis

Which of the following is not a property of water?

a) Surface tension b) Ability to dissolve many substances c) Incompressibility d) Ability to conduct electricity Answer: d) Ability to conduct electricity

Which of the following is not a role of water in the human body?

a) Transportation of nutrients b) Lubrication of joints c) Protection of internal organs d) Production of energy Answer: d) Production of energy

What is the term for the process of water molecules changing from a gas to a liquid state?

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Sublimation d) Precipitation Answer: a) Condensation

Which is the largest freshwater lake in the world?

a) Lake Superior b) Lake Victoria c) Lake Baikal d) Great Bear Lake Answer: c) Lake Baikal

What is the primary function of water in the human body?

a) Transporting oxygen b) Digesting food c) Regulating body temperature d) Building muscle Answer: c) Regulating body temperature

What is the relationship between water and buoyancy?

a) Water increases buoyancy b) Water decreases buoyancy c) Water has no effect on buoyancy d) Water depends on the object's density Answer: a) Water increases buoyancy

What is the process by which water returns to the atmosphere through plants called?

a) Transpiration b) Percolation c) Absorption d) Infiltration Answer: a) Transpiration

What is the primary reason water is considered a universal solvent?

a) Its chemical composition b) Its ability to dissolve many substances c) Its ability to conduct electricity d) Its role in the water cycle Answer: b) Its ability to dissolve many substances

Which of the following is not a use of water in agriculture?

a) Irrigation b) Fertilizer production c) Livestock watering d) Pesticide application Answer: b) Fertilizer production

What is the process of water vapor turning directly into ice called?

a) Evaporation b) Condensation c) Sublimation d) Precipitation Answer: c) Sublimation

What is the term for the process of water seeping into the ground?

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Percolation d) Condensation Answer: c) Percolation

Which of the following is not a property of water due to its high surface tension?

a) Capillarity b) Meniscus formation c) Floating of objects on water surface d) Pressure exertion on container walls Answer: c) Floating of objects on water surface

What is the process by which water moves from the ground to the atmosphere?

a) Transpiration b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: b) Evaporation

What is the process of removing salt and other impurities from seawater called?

a) Filtration b) Evaporation c) Desalination d) Distillation Answer: c) Desalination

What is the term for the falling of water droplets from clouds in the form of rain, snow, or hail?

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Condensation d) Precipitation Answer: d) Precipitation

Water pollution primarily occurs due to the discharge of __________ into water bodies.

a) Gases b) Solids c) Liquids d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

How does water regulate the Earth's temperature?

a) By absorbing heat from the Sun b) By releasing heat into the atmosphere c) By creating clouds that reflect sunlight d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

What is the process by which water moves through plants and into the atmosphere through tiny openi ngs in leaves called?

a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Transpiration d) Absorption Answer: c) Transpiration

What is the largest source of freshwater for human use?

a) Rivers b) Lakes c) Glaciers d) Groundwater Answer: d) Groundwater

What is the name of the process by which water droplets form on a cold surface?

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Sublimation d) Precipitation Answer: a) Condensation

What percentage of Earth's water is available as freshwater for human use?

a) 10% b) 25% c) 50% d) 3% Answer: d) 3%

Water is essential for the process of _____________, which helps in breaking down food and absorbi ng nutrients.

a) Excretion b) Respiration c) Digestion d) Circulation Answer: c) Digestion

Which of the following is not a form of precipitation?

a) Rain b) Snow c) Hail d) Dew Answer: d) Dew

What happens when water reacts with sodium metal?

a) It produces hydrogen gas b) It produces carbon dioxide gas c) It produces oxygen gas d) It produces no gas Answer: a) It produces hydrogen gas

Water plays a crucial role in maintaining ___________ of the Earth's climate system.

a) Stability b) Instability c) Pollution d) Erosion Answer: a) Stability

What is the term for the process of water moving through soil and rocks underground?

a) Evaporation b) Transpiration c) Infiltration d) Precipitation Answer: c) Infiltration

Chapter 1 Rational Numbers

Which of the following is a rational number?

a) π b) √2 c) 5/8 d) e

Simplify the expression: (3/5) ÷ (4/9)

a) 9/20 b) 27/20 c) 48/45 d) 27/10

Find the value of √(16/25) ÷ √(49/64)

a) 4/7 b) 5/8 c) 2/3 d) 3/4

Which of the following is an irrational number?

a) 1/2 b) -5 c) √7 d) 3/4

Convert 0.6 recurring (0.666...) to a fraction.

a) 2/3 b) 3/5 c) 5/8 d) 7/9

Find the reciprocal of -3/4.

a) -4/3 b) -3/4 c) 4/3 d) 3/4

Simplify the expression: 7 + (2/3) - (1/5)

a) 37/15 b) 41/15 c) 16/15 d) 22/15

Which of the following is a whole number?

a) 2/3 b) -5 c) √7 d) 3/4

Convert 2/5 into a decimal.

a) 0.5 b) 0.2 c) 0.4 d) 0.6

Solve for x: 3x - 5 = 7

a) x = 4 b) x = -4 c) x = 2 d) x = -2

Which of the following is a non-terminating, non-repeating decimal?

a) 0.3 b) 0.6 c) 0.818181... d) 0.5

Simplify the expression: 2/3 + 5/6

a) 1/2 b) 3/4 c) 2/3 d) 4/5

Find the value of 0.16 ÷ 0.4

a) 0.04 b) 0.4 c) 4 d) 40

Which of the following is an irrational number?

a) √9 b) √16 c) √25 d) √10

Convert 3.75 into a fraction.

a) 3/8 b) 15/4 c) 375/100 d) 3/4

Simplify the expression: (7/10) ÷ (5/8)

a) 56/35 b) 14/25 c) 28/25 d) 14/35

Find the value of √(81/100) ÷ √(49/225)

a) 9/7 b) 7/9 c) 2/3 d) 3/2

Which of the following is an irrational number?

a) 5/6 b) 9/4 c) √5 d) 7/8

Convert 0.333... into a fraction.

a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 2/3 d) 3/4

Find the reciprocal of 4/5.

a) 1/4 b) 5/4 c) 4/5 d) 5/6

Simplify the expression: 2 + (3/4) - (1/8)

a) 19/8 b) 21/8 c) 17/8 d) 23/8

Which of the following is a whole number?

a) 1/2 b) -5 c) √7 d) 3/4

Convert 4/7 into a decimal.

a) 0.7 b) 0.6 c) 0.573 d) 0.571428...

Solve for x: (2/3)x + 1 = 5

a) x = 6 b) x = -6 c) x = 2 d) x = -2

Which of the following is a non-terminating, non-repeating decimal?

a) 0.2 b) 0.5 c) 0.333... d) 0.75

Simplify the expression: 7/8 + 3/4

a) 10/12 b) 12/16 c) 14/16 d) 18/16 27. Find the value of 1.25 ÷ 0.5 a) 2.5 b) 2.75 c) 2.5 d) 2.25

Which of the following is an irrational number?

a) √4 b) √10 c) √16 d) √20

Convert 2.9 into a fraction.

a) 29/10 b) 29/100 c) 29/1000 d) 29/10000

Simplify the expression: (5/6) ÷ (7/8)

a) 40/42 b) 35/56 c) 28/35 d) 30/42 31. Find the value of √(121/169) ÷ √(36/49) a) 11/13 b) 10/11 c) 13/11 d) 5/6

Which of the following is an irrational number?

a) 0.25 b) 0.625 c) √5 d) 0.125

Convert 0.5 recurring (0.555...) to a fraction.

a) 2/3 b) 1/2 c) 3/4 d) 4/5

Find the reciprocal of 3/4.

a) 4/3 b) 3/4 c) 5/2 d) 4/5

Simplify the expression: 3/2 + (1/3) - (1/4)

a) 49/24 b) 43/24 c) 53/24 d) 47/24

Which of the following is a whole number?

a) √2 b) -4 c) 3/4 d) 5/6

Convert 3/8 into a decimal.

a) 0.375 b) 0.3750 c) 0.3756 d) 0.37500...

Solve for x: (4/5)x - 1 = 3

a) x = 8/5 b) x = -8/5 c) x = 2 d) x = -2

Which of the following is a non-terminating, non-repeating decimal?

a) 0.333... b) 0.666... c) 0.111... d) 0.777...

Simplify the expression: 1/2 + 2/3

a) 3/5 b) 5/6 c) 2/3 d) 5/8

Find the value of 0.72 ÷ 0.6

a) 0.12 b) 0.2 c) 1.2 d) 1.2

Which of the following is an irrational number?

a) √13 b) √16 c) √18 d) √25

Convert 0.625 into a fraction.

a) 8/13 b) 5/8 c) 25/40 d) 125/200

Chapter 2 Linear Equations in One Variable

Which of the following equations is a linear equation in one variable?

a) x^2 + 2x + 1 = 0 b) 3x - 2 = 7x + 4 c) 4(x + 3) = 2x - 5 d) 2x^2 + 4x + 2 = 0

Solve the equation 2x - 5 = 3x + 2.

a) x = -7 b) x = -4 c) x = -5 d) x = -3

If the value of x in 3x + 2 = 8 is 3, then the equation is:

a) True b) False

Solve the equation 4x - 7 = 5 - 2x.

a) x = 2 b) x = -2 c) x = 1 d) x = -1

If y + 3 = 2, then the value of y is:

a) 5 b) -1 c) 2 d) -5

Solve the equation 2(x + 3) = 4 - 3x.

a) x = 1 b) x = -1 c) x = 0 d) x = 2

Which of the following is not a linear equation in one variable?

a) 3x + 4y = 7 b) x^2 + 2x + 1 = 0 c) 5x - 2 = 3x + 4 d) 4(2x + 1) = 2(x + 3)

Solve the equation x - 5 = 2(x + 1).

a) x = 4 b) x = -4 c) x = 0 d) x = 1

If 4x + 3 = 2x - 5, then the value of x is:

a) -4 b) -2 c) 4 d) 2

Solve the equation 3(2x - 1) - 4(x + 3) = 0.

a) x = 2 b) x = -2 c) x = 0 d) x = -4

The sum of two numbers is 19 and their difference is 3. What are the two numbers?

a) 11, 8 b) 12, 7 c) 10, 9 d) 13, 6

Solve the equation 4(2x - 3) = 5(3 - x).

a) x = 1/3 b) x = 2 c) x = -2/5 d) x = -1

If 4x + 3 = 3x - 5, then the value of x is:

a) -8 b) 8 c) 6 d) -6

The price of a pencil is 10 rupees. How many pencils can be bought with 60 rupees?

a) 6 b) 5 c) 7 d) 8

Solve the equation (2x + 3) / 5 = 2 - (x - 1) / 3.

a) x = 3 b) x = -3 c) x = 0 d) x = -1

If 3(x + 1) = 2(x - 4), then the value of x is:

a) 7 b) 2 c) -2 d) -7

Solve the equation 3(2x + 1) - 4 = 2(x - 1).

a) x = -4 b) x = 4 c) x = -3 d) x = 3

The product of two consecutive even numbers is 168. What are the two numbers?

a) 12, 14 b) 10, 12 c) 14, 16 d) 16, 18

Solve the equation (2x + 1) / 3 = (x - 2) / 4.

a) x = 5 b) x = -5 c) x = 0 d) x = -1

If 5(x + 1) = 4(x + 3), then the value of x is:

a) -2 b) 2 c) -4 d) 4

Solve the equation 2(x - 1) - 3 = 3 - (2x + 1).

a) x = 2 b) x = -2 c) x = -1 d) x = 1

The sum of a number and its square is 60. What is the number?

a) 10 b) 5 c) -10 d) -5

Solve the equation 4(x - 3) - 3 = 5(x - 1).

a) x = 6 b) x = -6 c) x = 7 d) x = -7

If 3x + 2 = 5, then the value of x is:

a) 1 b) 3 c) -1 d) -3

Anil is twice as old as Sunil. If the sum of their ages is 36, how old is Anil?

a) 24 b) 16 c) 18 d) 20

Solve the equation 5(x - 2) = 7(x - 1).

a) x = 3 b) x = -3 c) x = -2 d) x = 2

If 2x - 1 = 3, then the value of x is:

a) 2 b) 1/2 c) 1 d) -1/2

Solve the equation 3(x - 2) = 5x - 4.

a) x = 2 b) x = 1 c) x = -2 d) x = 4

The difference between two numbers is 8 and their sum is 22. What are the two numbers?

a) 10, 12 b) 12, 10 c) 9, 13 d) 11, 9

Solve the equation 5(3x - 2) = 4(x - 3).

a) x = 10/7 b) x = -10/7 c) x = 3/7 d) x = -3/7

The sum of three consecutive odd numbers is 87. What are the three numbers?

a) 27, 29, 31 b) 29, 31, 33 c) 25, 27, 29 d) 33, 35, 37

Solve the equation (2x + 3) / 4 = (3x - 1) / 6.

a) x = 1/2 b) x = -1/2 c) x = 2/3 d) x = -2/3

If 3x - 2 = 4, then the value of x is:

a) 2 b) 1 c) 0 d) -1/2

The sum of three consecutive even numbers is 90. What are the three numbers?

a) 28, 30, 32 b) 30, 32, 34 c) 26, 28, 30 d) 34, 36, 38

Solve the equation (2x + 1) / 5 = (x - 2) / 3.

a) x = -1 b) x = -5 c) x = 5 d) x = -3/7

If 4x + 1 = 7, then the value of x is:

a) 2 b) 3/2 c) 1/2 d) -2

The sum of two numbers is 27 and their product is 182. What are the two numbers?

a) 13, 14 b) 14, 13 c) 10, 17 d) 17, 10

Solve the equation (5x - 1) / 3 = 2(x - 3) / 5.

a) x = 7 b) x = -7 c) x = 3/5 d) x = -3/5

If 2x - 3 = 5, then the value of x is:

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

Chapter 3 Understanding Quadrilaterals

Which of the following is not a property of a parallelogram?

a) Opposite sides are equal b) Opposite angles are equal c) Diagonals are perpendicular d) All sides are equal

The sum of all interior angles of a quadrilateral is _____ degrees.

a) 360 b) 180 c) 270 d) 90

In a rectangle, all angles are _____ degrees.

a) 90 b) 180 c) 270 d) 360

In a square, all sides are _____.

a) Equal b) Parallel c) Perpendicular d) None of the above

The angle sum property of a quadrilateral states that the sum of all interior angles is equal to _____ de grees. a) 180

b) 360 c) 270 d) 90

In a trapezium, the opposite angles are _____.

a) Equal b) Unequal c) Parallel d) Perpendicular

The diagonals of a square are _____.

a) Equal and perpendicular b) Unequal and perpendicular c) Equal and parallel d) None of the above

In a rhombus, all sides are _____.

a) Equal b) Unequal c) Parallel d) Perpendicular

A rectangle is also a _____.

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Trapezium d) None of the above

A square is also a _____.

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Trapezium d) None of the above

In an isosceles trapezium, the non-parallel sides are _____.

a) Equal b) Unequal c) Parallel d) Perpendicular

The diagonals of a rectangle are always _____.

a) Equal and perpendicular b) Unequal and perpendicular c) Equal and parallel d) Unequal and parallel

A parallelogram whose diagonals are perpendicular bisectors of each other is a _____.

a) Rectangle b) Square c) Rhombus d) Trapezium

Each diagonal of a parallelogram divides it into _____ triangles.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

The length of a diagonal in a rectangle is always _____ the sides.

a) Equal to b) Half of c) Greater than d) None of the above

The diagonals of a rhombus are always _____.

a) Equal and perpendicular b) Unequal and perpendicular c) Equal and parallel d) Unequal and parallel

A trapezium with all sides of different lengths is called a _____.

a) Isosceles trapezium b) Scalene trapezium c) Equilateral trapezium d) None of the above

A quadrilateral with opposite angles supplementary is a _____.

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Rectangle d) None of the above

A rectangle is a special case of a _____.

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Trapezium d) None of the above

A quadrilateral with two pairs of opposite sides parallel is a _____.

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Trapezium d) None of the above

In a rhombus, the diagonals bisect the _____ angles.

a) Obtuse b) Acute c) Right d) All angles

The sum of the consecutive angles of a parallelogram is always _____ degrees.

a) 180 b) 360 c) 270 d) 90

A quadrilateral with all sides equal but not all angles equal is a _____.

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Square d) Rectangle

A quadrilateral with one pair of opposite sides parallel is a _____.

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Trapezium d) None of the above

In a kite, the diagonals are always _____.

a) Equal and perpendicular b) Unequal and perpendicular c) Equal and parallel d) Unequal and parallel

The diagonals of a parallelogram bisect each other _____.

a) Perpendicularly b) Parallelly c) Unequally d) Equally

In a rhombus, the diagonals _____ each other.

a) Are equal to b) Are half of c) Are greater than d) Are not related to

A trapezium with two non-parallel sides equal is called an _____ trapezium.

a) Isosceles b) Scalene c) Equilateral d) None of the above

A parallelogram whose diagonals are equal is a _____.

a) Rectangle b) Square c) Rhombus d) Trapezium

The area of a parallelogram can be calculated by multiplying the base by the _____.

a) Perimeter b) Height c) Angle between adjacent sides d) None of the above

The perimeter of a square is _____ times the length of its side.

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

The perimeter of a rectangle can be calculated by adding the lengths of all its _____.

a) Sides b) Diagonals c) Diagonal and sides d) None of the above

The area of a square can be calculated by multiplying the length of one side by _____.

a) Itself b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

The area of a rectangle can be calculated by multiplying the length of its base by its _____.

a) Angles b) Perimeter c) Height d) Width

The area of a rhombus can be calculated by multiplying the lengths of its two diagonals and dividing b y _____.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) None of the above

The area of a trapezium can be calculated by multiplying the sum of its parallel sides by the height an d dividing by _____.

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) None of the above

The area of a parallelogram can be calculated by multiplying the base by the _____ of the opposite an gle.

a) Sine b) Cosine c) Tangent d) Secant

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a triangle is always _____ than the length of the third side.

a) Greater b) Smaller c) Equal d) Not related

The area of a rhombus depends on the lengths of its _____.

a) Angles b) Sides c) Diagonals d) Perimeter

In a kite, the angles between the unequal sides are always _____ degrees.

a) 90 b) 180 c) 270 d) 360

The formula to calculate the area of a trapezium is _____.

a) (Sum of bases × Height) / 2 b) (Sum of bases × Height) / 3 c) (Sum of bases × Height) / 4 d) None of the above

The length of a rectangle is 8 cm and its width is 4 cm. What is its perimeter?

a) 12 cm b) 16 cm c) 24 cm d) 32 cm

The length of a rectangle is 9 cm and its breadth is 6 cm. What is its area?

a) 15 cm² b) 24 cm² c) 36 cm² d) 54 cm²

The length of a parallelogram is 14 cm and its base height is 5 cm. What is its area?

a) 35 cm² b) 70 cm² c) 140 cm² d) 280 cm²

The length of a rhombus is 10 cm and one of its diagonals is 8 cm. What is its area?

a) 40 cm² b) 48 cm² c) 56 cm² d) 64 cm²

The lengths of two adjacent sides of a rectangle are 5 cm and 12 cm. What is its perimeter?

a) 22 cm b) 24 cm c) 34 cm d) 38 cm

The sum of the lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus is 16 cm. If one of the diagonals is 8 cm, what is the length of the other diagonal?

a) 4 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 16 cm

Chapter 4 Practical Geometry

In a quadrilateral, if the diagonals are perpendicular and bisect each other, then the quadrilateral is a

a) Parallelogram b) Rectangle c) Square d) Rhombus

ABCD is a parallelogram. If the measures of angles A and B are (3x + 20)° and (4x + 10)° respectively, find the value of x.

a) 10° b) 15° c) 20° d) 25°

In a right-angled triangle, the measure of one acute angle is 30°. Find the measure of the other acute a ngle.

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

Two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are (3x + 10)° and (4x - 20)°. Find the measure of each angle.

a) 40°, 60° b) 50°, 70° c) 60°, 80° d) 70°, 90°

In an isosceles triangle, the base angles are (4x + 5)° each. Find the value of x.

a) 15° b) 20° c) 25° d) 30°

In a rhombus, if one side is 6 cm, find the length of the longer diagonal.

a) 12 cm b) 10 cm c) 9 cm d) 8 cm

Two sides of a parallelogram measure 9 cm and 12 cm. If the length of the altitude corresponding to th e longer side is 5 cm, find the length of the altitude corresponding to the shorter side.

a) 3 cm b) 3.5 cm c) 4 cm d) 4.5 cm

The sum of the angles of a pentagon is 540°. Find the measure of each angle of the pentagon.

a) 108° b) 120° c) 144° d) 180°

In a quadrilateral ABCD, the diagonals AC and BD bisect each other at O. If the measurements of angl e AOC and angle BOD are 45° each, find the measurements of angle ABC and angle BCD.

a) 30°, 60° b) 45°, 90° c) 60°, 120° d) 90°, 180°

In a trapezium ABCD, AB || CD and AB = 2CD. If the measure of angle A is 70°, find the measure of a ngle D.

a) 35° b) 45° c) 55° d) 65°

In a rectangle, the length is three times the width. If the perimeter of the rectangle is 64 cm, find its are a.

a) 96 cm² b) 128 cm² c) 144 cm² d) 192 cm²

The angles of a polygon are in the ratio 2:3:5:9. Find the number of sides of the polygon.

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

In an isosceles trapezium, the bases are (3x + 5) cm and (2x + 8) cm. If the distance between the par allel sides is 12 cm, find the value of x.

a) 1 cm b) 2 cm c) 3 cm d) 4 cm

The perimeter of an equilateral triangle is 36 cm. Find its area.

a) 9√3 cm² b) 12√3 cm² c) 15√3 cm² d) 18√3 cm²

The angles of a hexagon are in the ratio 1:2:3:4:5:6. Find the measure of the smallest angle.

a) 20° b) 25° c) 30° d) 35°

The altitude of an equilateral triangle is 15√3 cm. Find its area.

a) 75√3 cm² b) 150√3 cm² c) 225√3 cm² d) 300√3 cm²

The base angles of an isosceles trapezium are (4x + 15)° each. Find the value of x.

a) 10° b) 15° c) 20° d) 25°

In a rhombus, the length of a diagonal is 18 cm. If its perimeter is 80 cm, find the length of the other di agonal.

a) 8 cm b) 16 cm c) 24 cm d) 32 cm

The diagonals of a rhombus are of length 10 cm and 24 cm. Find its perimeter.

a) 60 cm b) 64 cm c) 72 cm d) 80 cm

The opposite angles of a parallelogram are (2x + 10)° and (3x - 20)°. Find the measure of each angle.

a) 20°, 40° b) 30°, 70° c) 40°, 100° d) 50°, 130°

In a regular hexagon, find the measure of each exterior angle.

a) 30° b) 40° c) 50° d) 60°

In a trapezium, the parallel sides measure 10 cm and 15 cm. If the non-parallel sides measure 6 cm a nd 8 cm, find the distance between the parallel sides.

a) 4 cm b) 4.5 cm c) 5 cm d) 5.5 cm

Find the length of the altitude of a triangle, whose base is 24 cm and area is 96 cm².

a) 4 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 12 cm

If the length of a rectangle is tripled and its width is doubled, then find the percentage change in its are a.

a) 150% increase b) 200% increase c) 250% increase d) 300% increase

In a rectangle, if the length is increased by 20% and the width is decreased by 10%, find the percenta ge change in its area.

a) 10% increase b) 6% increase c) 4% decrease d) 2% decrease

In a trapezium, if the parallel sides measure 5 cm and 10 cm, and the distance between them is 6 cm, find its area.

a) 30 cm² b) 36 cm² c) 45 cm² d) 60 cm²

If a square is inscribed in a circle of radius 7 cm, find the area of the square.

a) 98 cm² b) 196 cm² c) 245 cm² d) 392 cm²

If the perimeter of a square is 20√2 cm, find its area.

a) 40 cm² b) 80 cm² c) 100 cm² d) 120 cm²

The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 42 cm and its base is 12 cm. Find its height.

a) 14 cm b) 12 cm c) 10 cm d) 8 cm

In a quadrilateral, if one pair of opposite sides is equal and parallel, then the quadrilateral is a

a) Rectangle b) Parallelogram c) Rhombus d) Square

ABCD is a trapezium in which AB || CD and AD = BC. If AD = x + 5 and BC = 2x - 1, find the value of x .

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5

The angles of a hexagon are in the ratio 2:3:4:5:6:7. Find the value of the smallest angle.

a) 30° b) 35° c) 40° d) 45°

In an isosceles trapezium, the bases are (2x + 7) cm and (4x + 5) cm. If the distance between the par allel sides is 10 cm, find the value of x.

a) 1 cm b) 2 cm c) 3 cm d) 4 cm

Chapter 5 Data Handling

Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

Data collected from a sample is referred to as:

a) Census b) Population c) Interval d) Sample

Which graph would be most appropriate for displaying the number of students in each grade level?

a) Bar graph b) Line graph c) Pie chart d) Histogram

A stem-and-leaf plot is used to:

a) Display categorical data b) Display continuous data c) Display both categorical and continuous data d) None of the above

If the mode of a data set is 10, and the range is 8, what is the minimum value in the data set?

a) 2 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10

In statistics, the interquartile range (IQR) represents:

a) The difference between the maximum and minimum values in a data set b) The range of the lower half of data set values c) The range of the upper half of data set values d) The difference between the first quartile and the third quartile

Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a) Range b) Standard deviation c) Mean d) Variance

A researcher gathers data from 100 randomly selected students. What type of data collection method is this?

a) Stratified sampling b) Convenience sampling c) Cluster sampling d) Simple random sampling

The average of a set of scores is known as the:

a) Range b) Median c) Mode d) Mean

What is the mode of the following data set: 5, 3, 2, 5, 7, 9, 5?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 9

What is the median of the following data set: 10, 15, 20, 25, 30?

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

The sum of all the data points in a data set is known as the:

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Total

Which of the following measures of central tendency is most affected by outliers?

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

The value that appears most frequently in a data set is known as the:

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

If the mean of a data set is 20 and the sum of the data set is 200, how many data points are in the set ?

a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25

Which of the following is true about a normally distributed data set?

a) The mean and median are equal b) The mode is always equal to zero c) The range is always positive d) The standard deviation is always zero

What is the mid-value of the following data set: 3, 8, 10, 12, 15, 20, 25?

a) 10 b) 12 c) 15 d) 20

Which of the following measures of central tendency is most influenced by extreme values?

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

A data set has a mean of 15 and a median of 12. What can you conclude about the data set?

a) The data set is positively skewed b) The data set is negatively skewed c) The data set is symmetrical d) Cannot determine from the given information

What is the range of the following data set: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

Which graph would be most appropriate for representing individual data points over time?

a) Bar graph b) Line graph c) Pie chart d) Histogram

A data set has a variance of 25. What would be the standard deviation of the data set?

a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

A researcher records the heights of students in a class. What type of data is being collected?

a) Categorical data b) Continuous data c) Discrete data d) None of the above

Which of the following is a measure of relative standing?

a) Median b) Mean c) Mode d) Range

A student's score in a test is 10 points below the mean. If the mean score is 80, what is the student's s core?

a) 60 b) 70 c) 80 d) 90

In a bar graph, the height of each bar represents the:

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Frequency

If the interquartile range is zero for a data set, how many unique data points are in the set?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) Cannot determine from the given information

A data set has a standard deviation of 0. What can you conclude about the data set?

a) The data set has no outliers b) The data set is perfectly symmetrical c) The data set contains only one data point d) Cannot determine from the given information

What is the mean of the following data set: 4, 8, 12, 16, 20?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16

What is the median of the following data set: 2, 3, 5, 6, 9?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) 6

What is the mode of the following data set: 2, 4, 6, 8, 8?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

In a pie chart, the size of each slice represents the:

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Percentage

A data set has a mean of 50 and a median of 45. What can you conclude about the data set?

a) The data set is positively skewed b) The data set is negatively skewed c) The data set is symmetrical d) Cannot determine from the given information

The difference between the highest and lowest values in a data set is known as the:

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

If the mean of a data set is 10 and the sum of the data set is 100, how many data points are in the set ?

a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

What is the mid-value of the following data set: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25?

a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

Which graph would be most appropriate for comparing the heights of three different types of trees?

a) Bar graph b) Line graph c) Pie chart d) Scatter plot

A data set has a standard deviation of 10. What would be the variance of the data set?

a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

A researcher records the genders of students in a class. What type of data is being collected?

a) Categorical data b) Continuous data c) Discrete data d) None of the above

Which of the following is not a measure of dispersion?

a) Range b) Standard deviation c) Mean d) Variance

A data set has a mode of 10 and a range of 8. What is the maximum value in the data set?

a) 2 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10

In statistics, the first quartile represents:

a) The difference between the maximum and minimum values in a data set b) The range of the lower half of data set values c) The range of the upper half of data set values d) The difference between the first quartile and the third quartile

What is the mode of the following data set: 3, 5, 7, 7, 9, 9?

a) 3 b) 5 c) 7 d) 9

The range of a data set is calculated by:

a) Subtracting the mean from the median b) Subtracting the median from the mode c) Subtracting the maximum value from the minimum value d) Subtracting the standard deviation from the mean

Chapter 6 Squares and Square Roots

The square root of 144 is:

a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

If the side length of a square is 8 cm, then the area of the square is:

a) 64 cm^2 b) 56 cm^2 c) 48 cm^2 d) 46 cm^2

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 26 b) 49 c) 63 d) 78

The square root of 169 is:

a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15

If the area of a square is 36 cm^2, then the side length of the square is:

a) 6 cm b) 9 cm c) 12 cm d) 18 cm

Which of the following is NOT a perfect square?

a) 64 b) 81 c) 98 d) 144

The square root of 225 is:

a) 12 b) 15 c) 18 d) 21

The side length of a square is 10 cm. What is the area of the square?

a) 100 cm^2 b) 80 cm^2 c) 60 cm^2 d) 40 cm^2

If the area of a square is 64 cm^2, then the side length of the square is:

a) 4 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 16 cm

Which of the following is NOT a perfect square?

a) 36 b) 49 c) 64 d) 81

The square root of 289 is:

a) 13 b) 17 c) 21 d) 23

If the side length of a square is 5 cm, then the area of the square is:

a) 25 cm^2 b) 20 cm^2 c) 15 cm^2 d) 10 cm^2

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 42 b) 49 c) 56 d) 63

The square root of 196 is:

a) 14 b) 16 c) 18 d) 20

The side length of a square is 12 cm. What is the area of the square?

a) 144 cm^2 b) 132 cm^2 c) 120 cm^2 d) 108 cm^2

If the area of a square is 81 cm^2, then the side length of the square is:

a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 9 cm d) 12 cm

Which of the following is NOT a perfect square?

a) 64 b) 100 c) 144 d) 156

The square root of 625 is:

a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40

The side length of a square is 15 cm. What is the area of the square?

a) 225 cm^2 b) 210 cm^2 c) 195 cm^2 d) 180 cm^2

If the area of a square is 100 cm^2, then the side length of the square is:

a) 5 cm b) 7 cm c) 10 cm d) 12 cm

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 84 b) 100 c) 112 d) 128

The square root of 529 is:

a) 21 b) 23 c) 25 d) 27

If the side length of a square is 6 cm, then the area of the square is:

a) 36 cm^2 b) 30 cm^2 c) 24 cm^2 d) 18 cm^2

Which of the following is NOT a perfect square?

a) 81 b) 100 c) 121 d) 144

The square root of 400 is:

a) 16 b) 18 c) 20 d) 22

The side length of a square is 7 cm. What is the area of the square?

a) 49 cm^2 b) 42 cm^2 c) 35 cm^2 d) 28 cm^2

If the area of a square is 121 cm^2, then the side length of the square is:

a) 9 cm b) 11 cm c) 13 cm d) 15 cm

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 88 b) 100 c) 112 d) 124

The square root of 484 is:

a) 20 b) 22 c) 24 d) 26

If the side length of a square is 9 cm, then the area of the square is:

a) 81 cm^2 b) 72 cm^2 c) 63 cm^2 d) 54 cm^2

Which of the following is NOT a perfect square?

a) 49 b) 64 c) 81 d) 98

The square root of 625 is:

a) 25 b) 30 c) 35 d) 40

The side length of a square is 10 cm. What is the area of the square?

a) 100 cm^2 b) 90 cm^2 c) 80 cm^2 d) 70 cm^2

If the area of a square is 196 cm^2, then the side length of the square is:

a) 14 cm b) 16 cm c) 18 cm d) 20 cm

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 26 b) 49 c) 63 d) 78

The square root of 144 is:

a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

If the side length of a square is 8 cm, then the area of the square is:

a) 64 cm^2 b) 56 cm^2 c) 48 cm^2 d) 46 cm^2

Which of the following is NOT a perfect square?

a) 64 b) 81 c) 98 d) 144

The square root of 169 is:

a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15

If the area of a square is 36 cm^2, then the side length of the square is:

a) 6 cm b) 9 cm c) 12 cm d) 18 cm

The side length of a square is 12 cm. What is the area of the square?

a) 144 cm^2 b) 132 cm^2 c) 120 cm^2 d) 108 cm^2

If the area of a square is 81 cm^2, then the side length of the square is:

a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 9 cm d) 12 cm

The square root of 225 is:

a) 12 b) 15 c) 18 d) 21

Which of the following is NOT a perfect square?

a) 64 b) 100 c) 144 d) 156

The square root of 196 is:

a) 14 b) 16 c) 18 d) 20

If the side length of a square is 5 cm, then the area of the square is:

a) 25 cm^2 b) 20 cm^2 c) 15 cm^2 d) 10 cm^2

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 42 b) 49 c) 56 d) 63

The square root of 529 is:

a) 21 b) 23 c) 25 d) 27

If the side length of a square is 6 cm, then the area of the square is:

a) 36 cm^2 b) 30 cm^2 c) 24 cm^2 d) 18 cm^2

The square root of 400 is:

a) 16 b) 18 c) 20 d) 22

Chapter 7 Cubes and Cube Roots

What is the cube root of 64?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

What is the value of 5 cubed?

a) 25 b) 125 c) 625 d) 3125

If the volume of a cube is 343 cm³, what is the length of its edge?

a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 7 cm d) 14 cm

What is the cube root of 729?

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 27

What is the value of 9 cubed?

a) 72 b) 243 c) 729 d) 2187

If the surface area of a cube is 96 cm², what is the length of its edge?

a) 2 cm b) 4 cm c) 6 cm d) 8 cm

What is the cube root of 1000?

a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 100

What is the value of 7 cubed?

a) 14 b) 49 c) 343 d) 2401

If the volume of a cube is 512 cm³, what is the length of its edge?

a) 4 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 16 cm

What is the cube root of 216?

a) 3 b) 6 c) 12 d) 36

What is the value of 6 cubed?

a) 18 b) 36 c) 216 d) 1296

If the surface area of a cube is 150 cm², what is the length of its edge?

a) 5 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 10 cm

What is the cube root of 1,000,000?

a) 100 b) 1000 c) 10,000 d) 100,000

What is the value of 10 cubed?

a) 100 b) 1,000 c) 10,000 d) 100,000

If the volume of a cube is 729 cm³, what is the length of its edge?

a) 7 cm b) 9 cm c) 12 cm d) 27 cm

What is the cube root of 512?

a) 8 b) 16 c) 64 d) 128

What is the value of 8 cubed?

a) 32 b) 64 c) 512 d) 4096

If the surface area of a cube is 216 cm², what is the length of its edge?

a) 6 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 18 cm

What is the cube root of 27?

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 18

What is the value of 12 cubed?

a) 72 b) 144 c) 1,728 d) 1,536

If the volume of a cube is 1,000 cm³, what is the length of its edge?

a) 10 cm b) 20 cm c) 30 cm d) 100 cm

What is the cube root of 8?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 12

What is the value of 11 cubed?

a) 11 b) 33 c) 121 d) 1331

If the surface area of a cube is 64 cm², what is the length of its edge?

a) 2 cm b) 4 cm c) 8 cm d) 16 cm

What is the cube root of 125?

a) 5 b) 15 c) 25 d) 125

What is the value of 13 cubed?

a) 139 b) 169 c) 1,689 d) 2,197

If the volume of a cube is 8 cm³, what is the length of its edge?

a) 2 cm b) 4 cm c) 6 cm d) 8 cm

What is the cube root of 216?

a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

What is the value of 14 cubed?

a) 196 b) 294 c) 1,474 d) 2,744

If the surface area of a cube is 125 cm², what is the length of its edge?

a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 15 cm d) 25 cm

What is the cube root of 1728?

a) 12 b) 16 c) 24 d) 36

What is the value of 15 cubed?

a) 225 b) 375 c) 1,335 d) 3,375

If the volume of a cube is 27 cm³, what is the length of its edge?

a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 9 cm d) 12 cm

What is the cube root of 343?

a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 49

What is the value of 16 cubed?

a) 256 b) 512 c) 1,024 d) 4,096

If the surface area of a cube is 216 cm², what is the length of its edge?

a) 6 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 18 cm

What is the cube root of 64?

a) 4 b) 8 c) 16 d) 32

What is the value of 17 cubed?

a) 289 b) 4913 c) 83521 d) 1419857

If the volume of a cube is 512 cm³, what is the length of its edge?

a) 4 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 16 cm

What is the cube root of 729?

a) 7 b) 9 c) 27 d) 81

What is the value of 18 cubed?

a) 324 b) 548 c) 974 d) 5832

If the surface area of a cube is 150 cm², what is the length of its edge?

a) 5 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 10 cm

What is the cube root of 1000?

a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 100

What is the value of 19 cubed?

a) 361 b) 6859 c) 130321 d) 2476099

If the volume of a cube is 729 cm³, what is the length of its edge?

a) 7 cm b) 9 cm c) 12 cm d) 27 cm

What is the cube root of 512?

a) 8 b) 16 c) 64 d) 128

What is the value of 20 cubed?

a) 400 b) 8000 c) 160000 d) 3200000

If the surface area of a cube is 216 cm², what is the length of its edge?

a) 6 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 18 cm

What is the cube root of 27?

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 18

What is the value of 21 cubed?

a) 441 b) 9261 c) 194481 d) 4084101

Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities

In a ratio, the first term is called:

a) Numerator b) Denominator c) Ratio d) None of the above

A fraction in its simplest form is also known as:

a) Lowest term b) Highest term c) Simplified fraction d) Prime fraction

If the ratio of boys to girls in a class is 3:5, and there are 24 boys, how many girls are there?

a) 40 b) 64 c) 72 d) 96

The ratio of the length to the breadth of a rectangle is 3:2. If the length is 12 cm, what is the breadth?

a) 6 cm b) 8 cm c) 9 cm d) 10 cm

A shopkeeper sold a toy for $250 at a loss of 20%. What was the cost price of the toy?

a) $200 b) $250 c) $300 d) $400

The profit percentage is calculated on the basis of:

a) Cost price b) Selling price c) Market value d) None of the above

The cost of 5 apples is $40. What is the cost of 10 such apples?

a) $40 b) $80 c) $100 d) $160

A car travels a distance of 272 km in 4 hours. What is its average speed?

a) 34 km/h b) 60 km/h c) 68 km/h d) 102 km/h

The cost of 3 pens and 5 notebooks is $100. If the cost of a pen is $11, what is the cost of a notebook?

a) $10 b) $12 c) $15 d) $18

If the selling price of an article is double the cost price, what is the profit percentage?

a) 50% b) 75% c) 100% d) 200%

A rectangle has a length of 15 cm and a breadth of 10 cm. What is its perimeter?

a) 25 cm b) 40 cm c) 50 cm d) 90 cm

The ratio of boys to girls in a school is 5:7. If there are 420 girls, how many boys are there?

a) 180 b) 300 c) 490 d) 700

Raj bought a book for $80 and sold it for a profit of 25%. What was the selling price?

a) $85 b) $90 c) $100 d) $125

The cost price of a bicycle is $500. If it is sold at a profit of 20%, what is the selling price?

a) $520 b) $550 c) $600 d) $650

A train runs at a speed of 72 km/h. How much time will it take to cover a distance of 288 km?

a) 2 hours b) 3 hours c) 4 hours d) 5 hours

The selling price of a table is $500 and the profit percentage is 25%. What is the cost price of the table ?

a) $400 b) $500 c) $600 d) $750

A company sold 450 products at a profit of 20%. If the total selling price was $54,000, what was the co st price of each product?

a) $100 b) $120 c) $150 d) $180

A rectangular field has a length of 40 m and a breadth of 25 m. What is its area?

a) 650 sq m b) 950 sq m c) 1000 sq m d) 1250 sq m

The ratio of the number of boys to the number of girls in a class is 2:3. If there are 40 girls, how many boys are there?

a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30

The cost price of a shirt is $500. If it is sold at a loss of 10%, what is the selling price?

a) $450 b) $475 c) $500 d) $550

The ratio of the length to the breadth of a rectangle is 4:3. If the breadth is 15 cm, what is the length?

a) 10 cm b) 20 cm c) 25 cm d) 30 cm

If a shopkeeper purchases 50 pens for $500, what is the cost price of each pen?

a) $8 b) $10 c) $12 d) $15

A mobile phone is sold at a profit of 15%. If the selling price is $230, what is the cost price?

a) $190 b) $200 c) $210 d) $250

The ratio of the cost price to the selling price is 4:5. What is the profit percentage?

a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 40%

The cost of 15 apples is $75. What is the cost of 30 such apples?

a) $50 b) $75 c) $150 d) $225

A train travels a distance of 480 km in 6 hours. What is its average speed?

a) 60 km/h b) 80 km/h c) 100 km/h d) 120 km/h

A book is sold for $120 with a profit of 20%. What was the cost price of the book?

a) $80 b) $100 c) $120 d) $150

The selling price of a bag is $900 and the loss percentage is 10%. What is the cost price of the bag?

a) $900 b) $1000 c) $100 d) $1100

A rectangle has a perimeter of 60 cm and a length of 20 cm. What is its breadth?

a) 10 cm b) 12 cm c) 15 cm d) 18 cm

A company sold 100 products at a loss of 10%. If the total selling price was $9000, what was the cost price of each product?

a) $90 b) $100 c) $110 d) $120

A bag is sold for $160 with a profit of 25%. What was the cost price of the bag?

a) $100 b) $120 c) $128 d) $140

A shirt is sold at a profit of 20%. If the selling price is $120, what is the cost price?

a) $90 b) $100 c) $110 d) $150

If the selling price of an article is 3 times the cost price, what is the profit percentage?

a) 100% b) 200% c) 300% d) 400%

A shopkeeper purchased a shirt for $600 and sold it for $800. What is the profit percentage?

a) 10% b) 20% c) 25% d) 30%

The cost of a car is $50,000 and it is sold at a profit of 15%. What is the selling price?

a) $52,000 b) $57,500 c) $60,000 d) $57,000

A car travels a distance of 400 km in 5 hours. What is its speed in meters per second?

a) 22.2 m/s b) 33.3 m/s c) 44.4 m/s d) 55.5 m/s

The ratio of the cost price to the selling price is 7:5. What is the loss percentage?

a) 20% b) 25% c) 30% d) 35%

The selling price of a mobile phone is $600 and the loss percentage is 15%. What is the cost price of t he mobile phone?

a) $500 b) $600 c) $700 d) $800

The ratio of the number of apples to the number of oranges in a basket is 5:3. If there are 40 oranges, how many apples are there?

a) 20 b) 30 c) 50 d) 60

A pen is purchased for $15 and sold at a profit of 20%. What is the selling price?

a) $15 b) $18 c) $20 d) $24

A shopkeeper sold a laptop for $8000 with a loss of 10%. What was the cost price of the laptop?

a) $8000 b) $8800 c) $9000 d) $10,000

Chapter 9 Algebraic Expressions and Identities

Which of the following is an algebraic expression?

A) 5 + 4 B) 3x + 2 C) 8 ÷ 2 D) √25

Simplify the algebraic expression: 3x + 5 - x + 2x - 7.

A) x + 3 B) 4x - 2 C) 5x - 2 D) 4 + 3x

Simplify the expression (2x + 3)².

A) 4x² + 12 B) 4x² + 12x + 9 C) 4x + 3 D) 2x² + 9

Which of the following is an identity?

A) x² + 4x + 4 = (x + 2)² B) x² + 4x + 4 = (x + 1)² C) x² + 4x + 4 = 2(x + 2) D) x² + 4x + 4 = (x + 3)²

Simplify the expression (a - b)³.

A) a³ - b³ B) a³ - 3a²b + 3ab² - b³ C) a² - 2ab + b² D) a³ - b³ - 3ab(a - b)

Simplify: 5(xy - 2) + 3(x - 1).

A) 5xy - 7x + 7 B) 5xy - 7x - 11 C) 5xy - 7x + 3 D) 5xy - 7x - 1

Expand and simplify: (2x + 3)(x - 4).

A) 2x² - 5x - 12 B) 2x² - 5x + 12 C) 2x² - 7x - 12 D) 2x² + 7x - 12

Simplify: 2a(a + b) - 3b(a - b).

A) a² + 3ab - 3b² B) a² + ab - 3b² C) 2a² + ab - 3b² D) 2a² + 3ab - 3b²

Simplify the expression: (x + 2)(x + 5) - (x - 1)(x + 3).

A) 3x + 4 B) 3x - 4 C) x² + 3x + 5 D) x² + 3x - 5

The product of two binomials is (x + 4)(x - 3). What is the sum of the two binomials?

A) 2x + 7 B) 2x - 7 C) x + 1 D) x - 1

Simplify: 5x - (2 - 3x).

A) 8x + 2 B) 2x + 5 C) 8x - 2 D) 5x + 2

Expand and simplify: (a + b)(a² - ab + b²).

A) a³ + b³ B) a³ - b³ C) a³ - 3a²b + 3ab² - b³ D) a - b

Simplify the expression: (3p²q - 4qr)(2pq - 3r).

A) 4p³q²r - 9p²q B) 6p³q - 9r C) 6p³q²r - 12p²qr - 9pqr² + 12qr² D) 6p²q²r - 9p²qr - 12pqr² + 12qr²

The sum of two binomials is (2x + 1) + (3x - 2). What is the product of the two binomials?

A) 6x² + 1 B) 5x² - x - 2 C) 5x² + x - 2 D) 5x² + x + 2

Simplify: 2a²b + 3ab - a²b - 4ab².

A) -2a²b - ab² B) a²b - ab - 4ab² C) a²b + 4ab² D) a²b - ab - 2ab²

Evaluate the expression 3x² - 2x + 4 for x = 2.

A) 8 B) 16 C) 14 D) 12

Simplify the expression: (2m + 3n) - (m - 2n) + (3m - 2n).

A) 4m + 3n B) 4m + 7n C) 2m + 3n + 4n D) 2m - 7n

A polynomial with three terms is called a:

A) monomial B) binomial C) trinomial D) polynomial

Expand and simplify: (x - 1)² - (x + 2)(x - 3).

A) x² - 4 B) x² + 4x - 4 C) x² - 4x + 4 D) x² - 4x - 4

Simplify the expression: 2(3x - 4y) - 4(2x + y).

A) -2x - 12y B) -4x - 6y C) -2x + 8y D) -4x + 8y

The sum of two squares is 25x² - 4y². What could be the two squares?

A) (5x + 2y)(5x - 2y) B) (5x - 2y)² C) (5x + 2y)² D) (5x + 2y)(5x - 2y) - 2

Simplify: 2(x² - 3x + 4) + 3(2x - 1) - (4x + x - 3).

A) -x - 2 B) -2x + 11 C) 7x - 7 D) 7x + 9

Expand and simplify: (a + b)³.

A) a³ + 3a²b + 3ab² + b³ B) a³ - 3a²b + 3ab² - b³ C) a² + 2ab + b² D) a³ + b³ + 3ab(a + b)

Simplify the expression (x + 4)² - (x + 1)(x + 5).

A) 2x - 24 B) -2x + 24 C) x² - 24 D) x² + 4

Solve the equation: 2(x + 3) = 5x - 4.

A) x = 4 B) x = -2 C) x = 6 D) x = 2

Simplify: (a + b)(a - b) - (2a + b)(a - b).

A) a² - b² B) a² + ab - 3b² C) a² + ab - b² D) a² - 3ab - b²

The product of two binomials is (3x - 5)(2x + 7). What is the sum of the two binomials?

A) 5x + 11 B) 5x - 11 C) 5x + 1 D) 5x - 1

Simplify: 4x² - 3x + 2 - (x² - 2x + 1).

A) 3x² - x + 1 B) 3x² - 3x + 3 C) 3x² - x - 1 D) 3x² - 2x + 1

Expand and simplify: (2a + 3b)(a - b).

A) 2a² + ab + 3b² B) 2a² - ab + 3b² C) 2a² + 2ab + 3b² D) 2a² - 2ab + 3b²

Chapter 10 Visualizing Solid Shapes

Which of the following shapes has the maximum number of edges?

a) Cone b) Cylinder c) Cube d) Sphere

A cuboid has how many vertices?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 12 d) 4

What is the name of a solid figure with all sides equal?

a) Sphere b) Cylinder c) Cube d) Cone

How many faces does a triangular pyramid have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

A sphere has how many edges?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

A prism has how many triangular faces?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Which of the following solids has curved surfaces?

a) Cube b) Cone c) Cylinder d) Cuboid

How many vertices does a cone have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

What is the total number of edges in a cylinder?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

The number of faces in a triangular prism is:

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

A cuboid has how many pairs of parallel faces?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

How many vertices does a sphere have?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

What is the total number of edges in a cube?

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14

A triangular pyramid has how many edges?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

The number of curved surfaces in a cylinder is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Which of the following shapes has no vertices?

a) Cylinder b) Prism c) Pyramid d) Sphere

How many vertices does a triangular prism have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the number of faces in a cone?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

A cuboid has how many edges?

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14

How many faces does a pyramid with a square base have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

Which solid figure has no edges?

a) Cone b) Cube c) Sphere d) Cuboid

A triangular prism has how many vertices?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

How many vertices does a cylinder have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

What is the total number of edges in a cuboid?

a) 12 b) 14 c) 16 d) 18

The number of faces in a cone is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

A sphere has how many curved surfaces?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

How many vertices does a pyramid with a triangular base have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the number of edges in a prism with a rectangular base?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

A cuboid has how many pairs of parallel edges?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

How many vertices does a cone have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

What is the total number of edges in a pyramid with a square base?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

The number of faces in a sphere is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Which solid figure has no vertices?

a) Cylinder b) Prism c) Pyramid d) Cone

How many vertices does a triangular prism have?

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

A cylinder has how many edges?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

What is the total number of edges in a cube?

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14

A cone has how many curved surfaces?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

How many vertices does a pyramid with a triangular base have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the number of faces in a prism with a rectangular base?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

A cube has how many pairs of parallel faces?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Which solid figure has no edges?

a) Cone b) Cube c) Sphere d) Prism

How many vertices does a triangular prism have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the total number of edges in a cuboid?

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14

The number of faces in a cone is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

A sphere has how many curved surfaces?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

How many vertices does a pyramid with a square base have?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the number of edges in a prism with a rectangular base?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

A cuboid has how many pairs of parallel edges?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

How many vertices does a cone have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

What is the total number of edges in a pyramid with a triangular base?

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

Chapter 11 Mensuration

The area of a rectangular field is 72 square meters. If the length of the field is 9 meters, what is its widt h?

a) 6 meters b) 8 meters c) 4 meters d) 12 meters

The perimeter of a square is 36 cm. What is its area?

a) 36 square cm b) 81 square cm c) 144 square cm d) 64 square cm

The circumference of a circle is 22 cm. What is its diameter?

a) 7 cm b) 22 cm c) 11 cm d) 14 cm

The area of a triangle is 36 square cm. If the base is 6 cm, what is the height?

a) 18 cm b) 12 cm c) 6 cm d) 24 cm

The length of a rectangular garden is three times its width. If the perimeter is 72 meters, what is the len gth of the garden?

a) 12 meters b) 18 meters c) 20 meters d) 24 meters

The area of a circle with radius 5 cm is:

a) 25 cm^2 b) 50 cm^2 c) 78.5 cm^2 d) 31.4 cm^2

What is the volume of a cube with side length 4 cm?

a) 16 cm^3 b) 32 cm^3 c) 64 cm^3 d) 12 cm^3

The diameter of a circle is 14 cm. What is its circumference?

a) 22 cm b) 28 cm c) 44 cm d) 7 cm

The perimeter of a triangle is 24 cm. If two sides are 6 cm and 8 cm, what is the length of the third side ?

a) 10 cm b) 12 cm c) 16 cm d) 18 cm

The area of a square is 81 square cm. What is the length of its side?

a) 9 cm b) 6 cm c) 3 cm d) 27 cm

The perimeter of a rectangle is 50 cm. If the length is 15 cm, what is the width?

a) 10 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 7 cm

The circumference of a circular swimming pool is 66 meters. What is its radius?

a) 22 meters b) 11 meters c) 33 meters d) 44 meters

The area of a triangle is 48 square cm. If the base is 8 cm, what is the height?

a) 12 cm b) 6 cm c) 24 cm d) 16 cm

The length of a rectangular garden is twice its width. If the perimeter is 32 meters, what is the length o f the garden?

a) 10 meters b) 6 meters c) 12 meters d) 8 meters

The area of a circle with radius 7 cm is:

a) 49 cm^2 b) 154 cm^2 c) 154 cm d) 21 cm^2

What is the volume of a cube with side length 6 cm?

a) 36 cm^3 b) 72 cm^3 c) 216 cm^3 d) 18 cm^3

The diameter of a circle is 20 cm. What is its circumference?

a) 62.8 cm b) 20 cm c) 40 cm d) 10 cm

The perimeter of a triangle is 30 cm. If two sides are 7 cm and 9 cm, what is the length of the third sid e?

a) 14 cm b) 15 cm c) 16 cm d) 13 cm

The area of a square is 16 square cm. What is the length of its side?

a) 8 cm b) 4 cm c) 2 cm d) 16 cm

The perimeter of a rectangle is 40 cm. If the length is 12 cm, what is the width?

a) 8 cm b) 10 cm c) 14 cm d) 16 cm

The circumference of a circular swimming pool is 88 meters. What is its radius?

a) 14 meters b) 22 meters c) 44 meters d) 11 meters

The area of a triangle is 60 square cm. If the base is 12 cm, what is the height?

a) 10 cm b) 5 cm c) 14 cm d) 20 cm

The length of a rectangular garden is three times its width. If the perimeter is 48 meters, what is the le ngth of the garden?

a) 12 meters b) 15 meters c) 18 meters d) 24 meters

The area of a circle with radius 8 cm is:

a) 64 cm^2 b) 128 cm^2 c) 201.06 cm^2 d) 50.24 cm^2

What is the volume of a cube with side length 5 cm?

a) 25 cm^3 b) 100 cm^3 c) 125 cm^3 d) 400 cm^3

The diameter of a circle is 16 cm. What is its circumference?

a) 50.24 cm b) 16 cm c) 32 cm d) 8 cm

The perimeter of a triangle is 28 cm. If two sides are 6 cm and 10 cm, what is the length of the third si de?

a) 12 cm b) 8 cm c) 16 cm d) 18 cm

The area of a square is 25 square cm. What is the length of its side?

a) 5 cm b) 10 cm c) 15 cm d) 25 cm

The perimeter of a rectangle is 60 cm. If the length is 18 cm, what is the width?

a) 12 cm b) 14 cm c) 16 cm d) 20 cm

The circumference of a circular swimming pool is 99 meters. What is its radius?

a) 16 meters b) 33 meters c) 66 meters d) 49.5 meters

The area of a triangle is 72 square cm. If the base is 12 cm, what is the height?

a) 8 cm b) 6 cm c) 24 cm d) 16 cm

The length of a rectangular garden is double its width. If the perimeter is 24 meters, what is the length of the garden?

a) 6 meters b) 8 meters c) 10 meters d) 12 meters

The area of a circle with radius 6 cm is:

a) 36 cm^2 b) 72 cm^2 c) 113.04 cm^2 d) 18 cm^2

What is the volume of a cube with side length 7 cm?

a) 49 cm^3 b) 98 cm^3 c) 294 cm^3 d) 14 cm^3

The diameter of a circle is 18 cm. What is its circumference?

a) 56.52 cm b) 18 cm c) 36 cm d) 9 cm

The perimeter of a triangle is 20 cm. If two sides are 5 cm and 7 cm, what is the length of the third sid e?

a) 10 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 14 cm

The area of a square is 49 square cm. What is the length of its side?

a) 7 cm b) 14 cm c) 21 cm d) 49 cm

The perimeter of a rectangle is 30 cm. If the length is 9 cm, what is the width?

a) 6 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 7 cm

The circumference of a circular swimming pool is 77 meters. What is its radius?

a) 12.14 meters b) 22.41 meters c) 38.5 meters d) 24.5 meters

The area of a triangle is 40 square cm. If the base is 8 cm, what is the height?

a) 10 cm b) 5 cm c) 20 cm d) 16 cm

The length of a rectangular garden is five times its width. If the perimeter is 60 meters, what is the len gth of the garden?

a) 10 meters b) 15 meters c) 20 meters d) 25 meters

Chapter 12 Exponents and Powers

What is the value of 5^3?

a) 15 b) 125 c) 25 d) 75

Simplify 9^2 x 9^4.

a) 3^6 b) 3^8 c) 9^6 d) 9^8

What is the value of 6^0?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 6 d) 36

Simplify (2^3)^2.

a) 2^5 b) 2^8 c) 2^6 d) 2^9

Evaluate 10^(-2).

a) 1/10 b) 1/100 c) 1/1000 d) 1/10000

Simplify (5^2 x 5^3) / 5^4.

a) 5 b) 25 c) 1/5 d) 1/25

What is the value of 3^(-4)?

a) 3 b) 1/3 c) 1/81 d) 81

Evaluate 4^2 x 4^(-3).

a) 4 b) 1/4 c) 1/64 d) 64

What is the value of 2^5 ÷ 2^2?

a) 2 b) 8 c) 32 d) 64

Simplify (7^3)^(-2).

a) 7 b) 1/7 c) 1/343 d) 343

Evaluate 8^(-1).

a) 1/8 b) 1/64 c) 64 d) 8

Simplify (12^(-1))^(-2).

a) 12 b) 1/12 c) 1/144 d) 144

What is the value of 9^(-2)?

a) 1/9 b) 9 c) 1/81 d) 81

Simplify (4^3)^(-1/2).

a) 2 b) 1/8 c) 1/64 d) 64

Evaluate 5^2 x 5^(-3).

a) 1/5 b) 1/25 c) 5 d) 25

What is the value of 0^(-1)?

a) 0 b) 1 c) Undefined d) Infinity

Simplify (6^2)^(-1/2).

a) 1/6 b) 6 c) 1/36 d) 36

Evaluate 3^(-3) x 3^(-4).

a) 1/81 b) 1/729 c) 1/243 d) 243

What is the value of (7^2) / (7^(-3))?

a) 7^5 b) 1 c) 7^(-1) d) 7^(-5)

Simplify (2^(-3))^(-4).

a) 1/2 b) 8 c) 1/16 d) 16

Evaluate 5^(-2) x 5^4

a) 1/25 b) 1 c) 25 d) 125

What is the value of 10^3 x 10^(-2)?

a) 10 b) 1/10 c) 1/100 d) 1000

Simplify (9^(-1))^(-2).

a) 9 b) 1/9 c) 1/81 d) 81

Evaluate 6^2 ÷ 6^(-3).

a) 36 b) 1/36 c) 6 d) 1/6

What is the value of 2^5/2^(-4)?

a) 2^(-1) b) 2^(-9) c) 2^9 d) 32

Simplify (5^3)^(-1/2).

a) 1/25 b) 1/5 c) 125 d) 25

Evaluate 4^(-2) x 4^3.

a) 1/64 b) 64 c) 16 d) 256

What is the value of (8^2) / (8^(-1))?

a) 8^3 b) 1/64 c) 8 d) 64

Simplify (3^(-2))^(-1/2).

a) 1/9 b) 1/3 c) 9 d) 27

Evaluate 10^(-2) x 10^4.

a) 1/1000 b) 1/10 c) 1 d) 10000

What is the value of 7^(-3) x 7^(-4)?

a) 1/2401 b) 1/343 c) 1/49 d) 2401

Simplify (6^3)^(-1/2).

a) 6 b) 1/6 c) 1/216 d) 216

Evaluate 2^(-1) x 2^(-3).

a) 1/16 b) 16 c) 1/2 d) 1/8

What is the value of (4^(-1))^(-2)?

a) 4 b) 1/4 c) 1/16 d) 16

Simplify (8^(-2))^(-1/2).

a) 1/8 b) 8 c) 1/64 d) 64

Evaluate 9^3 ÷ 9^(-2).

a) 9^5 b) 1/729 c) 9^(-1) d) 729

What is the value of 5^2 x 5^(-4)?

a) 1/5 b) 1/25 c) 5 d) 25

Simplify (2^(-2))^(-3).

a) 1/2 b) 8 c) 1/8 d) 16

Evaluate 7^(-2) x 7^5.

a) 1/2401 b) 1/49 c) 243 d) 2401

What is the value of (3^3) / (3^(-2))?

a) 3^5 b) 1 c) 3^(-1) d) 3^(-5)

Simplify (10^2)^(-1/2).

a) 1/10 b) 10 c) 1/100 d) 100

Evaluate 6^(-2) x 6^3.

a) 1/216 b) 216 c) 36 d) 1296

What is the value of (5^(-1))^(-2)?

a) 5 b) 1/5 c) 1/25 d) 25

Simplify (4^(-3))^(-1/2).

a) 4 b) 1/4 c) 1/64 d) 64

Evaluate 2^2 ÷ 2^(-3).

a) 8 b) 1/8 c) 2 d) 1/2

What is the value of 0^(-5)?

a) 0 b) 1 c) Undefined d) Infinity

Simplify (9^(-2))^(-1/2).

a) 1/3 b) 1/81 c) 3 d) 81

Evaluate 8^(-3) x 8^(-4).

a) 1/32768 b) 1/512 c) 1/64 d) 32768

What is the value of (3^2) / (3^(-3))?

a) 3^5 b) 1 c) 3^(-1) d) 3^(-5)

Simplify (7^(-3))^(-1/2).

a) 1/7 b) 7 c) 1/343 d) 343

Chapter 13 Direct and Inverse Proportions

If y is directly proportional to x, and y = 12 when x = 3, what is the value of y when x = 5?

a) 20 b) 24 c) 36 d) 40

If a car travels 120 km in 2 hours, how long will it take to travel 180 km at the same speed?

a) 2.5 hours b) 3 hours c) 4 hours d) 5 hours

If 6 workers can complete a project in 10 days, how many workers are needed to complete the same pr oject in 5 days?

a) 3 b) 6 c) 9 d) 12

If a cake recipe requires 2 cups of flour and makes 12 cupcakes, how many cups of flour are needed to make 24 cupcakes?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

If 4 batteries can power a toy for 12 hours, how long will 6 batteries power the same toy?

a) 6 hours b) 8 hours c) 10 hours d) 18 hours

If 5 pens cost $10, how much will 8 pens cost?

a) $12 b) $16 c) $18 d) $20

If 3 workers can complete a job in 8 hours, how long will it take 6 workers to complete the same job?

a) 2 hours b) 4 hours c) 6 hours d) 12 hours

If a bicycle travels 48 km in 4 hours, how far will it travel in 6 hours?

a) 36 km b) 54 km c) 72 km d) 96 km

If 2 liters of water fill a tank in 10 seconds, how long will it take to fill the tank with 8 liters of water?

a) 10 seconds b) 20 seconds c) 30 seconds d) 40 seconds

If 6 books cost $24, how much will 10 books cost?

a) $30 b) $36 c) $40 d) $60

If a car can travel 360 km on 30 liters of fuel, how far can it travel on 45 liters of fuel?

a) 540 km b) 600 km c) 720 km d) 900 km

If 8 workers can complete a construction project in 12 days, how many workers are required to comple te it in 6 days?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 12 d) 16

If a recipe calls for 2 cups of sugar and makes 15 cookies, how many cups of sugar are needed to ma ke 30 cookies?

a) 2.5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

If 5 batteries power a device for 10 hours, how long will 3 batteries power the device?

a) 4 hours b) 6 hours c) 8 hours d) 12 hours

If 7 shirts cost $84, how much will 12 shirts cost?

a) $128 b) $144 c) $170 d) $196

If a train travels 240 km in 3 hours, how far will it travel in 5 hours?

a) 320 km b) 400 km c) 480 km d) 600 km

If 3 workers can dig a trench in 24 hours, how long will it take 6 workers to dig the same trench?

a) 6 hours b) 12 hours c) 18 hours d) 48 hours

If a recipe requires 1 cup of milk and makes 8 muffins, how many cups of milk are needed to make 24 muffins?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

If 4 students can clean a classroom in 1 hour, how long will it take 6 students to clean the same classr oom?

a) 40 minutes b) 50 minutes c) 1 hour and 10 minutes d) 1 hour and 20 minutes

If a car uses 12 liters of fuel to travel 240 km, how far can it travel on 18 liters of fuel?

a) 270 km b) 360 km c) 480 km d) 540 km

If 5 workers can complete a job in 6 days, how many workers are needed to complete the same job in 3 days?

a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 30

If a recipe requires 3 cups of flour and makes 18 cookies, how many cups of flour are needed to make 36 cookies?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 6 d) 9

If 3 batteries power a device for 6 hours, how long will 5 batteries power the device?

a) 10 hours b) 15 hours c) 18 hours d) 30 hours

If 9 shirts cost $135, how much will 15 shirts cost?

a) $200 b) $225 c) $250 d) $270

If a train travels 480 km in 6 hours, how far will it travel in 8 hours?

a) 480 km b) 640 km c) 720 km d) 960 km

If 6 workers can paint a room in 10 hours, how long will it take 12 workers to paint the same room?

a) 4 hours b) 6 hours c) 8 hours d) 12 hours

If a recipe calls for 2 cups of sugar and makes 20 cookies, how many cups of sugar are needed to ma ke 40 cookies?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

If 4 batteries power a device for 8 hours, how long will 2 batteries power the device?

a) 2 hours b) 4 hours c) 6 hours d) 10 hours

If 8 pens cost $32, how much will 5 pens cost?

a) $12.50 b) $15 c) $20 d) $25

If a car can travel 360 km on 30 liters of fuel, how far can it travel on 50 liters of fuel?

a) 500 km b) 600 km c) 720 km d) 900 km

If 12 workers can complete a project in 15 days, how many workers are needed to complete the same project in 10 days?

a) 8 b) 15 c) 18 d) 24

If a recipe requires 2 cups of flour and makes 16 cupcakes, how many cups of flour are needed to ma ke 32 cupcakes?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

If 6 batteries power a device for 12 hours, how long will 4 batteries power the device?

a) 4 hours b) 6 hours c) 8 hours d) 18 hours

If 9 shirts cost $108, how much will 18 shirts cost?

a) $180 b) $216 c) $252 d) $324

If a train travels 300 km in 4 hours, how far will it travel in 7 hours?

a) 450 km b) 600 km c) 750 km d) 1050 km

If 4 workers can dig a trench in 36 hours, how long will it take 8 workers to dig the same trench?

a) 9 hours b) 12 hours c) 18 hours d) 72 hours

If a recipe requires 1 cup of milk and makes 10 muffins, how many cups of milk are needed to make 2 0 muffins?

a) 1.5 b) 2 c) 3 d) 6

If 6 students can clean a classroom in 1.5 hours, how long will it take 9 students to clean the same cla ssroom?

a) 1 hour b) 1.75 hours c) 2 hours d) 2.5 hours

If a car uses 15 liters of fuel to travel 300 km, how far can it travel on 20 liters of fuel?

a) 400 km b) 500 km c) 600 km d) 800 km

If 3 workers can complete a job in 4 days, how many workers are needed to complete the same job in 2 days?

a) 6 b) 9 c) 12 d) 24

Chapter 14 Factorization

Which of the following is a factor of the expression 3x + 6?

a) 2x b) 3x + 2 c) 3x + 3 d) 3x - 6

Simplify the expression 9x^2 + 12x - 4:

a) (3x - 2)(3x + 2) b) (3x + 2)(3x + 2) c) (3x - 4)(3x + 1) d) (3x + 4)(3x - 1)

Find the value of x in the expression 2(4x - 3) = 10:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

Factorize the expression x^2 - 9:

a) (x + 3)(x + 3) b) (x - 3)(x - 3) c) (x + 3)(x - 3) d) (x + 9)(x - 9)

Solve the equation 2(x - 5) = 3(x - 3):

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Factorize the expression 4x^2 - 25:

a) (2x - 5)(2x + 5) b) (4x - 5)(x + 5) c) (2x - 25)(2x + 1) d) (4x + 5)(x - 5)

Find the value of x in the equation 3(2x - 1) = 5(2x + 1):

a) 1/3 b) 1/5 c) 1/7 d) 1/9

Simplify the expression 6x^2 - 11x + 4:

a) (3x - 2)(2x - 2) b) (3x + 2)(2x - 2) c) (3x - 1)(2x + 2) d) (6x - 4)(x - 1)

Which of the following is a factor of the expression 5x^2 + 4x + 1?

a) (5x + 1) b) (x + 2) c) (x - 3) d) (2x + 1)

Factorize the expression 8x^2 - 18xy + 9y^2:

a) (2x - 3y)(4x - 3y) b) (3x - 3y)(4x - 2y) c) (2x - 3y)(4x + 3y) d) (3x - 2y)(4x - 3y)

Solve the equation 4(x + 2) = 2(3x - 1):

a) 3/2 b) 5/2 c) 7/2 d) 9/2

Find the value of x in the equation 5(2x - 3) = 2(3 - x) - 1 + 3x:

a) 2/3 b) 3/4 c) 4/5 d) 5/6

Simplify the expression 9x^2 - 16y^2:

a) (3x - 4y)(3x + 4y) b) (3x + 4y)(3x - 4y) c) (9x - 16y)(x + y) d) (9x + 16y)(x - y)

Factorize the expression x^2 - 16y^2:

a) (x - 4y)(x + 4y) b) (x - 8y)(x + 2y) c) (x + 4y)(x - 2y) d) (x + 8y)(x - 8y)

Find the value of x in the equation (x/2 - 1) = (1 - x/3):

a) 3/4 b) 4/5 c) 5/6 d) 6/7

Simplify the expression 12x^2 - 7xy + y^2:

a) (2x - y)(6x - y) b) (12x - 7y)(x - y) c) (4x - y)(3x - y) d) (3x - y)(4x - y)

Factorize the expression 16x^2 - 25:

a) (4x - 5)(4x + 5) b) (16x - 25)(x + 1) c) (8x - 5)(2x + 5) d) (4x + 5)(4x - 5)

Solve the equation 3(x - 4) = 2(5 - x) + 3:

a) 7/5 b) 5/6 c) 6/7 d) 2/3

Find the value of x in the equation 4(3x - 2) - 1 = 5 - 2(x + 3):

a) -4/5 b) -3/4 c) -2/3 d) -1/2

Simplify the expression 6x^2 - 8xy + 2y^2:

a) (2x - y)(3x - y) b) (6x - 4y)(x - y) c) (2x - y)(3x + y) d) (3x - y)(2x - y)

Factorize the expression 9x^2 - 16:

a) (3x + 4)(3x - 4) b) (9x^2 - 16) c) (3x - 4)(3x - 4) d) (3x + 4)(3x + 4)

Find the value of x in the equation 2(x - 3) = 15 - (7 - x):

a) 4 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

Simplify the expression 12x^2 - 7xy - y^2:

a) (3x - y)(4x - y) b) (12x - 7y)(x + y) c) (4x - y)(3x + y) d) (3x - y)(4x + y)

Factorize the expression x^2 - 64:

a) (x + 8)(x - 8) b) (x + 4)(x - 4) c) (x - 8)(x - 8) d) (x + 8)(x + 8)

Solve the equation 3(2x - 3) = 2x + 1:

a) 1/4 b) 1/5 c) 1/6 d) 1/7

Find the value of x in the equation 4(x - 2) - 3 = 2(4 - x) + 1:

a) 5/4 b) 4/3 c) 3/2 d) 2/1

Simplify the expression 5x^2 + 3xy + 2y^2:

a) (5x + 2y)(x + y) b) (5x - 2y)(x - y) c) (5x + 4y)(x + y) d) (5x - 4y)(x - y)

Factorize the expression x^2 - 25y^2:

a) (x + 5y)(x - 5y) b) (x + 10y)(x - 2y) c) (x - 5y)(x + 2y) d) (x - 10y)(x + 5y)

Find the value of x in the equation (x/4 - 1) = (1 - x/2):

a) 2/3 b) 3/4 c) 4/5 d) 5/6

Simplify the expression 16x^2 - 9y^2:

a) (4x - 3y)(4x + 3y) b) (16x - 9y)(x + y) c) (8x - 3y)(2x + 3y) d) (4x - 3y)(4x - 3y)

Chapter 15 Introduction to Graphs

Which of the following statements is true about graph theory?

a) It deals with the study of bar charts b) It is a branch of mathematics that deals with the study of graphical representation c) It focuses on the connection of data points on a grid d) It is mainly used in statistics and probability

What is a vertex in a graph?

a) A line connecting two points b) A point where two or more lines meet c) A straight line that extends infinitely in both directions d) A point that lies on the x-axis

How many edges does a complete graph with 5 vertices have?

a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20

In a connected graph, there is a path between _____________.

a) Any two vertices b) Only consecutive vertices c) The first and last vertices d) Vertices with the same degree

What is the minimum number of edges required for a graph to be connected?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Which of the following is NOT a type of graph?

a) Eulerian graph b) Planar graph c) Binary graph d) Bipartite graph

In a directed graph, an edge is represented by ___________.

a) A line with arrows at both ends b) A line with a dot at one end c) A solid line without any arrow d) A dashed line without any arrow

Which of the following statements is NOT true about a tree graph?

a) It is a connected graph without any cycles b) It always has at least two vertices c) It cannot have more than one edge between any two vertices d) Removing any edge from a tree creates two separate trees

What is the maximum number of edges in a graph with n vertices, not considering self-loops or parallel edges?

a) n b) n + 1 c) n(n-1)/2 d) n^2

Which of the following is not an example of a planar graph?

a) A graph representing a world map b) A graph representing a crossword puzzle grid c) A graph representing a soccer field d) A graph representing a river network

The degree of a vertex in a graph is ___________.

a) The number of edges connected to that vertex b) The sum of distances from that vertex to other vertices c) The ratio of circumference to diameter for that vertex d) The smallest positive angle that the vertex forms with any edge

Which of the following is a cyclic graph?

a) A graph with no edges b) A graph with only one vertex c) A graph that contains a closed loop or cycle d) A graph with multiple disconnected components

In a complete graph with n vertices, the sum of the degrees of all vertices is equal to ___________.

a) 2n b) n(n-1) c) n(n-1)/2 d) 2n(n-1)

Which of the following is an example of a weighted graph?

a) A graph showing the connectivity of cities on a map b) A graph showing the classification of animals c) A graph representing the number of students in different classes d) A graph representing the number of votes received by political parties in an election

In a bipartite graph, the vertices can be divided into ___________.

a) Two separate components b) Two equal halves c) Two sets such that no two vertices in the same set are connected by an edge d) Two sets such that every vertex in one set is connected to every vertex in the other set

Which of the following is true about an Eulerian graph?

a) It is a connected graph with at least one cycle b) It is a graph with multiple disconnected components c) It is a graph where all vertices have odd degrees d) It is a graph where all vertices have even degrees

In a directed graph, a path that starts and ends at the same vertex is called a ___________.

a) Cycle b) Bipartite c) Tree d) Spanning graph

What is the maximum number of edges in a bipartite graph with n and m vertices in the two sets, resp ectively?

a) n + m b) n * m c) (n + m) * 2 d) (n - 1) * (m - 1)

The sum of the degrees of all vertices in a graph is equal to ___________.

a) 2 times the number of edges b) 3 times the number of edges c) 4 times the number of edges d) 5 times the number of edges

A graph that can be drawn in such a way that no edges cross each other is called a ___________.

a) Simple graph b) Connected graph c) Complete graph d) Planar graph

What is the minimum number of edges required for a graph with n vertices to be a complete graph?

a) n b) n - 1 c) n - 2 d) n + 1

In a directed graph, a vertex with no outgoing edges is called a ___________.

a) Sink vertex b) Source vertex c) Bipartite vertex d) Cyclic vertex

A spanning tree of a connected graph with n vertices has ___________.

a) n - 1 edges b) n edges c) n + 1 edges d) 2n edges

A graph that contains no cycles is called a ___________.

a) Cyclic graph b) Planar graph c) Bipartite graph d) Acyclic graph

Two vertices in a graph are adjacent if ___________.

a) They have the same degree b) They are connected by an edge c) They are part of the same cycle d) They have the same label

What is the maximum number of edges in a simple graph with n vertices?

a) n - 1 b) n c) n(n-1)/2 d) n^2

In a simple graph, a cycle is a specific type of ___________.

a) Vertex b) Degree c) Edge d) Path

Which of the following is true about a Hamiltonian graph?

a) It is a graph with multiple disconnected components b) It is a graph where all vertices have odd degrees c) It is a graph that contains a closed loop or cycle d) It is a connected graph that visits each vertex exactly once

The complement of a graph G is formed by ___________.

a) Adding a new vertex and connecting it to all existing vertices of G b) Removing a vertex and all edges connected to it from G c) Reversing the direction of all edges in G d) Interchanging the labels of all vertices in G

Which of the following is a property of an isomorphism between two graphs?

a) The number of edges in both graphs must be equal b) The labels of the vertices must be the same in both graphs c) The degrees of the vertices must be the same in both graphs d) The shapes of the graphs must be the same

In a weighted graph, the weight of an edge represents ___________.

a) The distance between two vertices b) The angle between two vertices c) The sum of degrees of the connected vertices d) The sum of lengths of the connected edges

A graph that contains a subgraph that is a complete graph is called a ___________.

a) Connected graph b) Disconnected graph c) Subgraph graph d) Subtraction graph

What is the minimum number of edges required for a graph to have a cycle?

a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

Which of the following is true about a planar graph?

a) It can be drawn without any edges crossing each other b) It always has the same number of vertices and edges c) It must have more than one connected component d) It cannot have more than one edge between any two vertices

A graph with n vertices and n - 1 edges is called a ___________.

a) Hamiltonian graph b) Complete graph c) Connected graph d) Eulerian graph

In a directed graph, the degree of a vertex is equal to ___________.

a) The sum of the degrees of its incoming and outgoing edges b) The difference between its incoming and outgoing edges c) The product of the degrees of its incoming and outgoing edges d) The maximum of its incoming and outgoing edges

The dual of a planar graph is formed by ___________.

a) Changing the labels of all vertices b) Reversing the direction of all edges c) Adding a new vertex in the center of each face d) Deleting all edges

In a tree graph, the number of vertices is always ___________.

a) Less than the number of edges b) Equal to the number of edges c) Greater than the number