Class 9 Science and Math's Mcq's Free

Chapter 1 Matter in our Surroundings

Which of the following is an example of a solid?

a) Water b) Air c) Wood d) Oxygen Answer: c) Wood

In which state of matter do particles vibrate about fixed positions?

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Plasma Answer: a) Solid

What happens to the arrangement of particles when a substance changes from a solid to a liquid?

a) They become more tightly packed. b) They move faster and become more free. c) They break apart and become independent. d) They gain an electric charge. Answer: b) They move faster and become more free.

What is the boiling point of water in Celsius?

a) 0°C b) 100°C c) -273°C d) 37°C Answer: b) 100°C

The process of conversion of a solid directly into a gas is called:

a) Sublimation b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Melting Answer: a) Sublimation

Which of the following is not an example of a physical change?

a) Boiling of water b) Burning of wood c) Melting of ice d) Evaporation of perfume Answer: b) Burning of wood

Which form of matter has a definite shape and volume?

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) None of the above Answer: a) Solid

Which of the following is not a method for separating mixtures?

a) Filtration b) Distillation c) Condensation d) Evaporation Answer: c) Condensation

What happens to the particles of a substance when it is heated?

a) They gain mass b) They become invisible c) They move faster d) They change their state of matter Answer: c) They move faster

Which of the following is an example of an element?

a) Sugar b) Oxygen c) Salt d) Baking soda Answer: b) Oxygen

What happens to the volume of gas when it is cooled?

a) It increases b) It decreases c) It remains the same d) It cannot be determined Answer: b) It decreases

What is the process of a gas changing into a liquid called?

a) Condensation b) Evaporation c) Melting d) Sublimation Answer: a) Condensation

What is the unit of measuring temperature?

a) Millimeter (mm) b) Kilogram (kg) c) Degree Celsius (°C) d) Liter (L) Answer: c) Degree Celsius (°C)

Which gas is released during respiration?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Helium Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

Which state of matter has the least kinetic energy?

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Plasma Answer: a) Solid

The process of changing liquid into a solid is called:

a) Melting b) Evaporation c) Condensation d) Freezing Answer: d) Freezing

Which of the following is an example of a solution?

a) Saltwater b) Sand and water mixture c) Oil and water mixture d) Soil Answer: a) Saltwater

What is the process of converting a liquid into a gas called?

a) Melting b) Condensation c) Evaporation d) Sublimation Answer: c) Evaporation

Which of the following is an example of a heterogeneous mixture?

a) Milk b) Salt dissolved in water c) Air d) Granite Answer: d) Granite

The process of conversion of a gas into a liquid is called:

a) Freezing b) Melting c) Condensation d) Sublimation Answer: c) Condensation

What is the main constituent of air?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen Answer: b) Nitrogen

The process of converting a solid directly into a gas without becoming a liquid first is called:

a) Evaporation b) Sublimation c) Melting d) Freezing Answer: b) Sublimation

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a) Dissolving sugar in water b) Boiling water c) Burning wood d) Cutting paper Answer: c) Burning wood

Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure?

a) Barometer b) Thermometer c) Hydrometer d) Voltmeter Answer: a) Barometer

What is the process of converting a liquid into a solid called?

a) Melting b) Evaporation c) Freezing d) Condensation Answer: c) Freezing

Which of the following is an example of a compound?

a) Iron b) Oxygen c) Copper d) Sodium chloride Answer: d) Sodium chloride

What is the process of conversion of a gas directly into a solid called?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Evaporation d) Freezing Answer: b) Sublimation

Which of the following is an example of a suspension?

a) Saltwater b) Vinegar c) Milk d) Lemonade Answer: c) Milk

What is the process of a liquid changing into a gas at a temperature below its boiling point called?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Evaporation d) Freezing Answer: c) Evaporation

Which of the following is an example of an insulator?

a) Wood b) Metal c) Glass d) Copper Answer: a) Wood

Which gas is responsible for the greenhouse effect?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Helium Answer: c) Carbon dioxide

Which of the following is an example of a colloid?

a) Sugar dissolved in water b) Air c) Paint d) Salt and water mixture Answer: c) Paint

What is the process of converting a gas into a solid called?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Evaporation d) Freezing Answer: b) Sublimation

Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous mixture?

a) Sand and water mixture b) Oil and water mixture c) Milk d) Soil Answer: c) Milk

Which of the following substances is a non-metal?

a) Iron b) Copper c) Oxygen d) Sodium chloride Answer: c) Oxygen

What is the process of a solid changing directly into a gas on heating called?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Melting d) Freezing Answer: b) Sublimation

Which of the following is an example of an exothermic change?

a) Melting of ice b) Boiling of water c) Burning of wood d) Sublimation of camphor Answer: c) Burning of wood

Which gas is necessary for combustion?

a) Oxygen b) Nitrogen c) Carbon dioxide d) Hydrogen Answer: a) Oxygen

What is the process of converting gas into a liquid called?

a) Freezing b) Melting c) Condensation d) Sublimation Answer: c) Condensation

Which of the following is not a property of matter?

a) Mass b) Volume c) Temperature d) Energy Answer: c) Temperature

Which is the most abundant gas in the Earth's atmosphere?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen Answer: c) Nitrogen

Which of the following is an example of an endothermic change?

a) Condensation of steam b) Boiling of water c) Melting of ice d) Burning of wood Answer: a) Condensation of steam

Which of the following is an example of a conductor?

a) Plastic b) Wood c) Copper d) Glass Answer: c) Copper

What is the process of a liquid changing into a gas called?

a) Melting b) Condensation c) Evaporation d) Sublimation Answer: c) Evaporation

Which of the following is not a physical property of matter?

a) Color b) Density c) Flammability d) Solubility Answer: c) Flammability

What happens to the particles of a substance when it is cooled?

a) They gain mass b) They become invisible c) They move slower d) They change their state of matter Answer: c) They move slower

Which of the following is an example of a gas?

a) Gold b) Mercury c) Helium d) Copper Answer: c) Helium

What is the process of converting a liquid into a gas called at its boiling point?

a) Freezing b) Melting c) Evaporation d) Boiling Answer: d) Boiling

Which of the following substances is a metal?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Silver d) Sodium chloride Answer: c) Silver

Which of the following is an example of a mixture?

a) Salt b) Gold c) Hydrogen d) Air Answer: d) Air

Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

What is matter?

a) Anything that occupies space and has mass b) Anything that reflects light c) Anything that can change its shape d) Anything that is transparent Answer: a) Anything that occupies space and has mass

Which of the following is a pure substance?

a) Soil b) Saltwater c) Air d) Iron Answer: d) Iron

What is a mixture?

a) A pure substance made up of two or more elements b) A combination of two or more pure substances c) A substance made up of only one kind of atom d) A substance made up of two or more compounds Answer: b) A combination of two or more pure substances

Which of the following is not a physical change?

a) Boiling water b) Melting ice c) Burning paper d) Dissolving salt in water Answer: c) Burning paper

What is a solution? a) A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances b) A heterogeneous mixture of two or more substances c) A pure element d) A pure compound Answer: a) A homogeneous mixture of two or more substances

Which method can be used to separate salt and water?

a) Filtration b) Distillation c) Magnetic separation d) Chromatography Answer: b) Distillation

What is the boiling point of water?

a) 0°C b) 100°C c) -273°C d) 212°F Answer: b) 100°C

What is the freezing point of water?

a) 0°C b) 100°C c) -273°C d) 212°F Answer: a) 0°C

Which of the following is an example of a colloid?

a) Saltwater b) Milk c) Air d) Sugar solution Answer: b) Milk

What type of mixture is blood?

a) Solution b) Suspension c) Colloid d) Compound Answer: c) Colloid

What is the formula for density?

a) Density = Mass × Volume b) Density = Mass ÷ Volume c) Density = Volume ÷ Mass d) Density = Mass + Volume Answer: b) Density = Mass ÷ Volume

Which of the following liquids has the highest density?

a) Water b) Oil c) Alcohol d) Mercury Answer: d) Mercury

Which method is used to separate components of ink?

a) Chromatography b) Distillation c) Filtration d) Evaporation Answer: a) Chromatography

What is a pure substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances?

a) Element b) Compound c) Mixture d) Isotope Answer: a) Element

How is a substance identified based on its properties?

a) Physical and chemical properties b) Physical properties only c) Chemical properties only d) State of matter Answer: a) Physical and chemical properties

Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

a) Boiling water b) Dissolving salt in water c) Burning wood d) Cutting paper Answer: c) Burning wood

What happens to the solubility of most solid solutes as the temperature increases?

a) It increases b) It decreases c) It remains the same d) It depends on the solute Answer: a) It increases

Which process involves the conversion of a solid directly into a gas without going through the liquid st ate?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Evaporation d) Freezing Answer: b) Sublimation

What is the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that element?

a) Molecule b) Atom c) Ion d) Electron Answer: b) Atom

How many elements are there in the periodic table currently?

a) 92 b) 116 c) 118 d) 120 Answer: c) 118

Which of the following is an example of a compound?

a) Oxygen gas (O2) b) Hydrogen gas (H2) c) Water (H2O) d) Helium gas (He) Answer: c) Water (H2O)

Which method is suitable for separating salt from seawater?

a) Distillation b) Filtration c) Decantation d) Condensation Answer: a) Distillation

What is the formula for calculating the concentration of a solution?

a) Concentration = Mass × Volume b) Concentration = Mass ÷ Volume c) Concentration = Volume ÷ Mass d) Concentration = Mass + Volume Answer: b) Concentration = Mass ÷ Volume

Which of the following is used to measure the acidity or alkalinity of a solution?

a) Litmus paper b) pH scale c) Thermometer d) Hydrometer Answer: b) pH scale

Which method can be used to separate a mixture of sand and water?

a) Filtration b) Distillation c) Magnetic separation d) Chromatography Answer: a) Filtration

What is an alloy? a) A type of colloid b) A homogeneous mixture of metals c) A mixture of metals and non-metals d) A pure substance Answer: b) A homogeneous mixture of metals

What is the chemical formula of table salt?

a) Na b) H2O c) NaCl d) CO2 Answer: c) NaCl

Which of the following is an example of a suspension?

a) Milk b) Vinegar c) Lemonade d) Toothpaste Answer: a) Milk

What is the state of matter with a fixed shape and volume?

a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gas d) Plasma Answer: a) Solid

Which process involves the conversion of a gas directly into a solid without going through the liquid st ate?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Evaporation d) Freezing Answer: b) Sublimation

Which of the following is a physical property of matter?

a) Reactivity b) Flammability c) Density d) Corrosiveness Answer: c) Density

Which of the following is an example of a chemical property of matter?

a) Color b) Odor c) Melting point d) Reactivity with acid Answer: d) Reactivity with acid

What is the boiling point of ethanol?

a) 0°C b) 100°C c) -273°C d) 78.37°C Answer: d) 78.37°C

Which method can be used to separate a mixture of oil and water?

a) Filtration b) Distillation c) Magnetic separation d) Decantation Answer: d) Decantation

What is the method used to separate components of a solution in which heat is applied to change the l iquid phase into vapor, which is then condensed back into liquid form?

a) Filtration b) Distillation c) Magnetic separation d) Chromatography Answer: b) Distillation

What type of mixture is bronze (an alloy of copper and tin)?

a) Solution b) Suspension c) Colloid d) Compound Answer: a) Solution

What is the formula for calculating the mass of a substance?

a) Mass = Density × Volume b) Mass = Density ÷ Volume c) Mass = Volume ÷ Density d) Mass = Volume + Density Answer: a) Mass = Density × Volume

Which of the following substances does not conduct electricity?

a) Copper b) Sodium chloride solution c) Sugar solution d) Distilled water Answer: d) Distilled water

What is a solute? a) The substance that is dissolved in a solution b) The substance that does the dissolving in a solution c) A substance that does not dissolve in a solution d) The liquid used in a solution Answer: a) The substance that is dissolved in a solution

Which process involves the conversion of a liquid into a gas at a specific temperature?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Evaporation d) Freezing Answer: c) Evaporation

Which of the following mixtures can be separated by sieving?

a) Saltwater b) Sugar solution c) Sand and stones d) Milk and water Answer: c) Sand and stones

What is the formula for the volume of a regular-shaped object?

a) Volume = Length × Width b) Volume = Length × Width × Height c) Volume = Mass × Density d) Volume = Mass ÷ Density Answer: b) Volume = Length × Width × Height

What is the process of converting a liquid into a solid at a specific temperature?

a) Condensation b) Sublimation c) Evaporation d) Freezing Answer: d) Freezing

Which of the following statements about compounds is correct?

a) Elements can be separated into compounds b) Compounds can be separated into elements c) Compounds can be separated into mixtures d) Compounds cannot be separated Answer: b) Compounds can be separated into elements

Which of the following is a characteristic property of colloids?

a) They settle down on standing b) They are transparent c) They can scatter light d) They have a fixed composition Answer: c) They can scatter light

What is the process of separating a solution into its components using a solid material that allows the solvent to pass through while trapping the solute particles?

a) Filtration b) Distillation c) Magnetic separation d) Chromatography Answer: a) Filtration

How many states of matter are commonly observed?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c) 3

Which method can be used to separate iron filings from a mixture of iron and sulfur powder?

a) Filtration b) Distillation c) Magnetic separation d) Decantation Answer: c) Magnetic separation

What is the chemical formula of carbon dioxide?

a) Na b) H2O c) NaCl d) CO2 Answer: d) CO2

How does a solute affect the boiling point of a solution compared to the pure solvent?

a) It raises the boiling point b) It lowers the boiling point c) It does not affect the boiling point d) It depends on the solvent Answer: a) It raises the boiling point

Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

What is an atom?

a) A fundamental particle of matter b) A microscopic organism c) A type of compound d) An energy source Answer: a) A fundamental particle of matter

Who proposed the concept of the atom?

a) Albert Einstein b) Isaac Newton c) Democritus d) Marie Curie Answer: c) Democritus

What is the charge of a proton?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) No charge Answer: a) Positive

What is the charge of an electron?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) No charge Answer: b) Negative

What is the charge of a neutron?

a) Positive b) Negative c) Neutral d) No charge Answer: c) Neutral

Which subatomic particle determines the atomic number of an element?

a) Proton b) Electron c) Neutron d) All of the above Answer: a) Proton

What is the mass number of an atom?

a) Number of protons only b) Number of protons and neutrons combined c) Number of electrons only d) Number of electrons, protons, and neutrons combined Answer: b) Number of protons and neutrons combined

What is the term used to represent the smallest particle of a compound?

a) Molecule b) Atom c) Compound d) Element Answer: a) Molecule

Which of the following is a diatomic molecule?

a) Hydrogen (H2) b) Oxygen (O) c) Chlorine (Cl) d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

How many atoms are present in a molecule of water (H2O)?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: c) 3

What is the atomic symbol for sodium?

a) S b) Na c) So d) N Answer: b) Na

Which gas is responsible for the smell of rotten eggs?

a) Oxygen b) Hydrogen c) Nitrogen d) Sulfur Answer: d) Sulfur

How many atoms are present in one mole of any substance?

a) 6.02 x 10^20 b) 6.02 x 10^22 c) 6.02 x 10^23 d) 6.02 x 10^24 Answer: c) 6.02 x 10^23

What is Avogadro's number?

a) 6.02 x 10^20 b) 6.02 x 10^22 c) 6.02 x 10^23 d) 6.02 x 10^24 Answer: c) 6.02 x 10^23

What is the chemical formula of water?

a) H2O b) O2 c) CO2 d) H2SO4 Answer: a) H2O

What is the chemical symbol for carbon?

a) Cn b) Ca c) Cr d) C Answer: d) C

Which element is represented by the chemical symbol Fe?

a) Iron b) Iodine c) Fluorine d) Silver Answer: a) Iron

How many atoms are present in one molecule of carbon dioxide (CO2)?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d) 4

Which gas makes up approximately 78% of the Earth's atmosphere?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Hydrogen Answer: c) Nitrogen

What is the atomic symbol for gold?

a) Ag b) Au c) AgCl d) G Answer: b) Au

What is the chemical symbol for helium?

a) He b) H c) He2 d) Hel Answer: a) He

How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of an atom with an atomic number of 12 and a mass n umber of 24?

a) 12 b) 24 c) 36 d) 48 Answer: a) 12

What is the chemical formula for table salt?

a) Na2O b) H2SO4 c) CO2 d) NaCl Answer: d) NaCl

What is the chemical formula for carbon dioxide?

a) CO2 b) H2O c) CH4 d) C6H12O6 Answer: a) CO2

Which subatomic particle is involved in chemical bonding?

a) Proton b) Electron c) Neutron d) All of the above Answer: b) Electron

An atom that gains or loses electrons becomes an:

a) Ion b) Isotope c) Element d) Compound Answer: a) Ion

What is the formula of methane?

a) CH3 b) CH4 c) C2H2 d) C4H10 Answer: b) CH4

Which of the following is an example of a compound?

a) Oxygen (O2) b) Copper (Cu) c) Carbon dioxide (CO2) d) Gold (Au) Answer: c) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

What is the atomic mass of an element?

a) Number of protons only b) Number of protons and neutrons combined c) Number of electrons only d) Number of electrons, protons, and neutrons combined Answer: b) Number of protons and neutrons combined

What is the chemical symbol for potassium?

a) P b) K c) Ko d) Pt Answer: b) K

How many atoms are present in one mole of oxygen (O2)?

a) 6.02 x 10^20 b) 6.02 x 10^22 c) 6.02 x 10^23 d) 6.02 x 10^24 Answer: c) 6.02 x 10^23

Which element is represented by the chemical symbol Ag?

a) Iron b) Iodine c) Silver d) Fluorine Answer: c) Silver

What is the chemical formula of ammonia?

a) NH3 b) N2H4 c) NH4Cl d) NaOH Answer: a) NH3

How many atoms are present in one molecule of methane (CH4)?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 5 Answer: d) 5

Which element is the most abundant in the Earth's crust?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon c) Silicon d) Aluminum Answer: a) Oxygen

What is the atomic symbol for calcium?

a) Ca b) C c) Cl d) Cal Answer: a) Ca

How many electrons can the third energy level of an atom hold at most?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 18 Answer: c) 8

What is the chemical formula for water?

a) H2O b) O2 c) CO2 d) H2SO4 Answer: a) H2O

What is the chemical symbol for nitrogen?

a) N b) Ng c) Ni d) Ne Answer: a) N

How many atoms are present in one molecule of sodium chloride (NaCl)?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: d) 4

Which gas is essential for photosynthesis?

a) Oxygen b) Carbon dioxide c) Nitrogen d) Helium Answer: b) Carbon dioxide

What is the atomic symbol for silver?

a) Si b) Sr c) Au d) Ag Answer: d) Ag

How many protons are present in one atom of helium (He)?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4 Answer: b) 2

What is the chemical formula for carbon monoxide?

a) CO2 b) H2O c) CH4 d) CO Answer: d) CO

Which subatomic particle is responsible for the positive charge of an atom?

a) Proton b) Electron c) Neutron d) All of the above Answer: a) Proton

What is the formula of ethane?

a) C2H2 b) C2H4 c) C2H6 d) C6H12O6 Answer: c) C2H6

Which of the following is not a compound?

a) Water (H2O) b) Oxygen (O2) c) Glucose (C6H12O6) d) Salt (NaCl) Answer: b) Oxygen (O2)

What is the atomic symbol for iron?

a) Fe b) Fu c) Ir d) Fr Answer: a) Fe

How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of an atom with an atomic number of 7 and a mass nu mber of 14?

a) 7 b) 14 c) 21 d) 28 Answer: a) 7

What is the chemical formula for sulfuric acid?

a) H2O b) CO2 c) CH4 d) H2SO4 Answer: d) H2SO4

Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom

Who discovered the electron?

a. John Dalton b. J.J. Thomson c. James Chadwick d. Ernest Rutherford Answer: b. J.J. Thomson

What is the charge of a proton?

a. Positive b. Negative c. Neutral d. None of the above Answer: a. Positive

Which subatomic particle is found outside the nucleus?

a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. All of the above Answer: c. Electron

The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom is called the:

a. Atomic mass b. Atomic number c. Atomic weight d. None of the above Answer: a. Atomic mass

The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Protons and neutrons combined Answer: a. Protons

Which subatomic particle is responsible for the chemical behavior of an atom?

a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Nucleus Answer: c. Electron

What is the mass of an electron?

a. 1/2 amu (atomic mass unit) b. 1 amu c. 0 amu d. None of the above Answer: c. 0 amu

The atomic mass of an atom is equal to the number of:

a. Neutrons b. Electrons c. Protons and neutrons combined d. Electrons and protons combined Answer: c. Protons and neutrons combined

An atom becomes a positive ion when it: a. Gains electrons b. Loses electrons c. Gains protons d. Loses protons Answer: b. Loses electrons

The maximum number of electrons in the first shell of an atom is:

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: a. 2

The second shell of an atom can hold a maximum of how many electrons?

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: d. 8

When an electron moves from a lower energy level to a higher energy level, it:

a. Absorbs energy b. Releases energy c. Neither absorbs nor releases energy d. None of the above Answer: a. Absorbs energy

The electronic configuration of oxygen is:

a. 2, 8, 6 b. 2, 6, 8 c. 8, 2, 6 d. 6, 2, 8 Answer: a. 2, 8, 6

Isotopes of an element have the same number of:

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Both a and c Answer: d. Both a and c

The atomic number of an atom represents the number of:

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Both a and b Answer: a. Protons

The particles that are present in the nucleus of an atom are:

a. Electrons b. Protons and electrons c. Protons and neutrons d. Neutrons and electrons Answer: c. Protons and neutrons

The element with atomic number 1 is:

a. Hydrogen b. Helium c. Oxygen d. Carbon Answer: a. Hydrogen

Thomson's model of an atom is compared to

a. Plum Pudding b. Solar system c. Billiard balls d. None of the above Answer: a. Plum Pudding

The nucleus of an atom is made up of:

a. Protons and electrons b. Protons and neutrons c. Electrons and neutrons d. Electrons and protons Answer: b. Protons and neutrons

The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of its:

a. Electrons b. Protons c. Neutrons d. Both a and b Answer: b. Protons

The maximum number of electrons in the outermost shell of an atom is:

a. 2 b. 8 c. 18 d. 32 Answer: b. 8

The electronic configuration of sodium is:

a. 2, 8, 1 b. 8, 2, 1 c. 2, 1, 8 d. 1, 2, 8 Answer: a. 2, 8, 1

The atomic mass unit is defined as:

a. The mass of one neutron b. The mass of one electron c. The average mass of one proton and one neutron d. The mass of one proton Answer: c. The average mass of one proton and one neutron

The atomic mass of an element is usually written:

a. In grams b. In atomic mass units (amu) c. In kilograms d. In moles Answer: b. In atomic mass units (amu)

In Rutherford's gold foil experiment, most of the alpha particles passed through the gold foil:

a. Without any deflection b. With slight deflection c. With a sharp deflection d. Backwards Answer: a. Without any deflection

An atom with the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons is called a(n):

a. Ion b. Isotope c. Element d. Compound Answer: b. Isotope

Which of the following statements is true about an ion?

a. It has a positive charge b. It has a negative charge c. It has a neutral charge d. Both a and b Answer: d. Both a and b

The number of energy levels or shells in an atom is determined by the number of:

a. Electrons b. Neutrons c. Protons d. Both a and c Answer: a. Electrons

The symbol used to represent an electron is:

a. E b. El c. e d. None of the above Answer: c. e

The atomic number of an element determines its:

a. Mass number b. Chemical properties c. Physical properties d. Radioactive properties Answer: b. Chemical properties

Electrons revolve around the nucleus of an atom in specific paths called:

a. Energy levels b. Shells c. Orbits d. All of the above Answer: d. All of the above

The charge of a neutron is:

a. Positive b. Negative c. Neutral d. None of the above Answer: c. Neutral

The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of:

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Both a and c Answer: a. Protons

The particles with opposite charges attract each other, this statement is based on which subatomic pa rticle?

a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Nucleus Answer: c. Electron

The concept of energy levels or shells in an atom was given by:

a. J.J. Thomson b. John Dalton c. Ernest Rutherford d. Niels Bohr Answer: d. Niels Bohr

The maximum number of electrons in the third shell of an atom is:

a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 18 Answer: d. 18

The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of:

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Neutrons and electrons combined Answer: a. Protons

The atomic number of an atom represents the number of:

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons in the outermost shell d. Neutrons and electrons combined Answer: a. Protons

The atomic mass of an element is defined as the:

a. Total number of protons and electrons b. Number of protons alone c. Number of neutrons alone d. Average mass of naturally occurring isotopes Answer: d. Average mass of naturally occurring isotopes

The electronic configuration of carbon is:

a. 2, 4 b. 2, 6 c. 4, 2 d. 6, 2 Answer: b. 2, 6

Who proposed the nuclear model of an atom?

a. J.J. Thomson b. Ernest Rutherford c. Niels Bohr d. James Chadwick Answer: b. Ernest Rutherford

The nucleus of an atom has:

a. Positive charge b. Negative charge c. Neutral charge d. Both a and c Answer: a. Positive charge

The atomic mass of an element is calculated using the formula:

a. Atomic number + Atomic mass b. Atomic number - Atomic mass c. Atomic mass + Mass number d. Atomic mass - Mass number Answer: c. Atomic mass + Mass number

Which subatomic particle has negligible mass?

a. Proton b. Neutron c. Electron d. Both a and b Answer: c. Electron

Isotopes of an element have the same number of:

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons d. Both a and c Answer: d. Both a and c

According to Bohr's model of an atom, electrons revolve in fixed energy levels called:

a. Orbits b. Rings c. Shells d. All of the above Answer: c. Shells

The atomic mass of an element is often written as a decimal number on the periodic table. Why?

a. To indicate the average mass of naturally occurring isotopes b. To indicate the number of protons c. To make it easier to read d. None of the above Answer: a. To indicate the average mass of naturally occurring isotopes

The atomic number of an element represents the number of:

a. Protons b. Neutrons c. Electrons in the outermost shell d. Neutrons and electrons combined Answer: a. Protons

The maximum number of electrons in the second shell of an atom is:

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 Answer: d. 8

The atomic number is unique for each element. What does this mean?

a. Each element has a different atomic number b. Each element has the same atomic number c. Atomic number is not related to the element d. None of the above Answer: a. Each element has a different atomic number

Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

Which scientist is credited with discovering cells?

a) Robert Hooke b) Albert Einstein c) Isaac Newton d) Charles Darwin Answer: a) Robert Hooke

The cell theory states that:

a) All organisms are made up of cells b) Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living organisms c) Cells arise only from pre-existing cells d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

Which organelle is responsible for generating energy in the cell?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Golgi apparatus d) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: b) Mitochondria

Which organelle is known as the "control center" of the cell?

a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Lysosome d) Cell membrane Answer: a) Nucleus

Which is the largest organelle in the animal cell?

a) Golgi apparatus b) Nucleus c) Vacuole d) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: b) Nucleus

What is the function of the cell wall in a plant cell?

a) Provides support and protection b) Regulates the movement of materials in and out of the cell c) Controls the cell's activities d) Stores genetic material Answer: a) Provides support and protection

Which is the site of protein synthesis in a cell?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Ribosome d) Vacuole Answer: c) Ribosome

What is the function of chloroplasts in plant cells?

a) Photosynthesis b) Cellular respiration c) Storage of water and nutrients d) Protein synthesis Answer: a) Photosynthesis

Which organelle contains digestive enzymes?

a) Vacuole b) Lysosome c) Golgi apparatus d) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: b) Lysosome

Which is the thinnest cell organelle?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Ribosome d) Golgi apparatus Answer: c) Ribosome

The cytoplasm of a cell is mainly composed of:

a) Water b) Proteins c) Fats d) Nucleic acids Answer: a) Water

Which is the basic structural unit of a cell membrane?

a) Nucleus b) Phospholipid c) Protein d) Carbohydrate Answer: b) Phospholipid

Which type of cells lack a well-defined nucleus?

a) Prokaryotic cells b) Eukaryotic cells c) Plant cells d) Animal cells Answer: a) Prokaryotic cells

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of lipids?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Golgi apparatus d) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: d) Endoplasmic reticulum

The process of transfer of genetic information from the nucleus to ribosomes is known as:

a) Translation b) Transcription c) Replication d) Transformation Answer: b) Transcription

Which are the storage sacs in plant cells that store water, ions, and nutrients?

a) Nucleus b) Lysosome c) Vacuole d) Golgi apparatus Answer: c) Vacuole

Which structure is responsible for maintaining the cell's shape and providing mechanical support?

a) Nucleus b) Cell wall c) Cell membrane d) Chloroplast Answer: b) Cell wall

Which organelle is involved in detoxification processes in the cell?

a) Vacuole b) Lysosome c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Golgi apparatus Answer: c) Endoplasmic reticulum

What is the function of a centrosome in an animal cell?

a) Storage of water and nutrients b) Protein synthesis c) Cell division d) Photosynthesis Answer: c) Cell division

The movement of water molecules from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentr

ation is called: a) Active transport b) Diffusion c) Osmosis d) Endocytosis Answer: c) Osmosis

Which term describes the gradual movement of substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration?

a) Osmosis b) Diffusion c) Active transport d) Facilitated diffusion Answer: b) Diffusion

Which type of cells contain a large number of mitochondria?

a) Nerve cells b) Muscle cells c) Skin cells d) Fat cells Answer: b) Muscle cells

Which is the outermost layer of a plant cell?

a) Cell membrane b) Cell wall c) Cytoplasm d) Nucleus Answer: b) Cell wall

The process of cell division in which one parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells is called:

a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) Binary fission d) Budding Answer: a) Mitosis

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis and transport of proteins in the cell?

a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Golgi apparatus d) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: d) Endoplasmic reticulum

Which is the smallest cell organelle?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Ribosome d) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: c) Ribosome

Which is the site of photosynthesis in plant cells?

a) Nucleus b) Lysosome c) Vacuole d) Chloroplast Answer: d) Chloroplast

Which type of cells contain a cell wall?

a) Animal cells b) Plant cells c) Both animal and plant cells d) None of the above Answer: b) Plant cells

Which organelle is responsible for breaking down cellular waste and debris?

a) Vacuole b) Lysosome c) Protein d) Golgi apparatus Answer: b) Lysosome

The protective covering of a virus is called:

a) Cell membrane b) Capsid c) Cytoplasm d) Plasma membrane Answer: b) Capsid

The study of cells is called:

a) Cytology b) Virology c) Microbiology d) Genetics Answer: a) Cytology

Which type of cell lacks a cell membrane?

a) Animal cells b) Plant cells c) Bacterial cells d) Fungal cells Answer: c) Bacterial cells

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis, packaging, and secretion of proteins?

a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Golgi apparatus d) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: c) Golgi apparatus

Which type of cells contain a large central vacuole?

a) Plant cells b) Animal cells c) Bacterial cells d) Fungal cells Answer: a) Plant cells

The process of movement of molecules against the concentration gradient using energy is called:

a) Diffusion b) Osmosis c) Active transport d) Facilitated diffusion Answer: c) Active transport

Which is the site of DNA replication in a cell?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Ribosome d) Golgi apparatus Answer: a) Nucleus

Which is the fluid-filled region within the cell where various cell organelles are suspended?

a) Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) Chloroplast d) Cell membrane Answer: b) Cytoplasm

Which organelle is responsible for maintaining the shape and structure of the cell?

a) Nucleus b) Cell membrane c) Lysosome d) Golgi apparatus Answer: b) Cell membrane

Which is the organelle where photosynthesis takes place in plant cells?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Ribosome d) Chloroplast Answer: d) Chloroplast

Which organelle is responsible for detoxification and metabolism of drugs in liver cells?

a) Vacuole b) Lysosome c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Golgi apparatus Answer: c) Endoplasmic reticulum

Which organelle is responsible for maintaining the osmotic balance of the cell?

a) Vacuole b) Lysosome c) Endoplasmic reticulum d) Golgi apparatus Answer: a) Vacuole

The process of cell engulfing solid particles from the external environment is called:

a) Endocytosis b) Exocytosis c) Pinocytosis d) Phagocytosis Answer: d) Phagocytosis

Which organelle is responsible for the production of ribosomes in a cell?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Ribosome d) Nucleolus Answer: d) Nucleolus

Which is the flexible, protective covering of the cell that regulates the movement of materials in and ou t of the cell?

a) Nucleus b) Cell wall c) Cell membrane d) Chloroplast Answer: c) Cell membrane

Which type of cells are multi-cellular and have a complex organization?

a) Prokaryotic cells b) Eukaryotic cells c) Bacterial cells d) Fungal cells Answer: b) Eukaryotic cells

The cell division process in which two identical daughter cells are formed is called:

a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) Binary fission d) Budding Answer: a) Mitosis

Which organelle is responsible for the synthesis of ATP?

a) Nucleus b) Mitochondria c) Golgi apparatus d) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer: b) Mitochondria

The flexible, transparent, non-living substance that fills the space between the nucleus and the cell me mbrane is called:

a) Nucleus b) Cytoplasm c) Cell juice d) Cell paste Answer: b) Cytoplasm

Which organelle is responsible for the breakdown of fatty acids and detoxification of alcohol in liver cel ls?

a) Vacuole b) Lysosome c) Peroxisome d) Golgi apparatus Answer: c) Peroxisome

Which is the largest organelle in a cell that contains the cell's genetic material?

a) Nucleus b) Ribosome c) Lysosome d) Cell membrane Answer: a) Nucleus

Chapter 6 Tissues

Which of the following is not a type of plant tissue?

a) Epithelial tissue b) Meristematic tissue c) Permanent tissue d) Vascular tissue Answer: a) Epithelial tissue

Animal tissues are divided into how many types?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6 Answer: b) 4

Which type of plant tissue is responsible for growth in plants?

a) Meristematic tissue b) Epidermal tissue c) Vascular tissue d) Cork tissue Answer: a) Meristematic tissue

Which animal tissue forms the lining of the respiratory tract?

a) Muscle tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: d) Epithelial tissue

Xylem and phloem are examples of which type of plant tissue?

a) Meristematic tissue b) Epidermal tissue c) Vascular tissue d) Cork tissue Answer: c) Vascular tissue

Bones, tendons, and ligaments are made up of which type of animal tissue?

a) Muscle tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: c) Connective tissue

Which of the following is the main function of muscle tissue?

a) Coordination and control b) Transport of materials c) Movement and locomotion d) Protection and support Answer: c) Movement and locomotion

The inner lining of the heart is made up of which type of tissue?

a) Muscle tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: d) Epithelial tissue

Which plant tissue is responsible for the healing of wounds?

a) Dermal tissue b) Ground tissue c) Meristematic tissue d) Vascular tissue Answer: c) Meristematic tissue

Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

a) Blood b) Cartilage c) Muscles d) Bone Answer: c) Muscles

Which type of tissue covers the external surface of the body?

a) Epithelial tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Vascular tissue Answer: a) Epithelial tissue

Which plant tissue provides mechanical strength and support to the plants?

a) Dermal tissue b) Ground tissue c) Meristematic tissue d) Vascular tissue Answer: b) Ground tissue

Which type of tissue allows rapid communication within the body?

a) Epithelial tissue b) Muscle tissue c) Nervous tissue d) Connective tissue Answer: c) Nervous tissue

The tissue that stores fat in our body is called:

a) Adipose tissue b) Connective tissue c) Epithelial tissue d) Muscular tissue Answer: a) Adipose tissue

Which tissue helps in the exchange of gases in plants?

a) Meristematic tissue b) Phloem tissue c) Epidermal tissue d) Spongy tissue Answer: d) Spongy tissue

Which of the following is an example of a complex permanent tissue?

a) Xylem b) Parenchyma c) Epidermis d) Collenchyma Answer: a) Xylem

Which type of plant tissue is found in the leaf mesophyll and photosynthesizes?

a) Sclerenchyma b) Epidermal tissue c) Parenchyma d) Phloem Answer: c) Parenchyma

The fluid matrix in blood tissue is called:

a) Plasma b) Serum c) Lymph d) Red blood cells Answer: a) Plasma

The tissue present in the stems of plants and provides mechanical support is called:

a) Collenchyma b) Parenchyma c) Xylem d) Phloem Answer: a) Collenchyma

Which type of tissue forms the lining of the urinary bladder?

a) Nervous tissue b) Muscle tissue c) Epithelial tissue d) Connective tissue Answer: c) Epithelial tissue

Which plant tissue is responsible for storage of food materials?

a) Xylem b) Phloem c) Epidermis d) Parenchyma Answer: d) Parenchyma

Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of blood vessels?

a) Skeletal muscle b) Cardiac muscle c) Smooth muscle d) Nervous tissue Answer: c) Smooth muscle

Which type of tissue is responsible for the formation of cork in plants?

a) Meristematic tissue b) Epidermal tissue c) Vascular tissue d) Cork cambium Answer: d) Cork cambium

The tissue that forms the conducting channels for water, minerals, and food in plants is called:

a) Xylem b) Phloem c) Epidermis d) Parenchyma Answer: b) Phloem

Which type of tissue lines the inner surface of our stomach and intestines?

a) Epithelial tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Muscular tissue Answer: a) Epithelial tissue

The tissue that covers the tip of the root and helps in the absorption of water and minerals is called:

a) Root hair b) Epidermis c) Xylem d) Phloem Answer: b) Epidermis

Which plant tissue is responsible for the transport of water and minerals?

a) Phloem b) Meristematic tissue c) Epidermal tissue d) Xylem Answer: d) Xylem

Which type of tissue forms the brain, spinal cord, and nerves?

a) Connective tissue b) Epithelial tissue c) Muscular tissue d) Nervous tissue Answer: d) Nervous tissue

Which type of tissue is responsible for the contraction and relaxation of the muscles?

a) Epithelial tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Muscular tissue Answer: d) Muscular tissue

The cells of which tissue are loosely packed with large intercellular spaces?

a) Meristematic tissue b) Xylem c) Epidermal tissue d) Parenchyma Answer: d) Parenchyma

Which tissue acts as a shock absorber and provides support to organs?

a) Connective tissue b) Muscular tissue c) Nervous tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: a) Connective tissue

The tissue that surrounds and protects delicate organs like the brain and spinal cord is called:

a) Connective tissue b) Epithelial tissue c) Nervous tissue d) Muscular tissue Answer: a) Connective tissue

Which type of tissue is responsible for movement in our body parts?

a) Epithelial tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Muscular tissue Answer: d) Muscular tissue

Which type of tissue forms the outermost protective covering of the plant body?

a) Meristematic tissue b) Dermal tissue c) Epidermal tissue d) Parenchyma Answer: c) Epidermal tissue

Which animal tissue is responsible for coordinating and controlling various activities in our body?

a) Connective tissue b) Muscular tissue c) Nervous tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: c) Nervous tissue

Which type of tissue forms the inner lining of the digestive tract?

a) Epithelial tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Connective tissue d) Muscular tissue Answer: a) Epithelial tissue

The tissue that forms a continuous layer over the surface of organs and blood vessels is called:

a) Connective tissue b) Epithelial tissue c) Nervous tissue d) Muscular tissue Answer: b) Epithelial tissue

Which type of tissue helps in the repair of damaged tissues in our body?

a) Connective tissue b) Muscular tissue c) Nervous tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: a) Connective tissue

The tissue that connects muscles to bones is called:

a) Tendon b) Ligament c) Cartilage d) Connective tissue Answer: a) Tendon

Which type of plant tissue produces gametes in plants?

a) Meristematic tissue b) Vascular tissue c) Reproductive tissue d) Epidermal tissue Answer: c) Reproductive tissue

The tissue that forms the supporting framework in plants and provides mechanical strength is called:

a) Xylem b) Phloem c) Epidermis d) Sclerenchyma Answer: d) Sclerenchyma

Which type of plant tissue is responsible for gaseous exchange in leaves?

a) Meristematic tissue b) Spongy tissue c) Epidermal tissue d) Cork tissue Answer: b) Spongy tissue

The tissue that transports food materials from leaves to other parts of the plant is called:

a) Phloem b) Xylem c) Epidermis d) Parenchyma Answer: a) Phloem

Which animal tissue covers the external surface of our body and protects it from injury?

a) Connective tissue b) Nervous tissue c) Epidermal tissue d) Muscular tissue Answer: c) Epidermal tissue

The tissue that stores water in plants and plays a supportive role is called:

a) Parenchyma b) Sclerenchyma c) Collenchyma d) Epidermis Answer: a) Parenchyma

Which type of animal tissue is composed of cells that are long, cylindrical, and multinucleated?

a) Nervous tissue b) Muscular tissue c) Connective tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: b) Muscular tissue

The tissue that connects bones to bones is called:

a) Tendon b) Ligament c) Cartilage d) Connective tissue Answer: b) Ligament

Which type of tissue forms a protective cover on the wound's surface and helps in blood clotting?

a) Nervous tissue b) Connective tissue c) Muscular tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: d) Epithelial tissue

The tissue that transports water and minerals from roots to other parts of the plant is called:

a) Xylem b) Phloem c) Epidermis d) Parenchyma Answer: a) Xylem

Which type of animal tissue covers the ends of bones and helps in the smooth movement of joints?

a) Connective tissue b) Muscular tissue c) Nervous tissue d) Epithelial tissue Answer: a) Connective tissue

Chapter 7 Diversity in Living Organisms

How do organisms with cell walls differ from those without cell walls?

a) Organisms without cell walls are multicellular b) Organisms without cell walls are prokaryotic c) Organisms without cell walls are eukaryotic d) Organisms without cell walls are autotrophic Answer: b) Organisms without cell walls are prokaryotic

Which statement best describes a eukaryotic organism?

a) Organism consisting of nucleoid region b) Organism with membrane-bound organelles c) Organism with a cell wall made of chitin d) Organism that can perform photosynthesis Answer: b) Organism with membrane-bound organelles

Which of the following is an example of a multicellular organism?

a) Bacteria b) Amoeba c) Yeast d) Humans Answer: d) Humans

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of plants?

a) Multicellular b) Cell wall made of cellulose c) Autotrophic nutrition d) Heterotrophic nutrition Answer: d) Heterotrophic nutrition

Which kingdom includes organisms that lack a cell wall?

a) Plantae b) Animalia c) Fungi d) Protista Answer: b) Animalia

Which of the following organisms are classified as prokaryotes?

a) Fungi b) Protists c) Plants d) Bacteria Answer: d) Bacteria

Which of the following is a characteristic of fungi?

a) Photosynthesis b) Multicellularity c) Animal-like locomotion d) Absorption of nutrients Answer: d) Absorption of nutrients

Which type of nutrition is observed in animals?

a) Autotrophic b) Heterotrophic c) Photosynthetic d) Mixotrophic Answer: b) Heterotrophic

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of animals?

a) Presence of cellulose cell wall b) Multicellular organization c) Presence of specialized tissues d) Ability to move Answer: a) Presence of cellulose cell wall

Which is the largest phylum in the animal kingdom?

a) Porifera b) Cnidaria c) Arthropoda d) Mollusca Answer: c) Arthropoda

Which phylum includes animals with radial symmetry?

a) Porifera b) Cnidaria c) Annelida d) Platyhelminthes Answer: b) Cnidaria

Which of the following animals belongs to the phylum Arthropoda?

a) Earthworm b) Starfish c) Spider d) Flatworm Answer: c) Spider

Which classification level is more specific than the phylum?

a) Class b) Order c) Family d) Genus Answer: a) Class

Which of the following is a characteristic of chordates?

a) Exoskeleton b) Segmented body c) Notochord d) Gills for respiration Answer: c) Notochord

Which organ system is responsible for the transportation of nutrients in plants?

a) Circulatory system b) Respiratory system c) Digestive system d) Vascular system Answer: d) Vascular system

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down complex carbohydrates into simple sugars during dig estion?

a) Lipase b) Amylase c) Protease d) Sucrase Answer: b) Amylase

Which of the following is NOT part of the alimentary canal?

a) Stomach b) Small intestine c) Large intestine d) Liver Answer: d) Liver

Which of the following is an accessory gland of the human digestive system?

a) Pancreas b) Kidney c) Gallbladder d) Spleen Answer: c) Gallbladder

Which vessel carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart?

a) Pulmonary vein b) Pulmonary artery c) Aorta d) Inferior vena cava Answer: a) Pulmonary vein

Which organ is responsible for the filtration of blood and the formation of urine?

a) Liver b) Kidney c) Lungs d) Spleen Answer: b) Kidney

Which process allows plants to produce offspring without involving seeds or spores?

a) Fertilization b) Pollination c) Vegetative propagation d) Germination Answer: c) Vegetative propagation

Which part of a flower produces pollen grains?

a) Petal b) Stamen c) Pistil d) Sepal Answer: b) Stamen

What type of asexual reproduction is seen in yeast?

a) Fragmentation b) Regeneration c) Budding d) Binary fission Answer: c) Budding

What is the main function of the nervous system?

a) Coordination and control of body activities b) Production of hormones c) Circulation of blood d) Exchange of gases Answer: a) Coordination and control of body activities

Which sense organ is responsible for hearing and equilibrium?

a) Eye b) Ear c) Nose d) Tongue Answer: b) Ear

Which of the following is NOT a type of joint in the human body?

a) Hinge joint b) Ball and socket joint c) Pivot joint d) Gliding joint Answer: d) Gliding joint

Which organ system is responsible for the production of gametes and the continuation of the human s pecies?

a) Muscular system b) Skeletal system c) Reproductive system d) Endocrine system Answer: c) Reproductive system

Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?

a) Asthma b) Tuberculosis c) Influenza d) Syphilis Answer: d) Syphilis

Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C?

a) Scurvy b) Rickets c) Beriberi d) Pellagra Answer: a) Scurvy

Which of the following diseases is caused by a viral infection?

a) Malaria b) Tuberculosis c) Influenza d) Cholera Answer: c) Influenza These are the first 30 questions, continuing with the remaining 20:

To which kingdom do multicellular algae belong?

a) Protista b) Fungi c) Plantae d) Animalia Answer: c) Plantae

In which organism does sexual reproduction occur by the fusion of two gametes? a) Amoeba b) Hydra c) Paramecium d) Planaria Answer: b) Hydra

What type of symmetry is seen in sponges?

a) Radial symmetry b) Asymmetry c) Bilateral symmetry d) Spherical symmetry Answer: b) Asymmetry

Which of the following is a type of flatworm?

a) Earthworm b) Tapeworm c) Roundworm d) Leech Answer: b) Tapeworm

Which of the following phyla includes animals with a notochord?

a) Mollusca b) Chordata c) Echinodermata d) Arthropoda Answer: b) Chordata

Which part of the human digestive system is responsible for the absorption of nutrients?

a) Stomach b) Small intestine c) Esophagus d) Large intestine Answer: b) Small intestine

What is the function of red blood cells in the human body?

a) Carrying oxygen b) Fighting infections c) Producing antibodies d) Filtering waste products Answer: a) Carrying oxygen

Which of the following is NOT a male reproductive organ in humans?

a) Testes b) Prostate gland c) Vas deferens d) Ovary Answer: d) Ovary

Which organ pumps blood throughout the human body?

a) Lungs b) Brain c) Heart d) Kidneys Answer: c) Heart

What is the function of the muscular system?

a) Protection of internal organs b) Production of hormones c) Provides structural support d) Movement of body parts Answer: d) Movement of body parts

Which sense organ is responsible for the sense of taste?

a) Eye b) Ear c) Nose d) Tongue Answer: d) Tongue

How many bones are there in the human skeletal system?

a) 106 b) 206 c) 306 d) 406 Answer: b) 206

What is the purpose of the endocrine system in the human body?

a) Transportation of nutrients b) Production of energy c) Coordination of body functions through hormones d) Removal of waste products Answer: c) Coordination of body functions through hormones

Which of the following is NOT a part of the female reproductive system?

a) Ovary b) Uterus c) Testes d) Fallopian tubes Answer: c) Testes

Which of the following diseases is caused by a bacterial infection?

a) Cholera b) Malaria c) Influenza d) Dengue Answer: a) Cholera

Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D?

a) Scurvy b) Rickets c) Beriberi d) Pellagra Answer: b) Rickets

What is the main function of the respiratory system in the human body?

a) Absorption of nutrients b) Excretion of waste products c) Exchange of gases d) Production of hormones Answer: c) Exchange of gases

Which of the following is a disease caused by a parasite?

a) Tuberculosis b) Malaria c) Asthma d) Diabetes Answer: b) Malaria

How many chambers are there in the human heart?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5 Answer: c) 4

Which of the following diseases is caused by a virus and affects the respiratory system?

a) Dengue b) Tuberculosis c) Influenza d) Malaria Answer: c) Influenza

Chapter 8 Motion

Which of the following best defines motion?

a) The state of rest b) The change in position c) The measure of weight d) The result of a force Answer: b) The change in position

What is the SI unit of speed?

a) Meter b) Meter per second c) Kilometer d) Kilometer per hour Answer: b) Meter per second

What does the slope of a distance-time graph represent?

a) Speed b) Velocity c) Acceleration d) Distance Answer: a) Speed

Which of the following describes uniform motion?

a) Non-uniform speed b) Changing direction c) Constant speed in a straight line d) Speed with acceleration Answer: c) Constant speed in a straight line

What is the term for the rate of change of velocity?

a) Speed b) Distance c) Displacement d) Acceleration Answer: d) Acceleration

The velocity-time graph of an object moving with uniform acceleration is:

a) A straight line b) A horizontal line c) A curved line d) Parallel to the y-axis Answer: c) A curved line

What does the area under a velocity-time graph represent?

a) Acceleration b) Displacement c) Speed d) Force Answer: b) Displacement

Which of the following is an example of non-contact force?

a) Friction b) Air resistance c) Tension in a string d) Magnetic force Answer: d) Magnetic force

According to Newton's first law of motion, an object will remain at rest or in uniform motion unless acted upon by:

a) Gravity b) Air resistance c) Friction d) An external force Answer: d) An external force

Which law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction?

a) Newton's first law b) Newton's second law c) Newton's third law d) Newton's law of gravitation Answer: c) Newton's third law

Which of the following can change the momentum of an object?

a) Speed b) Acceleration c) Force d) Distance Answer: c) Force

Which of the following is an example of inertia?

a) A car accelerating b) A ball rolling down a hill c) A book falling from a shelf d) An object staying at rest when a force is applied Answer: d) An object staying at rest when a force is applied

Which of the following forces always opposes motion? a) Friction b) Gravity c) Tension d) Magnetic force Answer: a) Friction

What happens to the acceleration when the force acting on an object is doubled?

a) It becomes half b) It becomes double c) It remains the same d) It becomes zero Answer: b) It becomes double

The net force acting on an object is zero when the object is in:

a) Motion at a constant speed b) Balanced forces c) Accelerating motion d) Rest Answer: b) Balanced forces

Which of the following is a unit of force in the SI system?

a) Kilogram b) Meter per second squared c) Newton d) Joule Answer: c) Newton

The force exerted by a moving object in the opposite direction of its motion is known as:

a) Applied force b) Frictional force c) Gravitational force d) Magnetic force Answer: b) Frictional force

Which of the following is an example of circular motion?

a) A car moving in a straight line b) A pendulum swinging back and forth c) A ball rolling down a slope d) A rocket moving through space Answer: b) A pendulum swinging back and forth

Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

a) Velocity b) Force c) Speed d) Acceleration Answer: c) Speed

When the velocity of an object changes, it is experiencing:

a) Uniform motion b) Non-uniform motion c) Acceleration d) Zero motion Answer: c) Acceleration

The tendency of an object to resist a change in its state of motion is known as:

a) Inertia b) Velocity c) Speed d) Acceleration Answer: a) Inertia

What is the force acting on a 10 kg object when it is accelerating at 5 m/s²?

a) 2 N b) 50 N c) 5 N d) 15 N Answer: b) 50 N

Which of the following is an example of motion along a curved path?

a) A car moving on a straight road b) A person walking in a straight line c) A satellite orbiting the Earth d) A ball rolling on a flat surface Answer: c) A satellite orbiting the Earth

Which of the following is true about velocity?

a) It only has magnitude b) It only has direction c) It has both magnitude and direction d) It has neither magnitude nor direction Answer: c) It has both magnitude and direction

What does the term "speed" describe?

a) The rate at which an object changes its position b) The direction in which an object is moving c) The distance covered by an object in a given time d) The displacement of an object from its initial position Answer: c) The distance covered by an object in a given time

Which of the following is a unit of distance?

a) Meter per second b) Newton c) Kilogram d) Meter Answer: d) Meter

What is the speed of an object that covers 100 meters in 20 seconds?

a) 2 m/s b) 5 m/s c) 10 m/s d) 20 m/s Answer: c) 10 m/s

If an object is at rest, its speed is:

a) Zero b) Infinite c) Variable d) Unknown Answer: a) Zero

What is the average speed of a car that travels 400 km in 5 hours?

a) 40 km/h b) 80 km/h c) 100 km/h d) 200 km/h Answer: c) 80 km/h

Which of the following is an example of non-uniform motion?

a) A car traveling at a constant speed b) A bicycle speeding up c) A train moving in a straight line d) A person walking at a steady pace Answer: b) A bicycle speeding up

What is the displacement of an object that moves 20 meters to the east and then 10 meters to the wes t?

a) 30 meters east b) 30 meters west c) 10 meters east d) 10 meters west Answer: c) 10 meters east

Which of the following represents a negative acceleration?

a) Slowing down b) Speeding up c) Moving at a constant speed d) Changing direction Answer: a) Slowing down

The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth is approximately:

a) 1 m/s b) 5 m/s c) 9.8 m/s d) 10 m/s Answer: c) 9.8 m/s

What is the net force acting on an object at rest?

a) Zero b) Mass c) Acceleration d) Velocity Answer: a) Zero

Which force is responsible for keeping an object on a table?

a) Frictional force b) Gravitational force c) Tension force d) Magnetic force Answer: b) Gravitational force

An object is thrown vertically upwards. At the highest point of its motion:

a) Its acceleration is maximum b) Its velocity is zero c) Its speed is maximum d) Its displacement is maximum Answer: b) Its velocity is zero

What happens to the acceleration of an object if the net force acting on it is doubled?

a) It becomes zero b) It remains the same c) It becomes half d) It becomes double Answer: d) It becomes double

Which of the following forces is responsible for circular motion?

a) Frictional force b) Gravitational force c) Centripetal force d) Magnetic force Answer: c) Centripetal force

When a body is in free fall, its acceleration is:

a) Positive b) Zero c) Negative d) Constant Answer: a) Positive

What is the weight of a 500 kg object?

a) 500 N b) 50 N c) 5000 N d) 5 N Answer: c) 5000 N

Which of the following is an example of a non-inertial frame of reference?

a) A moving car b) A stationary building c) A rotating Ferris wheel d) A flying airplane Answer: c) A rotating Ferris wheel

The force required to keep an object moving with a constant velocity is equal to:

a) Its weight b) Its mass c) Its acceleration d) Zero Answer: d) Zero

Which of the following statements is true about balanced forces?

a) They cause motion in one direction b) They cause motion in the opposite direction c) They do not cause any motion d) They result in constant speed Answer: c) They do not cause any motion

An object is thrown horizontally with a certain velocity. As it moves, its vertical component of velocity:

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) Varies randomly Answer: c) Remains constant

Which of the following quantities is a vector?

a) Temperature b) Energy c) Time d) Displacement Answer: d) Displacement

The rate at which an object's velocity changes is called its:

a) Speed b) Displacement c) Acceleration d) Distance Answer: c) Acceleration

What is the force required to accelerate a 2 kg object at a rate of 3 m/s²?

a) 2 N b) 5 N c) 6 N d) 8 N Answer: c) 6 N

According to Newton's second law of motion, the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to:

a) Its velocity b) Its mass c) The net force acting on it d) Its displacement Answer: c) The net force acting on it

Which of the following is true about the force of gravity?

a) It always acts vertically upwards b) It only affects objects in free fall c) It depends on the size of the object d) It acts between any two objects with mass Answer: d) It acts between any two objects with mass

What is the force experienced by an object with a mass of 10 kg and an acceleration of 2 m/s²?

a) 20 N b) 5 N c) 2 N d) 12 N Answer: a) 20 N

Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion

Which scientist formulated the three laws of motion?

a) Isaac Newton b) Albert Einstein c) Galileo Galilei d) Nikola Tesla Answer: a) Isaac Newton

What is the SI unit of force?

a) Kilogram b) Meter c) Newton d) Joule Answer: c) Newton

Which of the following is an example of a contact force?

a) Magnetic force b) Gravitational force c) Frictional force d) Electrostatic force Answer: c) Frictional force

According to Newton's first law of motion, an object at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by a:

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Resultant force d) Balanced force Answer: c) Resultant force

The tendency of an object to resist a change in its state of motion is known as:

a) Inertia b) Acceleration c) Momentum d) Resting force Answer: a) Inertia

Which law states that the rate of change of momentum of an object is directly proportional to the applie d force?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) Law of Conservation of Momentum Answer: b) Newton's Second Law

The product of mass and velocity is defined as:

a) Momentum b) Acceleration c) Inertia d) Force Answer: a) Momentum

Which force opposes the motion of an object moving through a fluid?

a) Gravitational force b) Magnetic force c) Frictional force d) Buoyant force Answer: c) Frictional force

When a rocket is launched in space, it moves due to the principle of:

a) Magnetic force b) Gravitational force c) Inertia d) Action-reaction force Answer: d) Action-reaction force

Newton's third law of motion states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite:

a) Reaction b) Force c) Inertia d) Motion Answer: a) Reaction

Which of the following is an example of a non-contact force?

a) Tension force in a string b) Normal force on an object c) Frictional force between two surfaces d) Magnetic force between two magnets Answer: d) Magnetic force between two magnets

The acceleration produced by a net force acting on an object is inversely proportional to its:

a) Mass b) Volume c) Velocity d) Density Answer: a) Mass

Which law explains why it is easier to push a light object compared to a heavy object with the same fo rce?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) None of the above Answer: a) Newton's First Law

When a car takes a turn, the passengers tend to move outward due to:

a) Inertia b) Friction c) Driving force d) Acceleration Answer: a) Inertia

Which force keeps planets in orbit around the Sun?

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Electromagnetic force d) Buoyant force Answer: a) Gravitational force

The total momentum of an isolated system remains constant if no external force acts on it. This state ment is based on:

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) Law of Conservation of Momentum Answer: d) Law of Conservation of Momentum

A force of 10 N is applied to an object of mass 5 kg. What will be the acceleration of the object?

a) 2 m/s² b) 5 m/s² c) 15 m/s² d) 50 m/s² Answer: a) 2 m/s²

Which force allows a bird to fly in the air?

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Buoyant force d) Magnetic force Answer: c) Buoyant force

The force exerted by a stretched or compressed elastic object is called:

a) Frictional force b) Tension force c) Electrostatic force d) Spring force Answer: d) Spring force

An object weighing 100 N experiences an equal and opposite force of 100 N. What is the net force act ing on the object?

a) 0 N b) 50 N c) 100 N d) 200 N Answer: a) 0 N

Which law explains why a gun recoils backward when a shot is fired?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) None of the above Answer: c) Newton's Third Law

The force required to keep an object moving at a constant velocity is:

a) Zero b) Balanced c) Unbalanced d) Frictional Answer: b) Balanced

Which of the following is an example of a balanced force?

a) Pushing a wall b) Kicking a ball c) Tug of war d) Moving a heavy object Answer: c) Tug of war

A person sitting on a chair is an example of which law of motion?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) None of the above Answer: a) Newton's First Law

Which force allows us to walk on the ground?

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Buoyant force d) Electrostatic force Answer: b) Frictional force

What force opposes motion when a book is sliding on a table?

a) Gravitational force b) Magnetic force c) Frictional force d) Buoyant force Answer: c) Frictional force

It is easier to pull an object than to push it. This is due to:

a) Frictional force b) Inertia c) Newton's First Law d) Newton's Third Law Answer: a) Frictional force

Which force helps in the propulsion of a rocket in space?

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Buoyant force d) Thrust force Answer: d) Thrust force

What happens to the motion of an object if the net force acting on it becomes zero?

a) It stops b) It moves with constant speed c) Its velocity increases d) Its acceleration becomes zero Answer: b) It moves with constant speed

Which of Newton's laws explains why we fly forward when a bus suddenly stops?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) None of the above Answer: a) Newton's First Law

A force of 12 N is applied to an object with a mass of 4 kg. What will be its acceleration?

a) 3 m/s² b) 4 m/s² c) 8 m/s² d) 48 m/s² Answer: c) 8 m/s²

Which force is responsible for the upward movement of hot air balloons?

a) Frictional force b) Electrostatic force c) Magnetic force d) Buoyant force Answer: d) Buoyant force

According to Newton's Third Law of Motion, action and reaction forces always act on:

a) The same object b) Different objects c) Resting objects d) Objects in circular motion Answer: b) Different objects

Which law of motion explains why we lean forward while moving in a bus that suddenly accelerates?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) None of the above Answer: a) Newton's First Law

A car moving at 20 m/s comes to rest in 10 seconds. Calculate the acceleration.

a) 0.2 m/s² b) 2 m/s² c) 20 m/s² d) 200 m/s² Answer: b) 2 m/s²

Which force keeps the Moon in its orbit around the Earth?

a) Gravitational force b) Frictional force c) Electrostatic force d) Magnetic force Answer: a) Gravitational force

The tendency of an object to resist a change in its rotational motion is known as:

a) Torque b) Momentum c) Inertia d) Acceleration Answer: c) Inertia

Which force opposes the motion of a moving vehicle on a road?

a) Gravitational force b) Magnetic force c) Buoyant force d) Frictional force Answer: d) Frictional force

What is the force required to accelerate a 1 kg object at a rate of 10 m/s²?

a) 1 N b) 10 N c) 100 N d) 1000 N Answer: c) 100 N

Which law explains the working principle of rockets and jet engines?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) Law of Conservation of Momentum Answer: c) Newton's Third Law

In which direction does a person tend to fall when a moving bus takes a sharp turn?

a) Towards the center of the turn b) Towards the outside of the turn c) Towards the front of the bus d) Towards the back of the bus Answer: b) Towards the outside of the turn

The force required to lift an object against gravity is called:

a) Frictional force b) Tension force c) Electrostatic force d) Weight Answer: d) Weight

The force of attraction between any two objects with mass is known as:

a) Frictional force b) Gravitational force c) Magnetic force d) Buoyant force Answer: b) Gravitational force

According to Newton's Second Law, the acceleration produced by a net force is directly proportional t o:

a) Mass b) Velocity c) Momentum d) Density Answer: b) Velocity

An object of mass 2 kg experiences an acceleration of 3 m/s². What is the net force acting on the obje ct?

a) 2 N b) 3 N c) 5 N d) 6 N Answer: c) 5 N

Which force helps in the walking action of humans and animals?

a) Frictional force b) Magnetic force c) Buoyant force d) Electrostatic force Answer: a) Frictional force

The force required to overcome the inertia of an object at rest is called:

a) Frictional force b) Tension force c) Electrostatic force d) Applied force Answer: d) Applied force

Which law explains why a person feels a jerk when a moving vehicle suddenly stops?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) None of the above Answer: b) Newton's Second Law

The force acting on an object immersed in a fluid depends on its:

a) Mass b) Shape c) Volume d) Weight Answer: d) Weight

When a person jumps off a boat onto the bank, the boat tends to move backward due to:

a) Frictional force b) Inertia c) Newton's First Law d) Newton's Third Law Answer: d) Newton's Third Law

Chapter 10 Gravitation

What is the force of attraction between any two objects called?

a) Friction b) Gravity c) Inertia d) Tension Answer: b) Gravity

Who discovered the Law of Universal Gravitation?

a) Albert Einstein b) Isaac Newton c) Galileo Galilei d) Archimedes Answer: b) Isaac Newton

The force of gravity is stronger when the distance between two objects:

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) Becomes zero Answer: b) Decreases

What is the SI unit of gravitational force?

a) Watt b) Newton c) Joule d) Pascal Answer: b) Newton

Which planet in our solar system has the strongest gravitational force?

a) Earth b) Jupiter c) Saturn d) Mars Answer: b) Jupiter

An object will weigh the minimum at:

a) Sea level b) Mountain peak c) Equator d) Pole Answer: b) Mountain peak

The weight of an object can be expressed as the product of its mass and:

a) Volume b) Acceleration c) Velocity d) Inertia Answer: b) Acceleration

What happens to the weight of an object when it is taken to the moon?

a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains the same d) Depends on the size of the object Answer: a) Decreases

The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth is approximately:

a) 10 m/s b) 5 m/s c) 9.8 m/s d) 2 m/s Answer: c) 9.8 m/s

Which force opposes the motion of objects through fluids like air or water?

a) Frictional force b) Gravitational force c) Magnetic force d) Balanced force Answer: a) Frictional force

Which factor does not affect the gravitational force between two objects?

a) Mass of the objects b) Distance between the objects c) Shape of the objects d) Gravitational constant Answer: c) Shape of the objects

Which is not an example of a force of gravity?

a) A book falling off a table b) A car accelerating on a road c) An apple falling from a tree d) A person jumping off a diving board Answer: b) A car accelerating on a road

Which of the following statements is true?

a) Weight and mass are the same quantities b) Weight is a measure of the amount of matter in an object c) Mass is a measure of the force of gravity acting on an object d) Mass and weight are different quantities Answer: d) Mass and weight are different quantities

What is the gravitational force experienced by an object on the surface of the Earth called?

a) Weight b) Mass c) Inertia d) Volume Answer: a) Weight

Why do astronauts float in space?

a) Due to the absence of gravity b) Due to lower air pressure c) Due to the moon's gravitational force d) Due to the Earth's rotation Answer: a) Due to the absence of gravity

What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on the moon?

a) Zero b) 4.9 m/s c) 2.5 m/s d) 1.6 m/s Answer: d) 1.6 m/s

Which law states that the force of attraction between two objects is directly proportional to their masse s and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?

a) Law of Friction b) Law of Inertia c) Law of Universal Gravitation d) Law of Motion Answer: c) Law of Universal Gravitation

The gravitational force between two objects will increase if:

a) The mass of one object increases b) The distance between the objects increases c) The mass of both objects decreases d) The distance between the objects decreases Answer: a) The mass of one object increases

What keeps the planets in orbit around the sun?

a) Frictional force b) Centripetal force c) Gravitational force d) Magnetic force Answer: c) Gravitational force

Which force is responsible for an object falling towards the Earth when released from a height?

a) Magnetic force b) Tension force c) Gravitational force d) Electrostatic force Answer: c) Gravitational force

A person weighing 500 N on the Earth would weigh approximately how much on the moon?

a) 100 N b) 500 N c) 200 N d) 50 N Answer: a) 100 N

Which law states that every particle of matter in the universe attracts every other particle with a force directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) Law of Universal Gravitation Answer: d) Law of Universal Gravitation

The mass of an object is a measure of its:

a) Weight b) Volume c) Density d) Amount of matter Answer: d) Amount of matter

Which force holds us down on the surface of the Earth?

a) Frictional force b) Magnetic force c) Gravitational force d) Tension force Answer: c) Gravitational force

Which is the gravitational force acting on an object at rest on a table?

a) Zero b) Equal to the weight of the object c) Equal to the mass of the object d) Depends on the material of the table Answer: a) Zero

If the distance between two objects is doubled, the gravitational force between them will:

a) Double b) Halve c) Quadruple d) Remain the same Answer: b) Halve

Which force is responsible for the tides in the oceans?

a) Magnetic force b) Centripetal force c) Tension force d) Gravitational force Answer: d) Gravitational force

What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth?

a) 10 m/s b) 5 m/s c) 9.8 m/s d) 2 m/s Answer: c) 9.8 m/s

Which factor affects the gravitational force between two objects the most?

a) Mass of the objects b) Distance between the objects c) Shape of the objects d) Gravitational constant Answer: a) Mass of the objects

If two objects have the same mass, the gravitational force between them will be stronger if:

a) The distance between them is greater b) The distance between them is smaller c) The shape of the objects is irregular d) The velocity of the objects is higher Answer: b) The distance between them is smaller

Which force is responsible for keeping the planets in their respective orbits?

a) Inertia b) Centripetal force c) Frictional force d) Tension force Answer: b) Centripetal force

The weight of an object may vary on different planets because:

a) The mass of the object changes b) The gravitational force changes c) The Earth's rotation affects weight d) The moon's gravitational force affects weight Answer: b) The gravitational force changes

Which force opposes the motion of an object falling through the atmosphere?

a) Centripetal force b) Frictional force c) Gravitational force d) Magnetic force Answer: b) Frictional force

Objects near the surface of the Earth fall with an approximate acceleration of:

a) 1 m/s² b) 5 m/s² c) 9.8 m/s² d) 15 m/s² Answer: c) 9.8 m/s²

Which factor does not affect the force of gravity between two objects?

a) Mass of the objects b) Distance between the objects c) Shape of the objects d) Gravitational constant Answer: c) Shape of the objects

Which law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction?

a) Law of Inertia b) Law of Universal Gravitation c) Newton's First Law d) Newton's Third Law Answer: d) Newton's Third Law

What is the weight of an object with a mass of 5 kg on the surface of the Earth?

a) 5 N b) 50 N c) 10 N d) 20 N Answer: b) 50 N

Which planet has the least gravitational force in our solar system?

a) Mercury b) Venus c) Mars d) Neptune Answer: a) Mercury

What happens to the gravitational force between two objects if the distance between them is tripled?

a) It triples b) It becomes one-third c) It becomes nine times smaller d) It remains the same Answer: b) It becomes one-third

What is the force acting on an object in free fall due to gravity called?

a) Tension force b) Magnetism force c) Gravitational force d) Net force Answer: c) Gravitational force

Which scientist proposed the laws of motion?

a) Albert Einstein b) Isaac Newton c) Galileo Galilei d) Nikola Tesla Answer: b) Isaac Newton

Which law states that an object at rest will remain at rest, and an object in motion will continue in moti on with a constant velocity unless acted upon by an external force?

a) Newton's First Law b) Newton's Second Law c) Newton's Third Law d) Law of Universal Gravitation Answer: a) Newton's First Law

What do we call the path of an object in space around another object due to gravity?

a) Orbit b) Trajectory c) Rotation d) Revolution Answer: a) Orbit

If there were no gravity, what path would a thrown object follow?

a) Straight line b) Parabolic path c) Circular path d) Elliptical path Answer: a) Straight line

A satellite in a circular orbit around the Earth experiences:

a) Balanced forces b) Frictional forces c) Resultant forces d) No forces Answer: a) Balanced forces

What is the net force acting on an object in free fall?

a) Zero b) Equal to its weight c) Always changing d) Depends on the mass of the object Answer: b) Equal to its weight

The acceleration due to gravity is useful in calculating the weight of an object because weight is equal to:

a) Mass × Volume b) Force × Velocity c) Mass × Acceleration d) Force × Distance Answer: c) Mass × Acceleration

Which type of motion is observed in a satellite orbiting the Earth?

a) Linear motion b) Rotational motion c) Curvilinear motion d) Oscillatory motion Answer: c) Curvilinear motion

The gravitational pull of the Earth on an object is also called:

a) Frictional force b) Magnetic force c) Electrostatic force d) Gravitational force Answer: d) Gravitational force

What is the weight of a person with a mass of 70 kg on the surface of the Earth?

a) 70 N b) 7 N c) 700 N d) 7000 N Answer: c) 700 N

Chapter 11 Work and Energy

Which of the following is the SI unit of work?

a) Joule b) Newton c) Watt d) Ohm Answer: a) Joule

Work is defined as the product of which two quantities?

a) Force and velocity b) Distance and time c) Mass and acceleration d) Force and distance Answer: d) Force and distance

The ability to do work is known as:

a) Distance b) Velocity c) Power d) Energy Answer: d) Energy

Which of the following is an example of potential energy?

a) A moving car b) A stretched rubber band c) A falling raindrop d) A flying kite Answer: b) A stretched rubber band

Kinetic energy depends on an object's:

a) Mass and height b) Mass and velocity c) Weight and distance d) Weight and volume Answer: b) Mass and velocity

The transfer of energy due to the motion of an object is known as:

a) Potential energy b) Mechanical energy c) Thermal energy d) Kinetic energy Answer: d) Kinetic energy

Which of the following is a type of energy associated with the position or shape of an object?

a) Solar energy b) Tidal energy c) Potential energy d) Electrical energy Answer: c) Potential energy

Which of the following is an example of non-mechanical energy?

a) Wind energy b) Sound energy c) Kinetic energy d) Gravitational potential energy Answer: b) Sound energy

The conservation of energy principle states that:

a) Energy can be created or destroyed. b) The total energy in a system always decreases. c) Energy can be transferred from one form to another, but cannot be created or destroyed. d) Energy can be converted only into thermal energy. Answer: c) Energy can be transferred from one form to another, but cannot be created or destroyed.

The rate at which work is done or energy is transferred is known as:

a) Momentum b) Force c) Power d) Work Answer: c) Power

Which of the following is the formula for calculating work?

a) Work = Force x Distance b) Work = Mass x Distance c) Work = Power x Distance d) Work = Energy x Distance Answer: a) Work = Force x Distance

Which of the following statements is true regarding the work done by a force on an object?

a) Work done is always negative. b) Work done is always positive. c) Work done can be both positive and negative. d) Work done is always zero. Answer: c) Work done can be both positive and negative.

A machine is said to be 100% efficient if:

a) It does no work b) It conserves energy c) It produces no heat d) It does work without any energy input Answer: b) It conserves energy

The energy possessed by an object due to its position above the ground is called:

a) Elastic potential energy b) Gravitational potential energy c) Nuclear energy d) Magnetic energy Answer: b) Gravitational potential energy

Which of the following is an example of an energy transformation?

a) Sound energy to heat energy b) Kinetic energy to potential energy c) Electrical energy to mechanical energy d) All of the above Answer: d) All of the above

A ball rolling down a hill possesses mostly:

a) Potential energy b) Kinetic energy c) Elastic energy d) Chemical energy Answer: b) Kinetic energy

The energy obtained from the food we eat is a form of:

a) Thermal energy b) Nuclear energy c) Chemical energy d) Electrical energy Answer: c) Chemical energy

An object at rest has:

a) No energy b) Potential energy c) Kinetic energy d) Both a) and b) Answer: b) Potential energy

The law of conservation of energy states that:

a) Energy can be created but not destroyed b) Energy can be destroyed but not created c) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another d) There is a limited amount of energy in the universe Answer: c) Energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transformed from one form to another

When work is done by a force acting on an object, the energy of the object:

a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains the same d) Cannot be determined Answer: a) Increases

Which type of energy is associated with the flow of electric charge?

a) Electrical energy b) Thermal energy c) Radiant energy d) Sound energy Answer: a) Electrical energy

The amount of work done on an object is equal to the:

a) Force exerted on the object multiplied by the distance moved b) Distance moved divided by the force exerted on the object c) Force exerted on the object divided by the distance moved d) Force exerted on the object plus the distance moved Answer: a) Force exerted on the object multiplied by the distance moved

Which of the following statements is true about energy transfer?

a) Energy can only be transferred from a hot object to a cold object. b) Energy transfer is always 100% efficient. c) Energy transfer can occur in multiple ways. d) Energy can only be transferred through thermal conduction. Answer: c) Energy transfer can occur in multiple ways.

The ability to do work or cause change is known as:

a) Energy b) Power c) Force d) Motion Answer: a) Energy

The energy possessed by a stretched or compressed spring is called:

a) Elastic potential energy b) Gravitational potential energy c) Chemical potential energy d) Kinetic energy Answer: a) Elastic potential energy

Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable energy source?

a) Solar energy b) Wind energy c) Coal d) Geothermal energy Answer: c) Coal

Which of the following statements is true about work and energy?

a) Work and energy have the same units. b) Work and energy are unrelated concepts. c) Work and energy are scalar quantities. d) Work is a form of energy. Answer: a) Work and energy have the same units.

Which of the following is an example of mechanical energy?

a) Sound energy b) Heat energy c) Nuclear energy d) Kinetic energy Answer: d) Kinetic energy

The total energy in a closed system remains constant. This is known as:

a) The law of conservation of energy b) The law of inertia c) The law of gravity d) The law of motion Answer: a) The law of conservation of energy

In the absence of friction, a moving object will:

a) Eventually stop due to air resistance b) Continue moving at the same speed indefinitely c) Continually accelerate d) Lose all of its energy Answer: b) Continue moving at the same speed indefinitely

Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy source?

a) Fossil fuels b) Natural gas c) Solar power d) Nuclear power Answer: c) Solar power

Which of the following is an example of sound energy?

a) A bouncing ball b) A burning candle c) Wind blowing through trees d) Lightning in the sky Answer: c) Wind blowing through trees

Which of the following is NOT a form of energy?

a) Sound energy b) Magnetic energy c) Potential energy d) Dimensional energy Answer: d) Dimensional energy

If an object's kinetic energy doubles, which of the following also doubles?

a) Its mass b) Its velocity c) Its potential energy d) Its power Answer: b) Its velocity

Which type of energy is associated with the movement of particles in a substance?

a) Convection energy b) Mechanical energy c) Thermal energy d) Electromagnetic energy Answer: c) Thermal energy

Which of the following statements is true about work and energy?

a) Work is a form of energy. b) Energy is a form of work. c) Work and energy are always equal. d) Work and energy are unrelated concepts. Answer: a) Work is a form of energy.

Which of the following is an example of potential energy turning into kinetic energy?

a) A ball rolling towards a hill b) A car slowing down c) A book resting on a table d) A bird flying in the sky Answer: a) A ball rolling towards a hill

Which of the following is an example of a renewable energy source?

a) Natural gas b) Coal c) Solar power d) Oil Answer: c) Solar power

Which of the following statements is true about energy conversions?

a) Energy conversions are always 100% efficient. b) Energy conversions always result in the production of heat. c) Energy conversions can never be reversed. d) Energy conversions may result in the loss of some usable energy. Answer: d) Energy conversions may result in the loss of some usable energy.

Which type of energy is associated with the flow of heat?

a) Radiant energy b) Thermal energy c) Electrical energy d) Potential energy Answer: b) Thermal energy

Which of the following is an example of mechanical energy?

a) Friction b) Sound c) Heat d) Wind Answer: d) Wind

The ability to do work is a measure of an object's:

a) Power b) Potential energy c) Mechanical energy d) Kinetic energy Answer: d) Kinetic energy

Which of the following statements is true about kinetic energy?

a) Kinetic energy is always positive. b) Kinetic energy is always negative. c) Kinetic energy can be positive or negative. d) Kinetic energy can never be zero. Answer: a) Kinetic energy is always positive.

Energy stored in the nucleus of an atom is called:

a) Nuclear energy b) Chemical energy c) Thermal energy d) Kinetic energy Answer: a) Nuclear energy

Which of the following statements is true about potential energy?

a) Potential energy is always positive. b) Potential energy is always negative. c) Potential energy can be positive or negative. d) Potential energy can never be zero. Answer: c) Potential energy can be positive or negative.

Which type of energy does a battery store?

a) Electrical energy b) Chemical energy c) Thermal energy d) Sound energy Answer: b) Chemical energy

The amount of work done can be calculated using the equation:

a) Work = Force / Distance b) Work = Distance / Time c) Work = Force x Time d) Work = Force x Distance Answer: d) Work = Force x Distance

Which of the following is an example of mechanical energy?

a) Light energy b) Sound energy c) Nuclear energy d) Potential energy Answer: d) Potential energy

Energy from the sun is known as:

a) Solar energy b) Wind energy c) Hydroelectric energy d) Geothermal energy Answer: a) Solar energy

The work done when an object is not moving is:

a) Always zero b) Always positive c) Always negative d) Both a) and b) Answer: a) Always zero

Chapter 12 Sound

Something went thing

Chapter 13 Why Do We Fall Ill

Which of the following is NOT a cause of disease?

a) Unhealthy diet b) Exercise c) Lack of sanitation d) Infection Answer: b) Exercise

Bacteria are: a) Multicellular organisms b) Fungi c) Single-celled organisms d) Plants Answer: c) Single-celled organisms

Common cold is caused by:

a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Fungi d) Parasites Answer: b) Virus

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a viral infection?

a) Coughing b) Sneezing c) Fever d) Diarrhea Answer: d) Diarrhea

Antibiotics are effective against:

a) Viral infections b) Bacterial infections c) Fungal infections d) Parasitic infections Answer: b) Bacterial infections

Immunity developed after recovering from a disease is called:

a) Active immunity b) Passive immunity c) Natural immunity d) Artificial immunity Answer: a) Active immunity

Vaccination involves the introduction of:

a) Antibiotics b) Antibodies c) Antigens d) Antivirals Answer: c) Antigens

Which disease is NOT caused by a mosquito bite?

a) Malaria b) Dengue fever c) Typhoid d) Chikungunya Answer: c) Typhoid

The first line of defense in our body against any pathogen is:

a) Blood cells b) White blood cells c) Skin and mucous membranes d) Antibodies Answer: c) Skin and mucous membranes

The transmission of a disease from an infected person to a healthy person is known as:

a) Contamination b) Infection c) Ingestion d) Incubation Answer: b) Infection

Which is NOT a method to prevent the spread of diseases?

a) Washing hands regularly b) maintaining personal hygiene c) Proper disposal of waste d) Physical contact with infected people Answer: d) Physical contact with infected people

Which is a water-borne disease?

a) Malaria b) Tuberculosis c) Cholera d) Measles Answer: c) Cholera

Which microorganism causes tuberculosis?

a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Fungus d) Parasite Answer: a) Bacteria

What is the vector for dengue fever?

a) Mosquito b) Housefly c) Tick d) Flea Answer: a) Mosquito

The chemical substances produced by our body to fight against pathogens are called:

a) Antibiotics b) Antibodies c) Antigens d) Antivirals Answer: b) Antibodies

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by contaminated food or water?

a) Hepatitis A b) Diarrhea c) Malaria d) Amoebiasis Answer: c) Malaria

The causative organism of malaria is a:

a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Fungus d) Parasite Answer: d) Parasite

What is the full form of AIDS? a) Acute Immune Disease Syndrome b) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome c) Acute Infectious Disease Syndrome d) Acquired Infectious Deficiency Syndrome Answer: b) Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome

Which part of our body first gets attacked by germs?

a) Kidneys b) Lungs c) Liver d) Nose Answer: d) Nose

Diseases that spread from animals to humans are known as:

a) Zoonotic diseases b) Communicable diseases c) Contagious diseases d) Lifestyle diseases Answer: a) Zoonotic diseases

Which disease is also known as "Silent Killer"?

a) Tuberculosis b) Hypertension c) Diabetes d) Cancer Answer: b) Hypertension

Which disease is caused by a deficiency of iron in the body?

a) Rickets b) Scurvy c) Anemia d) Beriberi Answer: c) Anemia

Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin C?

a) Rickets b) Scurvy c) Anemia d) Beriberi Answer: b) Scurvy

What does the term 'epidemic' mean?

a) A widespread occurrence of a disease within a community or population b) The study of the spread of diseases c) A localized outbreak of a disease d) A serious and contagious disease Answer: a) A widespread occurrence of a disease within a community or population

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus?

a) Influenza b) Chickenpox c) Tetanus d) Measles Answer: c) Tetanus

What is the main function of antibodies?

a) Kill bacteria b) Neutralize viruses c) Destroy fungi d) Fight parasites Answer: b) Neutralize viruses

Diseases caused by pathogens that enter our body through the air we breathe are known as:

a) Airborne diseases b) Waterborne diseases c) Vector-borne diseases d) Foodborne diseases Answer: a) Airborne diseases

What is the full form of WHO?

a) World Health Organization b) World Humanitarian Organization c) World Healthy Organization d) Worldwide Health Organization Answer: a) World Health Organization

Which disease has been eradicated through vaccination?

a) Smallpox b) Polio c) Tuberculosis d) Malaria Answer: a) Smallpox

What are disease-causing agents called?

a) Pathogens b) Antibiotics c) Immune cells d) Antigens Answer: a) Pathogens

Which of the following is NOT a viral disease?

a) Measles b) Tuberculosis c) Influenza d) Rabies Answer: b) Tuberculosis

What is the main mode of transmission for HIV?

a) Mosquito bite b) Contaminated food c) Physical contact d) Unsafe sex Answer: d) Unsafe sex

Which of the following is NOT a common symptom of dengue fever?

a) High fever b) Severe headache c) Joint pain d) Dry cough Answer: d) Dry cough

Which disease is characterized by uncontrolled multiplication of abnormal cells?

a) Malaria b) Diabetes c) Cancer d) Influenza Answer: c) Cancer

What is the most effective way to prevent malaria?

a) Clean hygiene b) Using antibiotics c) Vaccination d) Using mosquito nets Answer: d) Using mosquito nets

Which microorganism causes common cold?

a) Bacteria b) Virus c) Fungi d) Protozoa Answer: b) Virus

Which of the following diseases spreads through contaminated water?

a) Tuberculosis b) Typhoid c) Influenza d) Chickenpox Answer: b) Typhoid

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a deficiency of nutrients?

a) Night blindness b) Rickets c) Goiter d) Typhoid Answer: d) Typhoid

What is the term used to describe the occurrence of two or more diseases simultaneously in the body ?

a) Epidemic b) Pandemic c) Coinfection d) Outbreak Answer: c) Coinfection

Which disease is caused by the bite of a female Anopheles mosquito?

a) Malaria b) Dengue fever c) Chikungunya d) Zika virus Answer: a) Malaria

What is the primary function of white blood cells?

a) Carrying oxygen b) Fighting infection c) Transportation of nutrients d) Pumping blood Answer: b) Fighting infection

What is the term used to describe the practice of covering one's mouth and nose while coughing or sn eezing?

a) Social distancing b) Quarantine c) Vaccination d) Respiratory hygiene Answer: d) Respiratory hygiene

Which disease is caused by the bite of a female Aedes mosquito?

a) Malaria b) Tuberculosis c) Dengue fever d) Pneumonia Answer: c) Dengue fever

What is the term used to describe the complete absence of disease-causing organisms?

a) Quarantine b) Isolation c) Hygiene d) Sterility Answer: d) Sterility

Which disease is also known as the "Black Death" and caused millions of deaths in ancient times?

a) Malaria b) Influenza c) Smallpox d) Plague Answer: d) Plague

Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D?

a) Rickets b) Osteoporosis c) Scurvy d) Osteomalacia Answer: c) Scurvy

What is the term used to describe a disease that can be transmitted from one person to another?

a) Genetic disorder b) Congenital disease c) Lifestyle disease d) Communicable disease Answer: d) Communicable disease

Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of iodine in the diet?

a) Rickets b) Scurvy c) Goiter d) Kwashiorkor Answer: c) Goiter

What is the main symptom of cholera?

a) High fever b) Severe headache c) Diarrhea d) Chest pain Answer: c) Diarrhea

Which of the following is NOT a method to control the spread of malaria?

a) Using bed nets b) Spraying pesticides c) Maintaining proper sanitation d) Vaccination

Chapter 14 Natural Resources

hich of the following is a natural resource?

a) Mobile phone b) Coal c) Plastic bag d) Laptop Answer: b) Coal

atural resources are obtained from:

a) Factories b) Animals c) Nature d) Schools Answer: c) Nature

hich of the following is a non-renewable resource?

a) Sunlight b) Wind energy c) Natural gas d) Tidal energy Answer: c) Natural gas

resource that can be replenished over time is called:

a) Non-renewable resource b) Renewable resource c) Fossil fuel d) Inexhaustible resource Answer: b) Renewable resource

he process of extracting metals from their ores is called:

a) Mining b) Refining c) Extraction d) Drilling Answer: a) Mining

hich of the following is not a fossil fuel?

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Petroleum d) Hydrogen Answer: d) Hydrogen

hich natural resource is essential for the production of electricity in thermal power plants?

a) Wind energy b) Solar energy c) Coal d) Natural gas Answer: c) Coal

hich process involves the conversion of seawater into freshwater?

a) Condensation b) Desalination c) Filtration d) Evaporation Answer: b) Desalination

hich natural resource is known as "black gold"?

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Petroleum d) Uranium Answer: c) Petroleum

Which of the following is an example of a biodegradable waste?

a) Plastic bag b) Glass bottle c) Paper d) Aluminum can Answer: c) Paper

Which resource is formed from the remains of dead plants and animals?

a) Soil b) Air c) Water d) Metal Answer: a) Soil

Which of the following is an example of a metallic mineral?

a) Salt b) Gold c) Clay d) Sand Answer: b) Gold

Which natural resource is necessary for the survival of all living organisms?

a) Air b) Fossil fuel c) Plastic d) Cement Answer: a) Air

Which resource is obtained from forests?

a) Petroleum b) Natural gas c) Timber d) Coal Answer: c) Timber

Which natural resource is used for irrigation in agriculture?

a) Coal b) Natural gas c) Fertilizers d) Water Answer: d) Water

What is the main cause of water scarcity in many regions?

a) Excessive rainfall b) Pollution c) Lack of population d) Excessive farming Answer: b) Pollution

Which of the following is an example of a non-metallic mineral?

a) Iron b) Copper c) Diamond d) Aluminum Answer: c) Diamond

Which process involves the separation of lighter and heavier components of a mixture?

a) Evaporation b) Distillation c) Filtration d) Combustion Answer: b) Distillation

Renewable resources can be used indefinitely without getting exhausted.

a) True b) False Answer: a) True

Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

a) Natural gas b) Nuclear power c) Biomass d) Coal Answer: c) Biomass

Which type of soil is best for farming?

a) Sandy soil b) Clayey soil c) Humus-rich soil d) Rocky soil Answer: c) Humus-rich soil

Which natural resource is responsible for the greenhouse effect?

a) Air pollution b) Water pollution c) Soil erosion d) Carbon dioxide Answer: d) Carbon dioxide

Which process converts solid waste into organic manure?

a) Composting b) Recycling c) Incineration d) Landfilling Answer: a) Composting

Which type of pollution is caused by the excessive use of fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture?

a) Air pollution b) Water pollution c) Noise pollution d) Heat pollution Answer: b) Water pollution

Which natural resource is used as a fuel in vehicles?

a) Electricity b) Biofuel c) Natural gas d) Uranium Answer: c) Natural gas

Which type of rock is formed from the cooling of molten lava?

a) Igneous rock b) Sedimentary rock c) Metamorphic rock d) Fossil rock Answer: a) Igneous rock 27. Which natural resource is used for the generation of hydroelectricity? a) Wind energy b) Solar energy c) Water d) Nuclear power Answer: c) Water

Depletion of ozone layer leads to:

a) Global warming b) Acid rain c) Depletion of natural resources d) Increased ultraviolet radiation Answer: d) Increased ultraviolet radiation

Which natural resource is used for the production of plastics?

a) Rubber b) Aluminium c) Petroleum d) Iron Answer: c) Petroleum

Which resource is responsible for the formation of clouds and rainfall?

a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Minerals Answer: c) Water

Which type of soil retains water for a longer time?

a) Sandy soil b) Clayey soil c) Loamy soil d) Peaty soil Answer: b) Clayey soil

Which natural resource is used for the generation of geothermal energy?

a) Water b) Air c) Wind d) Heat from the Earth's interior Answer: d) Heat from the Earth's interior

Which of the following is an example of a secondary source of energy?

a) Solar energy b) Fossil fuel c) Tidal energy d) Geothermal energy Answer: b) Fossil fuel

What is the main cause of deforestation?

a) Pollution b) Urbanization c) Industrialization d) Clearing of land for agriculture Answer: d) Clearing of land for agriculture

Which natural resource is used for the production of cement?

a) Natural gas b) Coal c) Water d) Limestone Answer: d) Limestone

Acid rain is primarily caused by the emission of:

a) Carbon dioxide b) Methane c) Sulfur dioxide d) Nitrogen oxide Answer: c) Sulfur dioxide

Which natural resource is used for the production of biogas?

a) Water b) Natural gas c) Biomass d) Coal Answer: c) Biomass

The process of recycling helps in:

a) Conserving natural resources b) Depleting natural resources c) Increasing pollution d) Reducing waste generation Answer: a) Conserving natural resources

Which type of pollution occurs due to excessive noise?

a) Air pollution b) Water pollution c) Noise pollution d) Light pollution Answer: c) Noise pollution

Which natural resource is used for the production of paper?

a) Sand b) Wood c) Natural gas d) Plastic Answer: b) Wood

Which natural resource is used for the production of glass?

a) Water b) Coal c) Sand d) Petroleum Answer: c) Sand

Which of the following is an example of a non-renewable resource?

a) Wind energy b) Solar energy c) Natural gas d) Biomass Answer: c) Natural gas

Which process leads to the formation of crude oil?

a) Weathering b) Erosion c) Volcanic activity d) Decomposition of dead organisms Answer: d) Decomposition of dead organisms

Which natural resource is responsible for the formation of waves in the ocean?

a) Wind energy b) Solar energy c) Tidal energy d) Geothermal energy Answer: a) Wind energy 45. Which type of soil is best for water drainage? a) Sandy soil b) Clayey soil c) Loamy soil d) Peaty soil Answer: a) Sandy soil

Which natural resource is responsible for the occurrence of earthquakes?

a) Air b) Soil c) Water d) Tectonic plates Answer: d) Tectonic plates

Recycling of paper helps in saving:

a) Water b) Oil c) Soil d) Air Answer: a) Water

Which natural resource is used for the production of fertilizers?

a) Natural gas b) Coal c) Potassium d) Petroleum Answer: c) Potassium

Which of the following statements is true about natural resources?

a) They are infinite in quantity b) They diminish with their use c) They are artificially created d) They are not essential for human survival Answer: b) They diminish with their use

Which natural resource is used as a coolant in nuclear power plants?

a) Water b) Air c) Natural gas d) Uranium Answer: a) Water

Chapter 15 Improvement in Food Resources

hat is the process of growing crops and rearing animals called?

a) Agriculture b) Aquaculture c) Sericulture d) Horticulture Answer: a) Agriculture

hich of the following is a staple food crop in India?

a) Rice b) Wheat c) Maize d) Barley Answer: a) Rice

hich nutrient is primarily required for the growth and development of our body?

a) Proteins b) Carbohydrates c) Vitamins d) Fats Answer: a) Proteins

hich of the following is an example of a rabi crop?

a) Wheat b) Rice c) Cotton d) Sugarcane Answer: a) Wheat

hat is the term for the rearing of silkworms for obtaining silk?

a) Sericulture b) Pisciculture c) Apiculture d) Aviculture Answer: a) Sericulture

hat is the process of the rearing, breeding, and management of honeybees called?

a) Apiculture b) Agriculture c) Silviculture d) Horticulture Answer: a) Apiculture

hich type of farming is practiced in regions with low rainfall and scarcity of water?

a) Dryland farming b) Organic farming c) Terrace farming d) Mixed farming Answer: a) Dryland farming

hat is the term for raising fish commercially in specially designed tanks or ponds?

a) Aquaculture b) Sericulture c) Pisciculture d) Aviculture Answer: c) Pisciculture

hich of the following is an example of mixed cropping?

a) Growing only wheat in a field b) Growing different crops in a definite pattern c) Growing two crops together in the same field d) Growing multiple crops for commercial purposes Answer: c) Growing two crops together in the same field

What is the process of spraying chemicals on crops to protect them from pests and diseases called?

a) Pesticide b) Fertilization c) Irrigation d) Harvesting Answer: a) Pesticide

Which of the following is an example of a kharif crop?

a) Barley b) Mustard c) Tomato d) Pea Answer: c) Tomato

What is the term for the method of growing crops on slopes with the help of terraces?

a) Terrace farming b) Organic farming c) Dryland farming d) Mixed farming Answer: a) Terrace farming

Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing microorganism found in root nodules of leguminous plants?

a) Rhizobium b) Azotobacter c) Blue-green algae d) Nitrosomonas Answer: a) Rhizobium

What is the process of increasing the yield of crops without using synthetic substances called?

a) Organic farming b) Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) c) Pisciculture d) Mixed farming Answer: a) Organic farming

What is the largest cereal crop produced in India?

a) Wheat b) Rice c) Maize d) Barley Answer: b) Rice

Which is the most essential substance required for the germination of seeds?

a) Water b) Air c) Sunlight d) Fertilizer Answer: a) Water 17. Which of the following is a micronutrient required for the growth of plants? a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus c) Iron d) Potassium Answer: c) Iron

What is the process of removing chaff from the grains called?

a) Threshing b) Winnowing c) Sowing d) Harvesting Answer: b) Winnowing

Which of the following is the natural source of fertilizer?

a) Urea b) Compost c) Diammonium phosphate (DAP) d) Potash Answer: b) Compost

What is the term for the time taken by a crop to mature and be ready for harvesting?

a) Germination period b) Sowing period c) Growth period d) Crop duration Answer: d) Crop duration

Which of the following is a method to control weeds in agriculture?

a) Mulching b) Fertilization c) Irrigation d) Threshing Answer: a) Mulching

Which is the process of soaking seeds in water before sowing them?

a) Germination b) Seed treatment c) Harvesting d) Sowing Answer: b) Seed treatment

What is the process of separating grains from the harvested crop called?

a) Harvesting b) Threshing c) Winnowing d) Mulching Answer: b) Threshing

Which of the following is a macronutrient required for the growth of plants?

a) Iron b) Manganese c) Zinc d) Nitrogen Answer: d) Nitrogen

What is the term for the process of watering crops artificially?

a) Irrigation b) Threshing c) Sowing d) Mulching Answer: a) Irrigation

Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of Vitamin C?

a) Scurvy b) Beriberi c) Rickets d) Pellagra Answer: a) Scurvy

What is the method of growing plants in nutrient-rich water without soil called?

a) Hydroponics b) Aquaponics c) Organic farming d) Greenhouse farming Answer: a) Hydroponics

Which of the following is another name for nitrogen-fixing bacteria?

a) Nematodes b) Rhizomes c) Nodules d) Legumes Answer: c) Nodules

What is the process of growing plants in a controlled environment called?

a) Greenhouse farming b) Organic farming c) Terrace farming d) Aquaponics Answer: a) Greenhouse farming

Which of the following is a parasitic plant that lacks chlorophyll?

a) Spinach b) Mushroom c) Cuscuta d) Papaya Answer: c) Cuscuta

What is the term for the process of transferring pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower?

a) Fertilization b) Pollination c) Germination d) Reproduction Answer: b) Pollination

Which of the following practices results in the conservation of soil and water?

a) Mulching b) Pesticide usage c) Monoculture farming d) Overgrazing Answer: a) Mulching

Which of the following is a disease caused by a deficiency of Vitamin D?

a) Rickets b) Beriberi c) Scurvy d) Night blindness Answer: a) Rickets

What is the process of cutting and gathering mature crops called?

a) Harvesting b) Mulching c) Threshing d) Sowing Answer: a) Harvesting

Which of the following is an example of biological control of pests?

a) Use of chemicals b) Introduction of natural predators c) Use of synthetic fertilizers d) Intensive farming Answer: b) Introduction of natural predators

What is the process of removing unwanted plants from a cultivated field called?

a) Weed control b) Mulching c) Sowing d) Irrigation Answer: a) Weed control

Which of the following is not a source of animal protein?

a) Pulses b) Meat c) Fish d) Milk Answer: a) Pulses

What is the process of pouring water gently on the crops called?

a) Irrigation b) Harvesting c) Mulching d) Seed treatment Answer: a) Irrigation

Which of the following is a crop that is grown for large-scale production and sale?

a) Commercial crop b) Cash crop c) Rabi crop d) Kharif crop Answer: b) Cash crop

What is the term for the process of spreading and mixing organic matter with the soil before sowing se eds?

a) Composting b) Threshing c) Mulching d) Fertilization Answer: a) Composting

Which of the following is a method of organic farming where different crops are grown in alternate row s?

a) Crop rotation b) Monoculture c) Intercropping d) Terracing Answer: c) Intercropping

What is the process of cutting and gathering mature crops called?

a) Harvesting b) Mulching c) Threshing d) Sowing Answer: a) Harvesting

Which of the following is the process of removing husk from grains?

a) Husking b) Threshing c) Winnowing d) Harvesting Answer: a) Husking

Which of the following is an example of a biofertilizer?

a) Urea b) Diammonium phosphate (DAP) c) Rhizobium d) Potash Answer: c) Rhizobium

What is the term for the organisms that feed on crops and harm them?

a) Pests b) Predators c) Parasites d) Commensals Answer: a) Pests

Which of the following is a method to prevent soil erosion?

a) Terrace farming b) Overgrazing c) Monoculture farming d) Synthetic pesticide usage Answer: a) Terrace farming

What is the term for the process of sowing seeds to grow crops?

a) Seed treatment b) Germination c) Harvesting d) Sowing Answer: d) Sowing

Which of the following is an example of a cereals crop?

a) Tomato b) Potato c) Rice d) Spinach Answer: c) Rice

What is the method of crop rotation called where crops are cultivated in a particular order over several seasons?

a) Crop sequence b) Mixed cropping c) Inter-cropping d) Monoculture Answer: a) Crop sequence

Which of the following is a source of non-vegetarian protein?

a) Beans b) Tofu c) Chicken d) Lentils Answer: c) Chicken

Chapter 1. Number Systems

Which of the following is a prime number?

a) 12 b) 17 c) 24 d) 36

Convert 86 in binary to decimal.

a) 101010 b) 010101 c) 110110 d) 111111

Find the HCF of 28 and 42.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 14 d) 21

What is the square root of 169?

a) 15 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

Find the LCM of 3, 4, and 5.

a) 12 b) 15 c) 20 d) 30

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 27 b) 36 c) 49 d) 52

Convert 175 in octal to decimal.

a) 135 b) 100 c) 127 d) 150

Which of the following is a composite number?

a) 2 b) 7 c) 11 d) 9

Simplify: (5^2 * 3^2) / (2^2 * 6^2)

a) 10 b) 8 c) .5 d) .2

Convert 1011100 in binary to decimal.

a) 76 b) 99 c) 112 d) 62

Find the next prime number after 23.

a) 25 b) 28 c) 29 d) 32

Simplify: √64 + √144

a) 10 b) 20 c) 16 d) 18

Convert 45 in hexadecimal to decimal.

a) 69 b) 65 c) 73 d) 68

Which of the following is a rational number?

a) √2 b) π c) -1/4 d) √7

Convert 50 in hexadecimal to octal.

a) 42 b) 54 c) 64 d) 32

Find the LCM of 18 and 24.

a) 36 b) 48 c) 72 d) 96

Which of the following is an irrational number?

a) 2/3 b) √5 c) 3/4 d) 0.5

Simplify: √81 - √64

a) 9 b) 8 c) 7 d) 10

Convert 1111 in binary to octal.

a) 157 b) 123 c) 173 d) 137

What is the cube root of 27?

a) 1 b) 3 c) 9 d) 27

Find the HCF of 36 and 48.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

Which of the following is a prime number?

a) 15 b) 19 c) 28 d) 33

Convert 1001011 in binary to hexadecimal.

a) 4B b) 3F c) 56 d) 6A

How many prime numbers are there between 1 and 20?

a) 5 b) 7 c) 8 d) 10

Simplify: (2^3 * 3^4) / (2^2 * 3^2)

a) 36 b) 54 c) 18 d) 12

Convert 72 in octal to decimal.

a) 54 b) 56 c) 48 d) 40

Which of the following is a composite number?

a) 4 b) 11 c) 13 d) 17

What is the square root of 144?

a) 14 b) 12 c) 16 d) 18

Find the LCM of 7, 8, and 9.

a) 36 b) 42 c) 56 d) 72

Which of the following is a perfect square?

a) 25 b) 32 c) 43 d) 51

Convert 1010101 in binary to decimal.

a) 85 b) 101 c) 53 d) 77

Find the next prime number after 37.

a) 39 b) 41 c) 43 d) 47

Simplify: √49 + √64

a) 15 b) 17 c) 14 d) 13

Convert 125 in hexadecimal to decimal.

a) 285 b) 217 c) 234 d) 201

Which of the following is a rational number?

a) √3 b) e c) 1/2 d) √10

Convert 56 in hexadecimal to octal.

a) 64 b) 28 c) 78 d) 40

Find the LCM of 12 and 18.

a) 24 b) 36 c) 48 d) 72

Which of the following is an irrational number?

a) 2/3 b) √8 c) 3/4 d) 1/2

Simplify: √100 - √49

a) 11 b) 7 c) 9 d) 13

Convert 111111 in binary to octal.

a) 55 b) 77 c) 117 d) 127

What is the cube root of 64?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16

Find the HCF of 24 and 36.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 18 d) 24

Which of the following is a prime number?

a) 22 b) 17 c) 34 d) 54

Convert 1011010 in binary to hexadecimal.

a) D5 b) 3A c) 66 d) 9B

How many prime numbers are there between 1 and 30?

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14

Simplify: (2^4 * 3^3) / (2^2 * 3^2)

a) 36 b) 24 c) 18 d) 12

Convert 116 in octal to decimal.

a) 60 b) 78 c) 88 d) 94

Which of the following is a composite number?

a) 5 b) 10 c) 17 d) 19

What is the square root of 100?

a) 8 b) 10 c) 12 d) 14

Find the LCM of 10, 12, and 15.

a) 120 b) 150 c) 180 d) 210

Chapter 2 Polynomials

Which of the following is not a polynomial?

a) 3x^2 - 2x + 1 b) 4x + 7 c) √2x^3 + 5 d) 2x - 3

The degree of the polynomial 3x^3 - 2x^2 + 5x - 1 is:

a) 3 b) 2 c) 4 d) 1

Which term of the polynomial 2x^3 - 5x^2 + 4x - 3 is the constant term?

a) x^3 b) -3 c) 2x^3 d) 4x

If x + 2 is a factor of the polynomial x^3 - 3x^2 + ax - 10, then the value of a is:

a) 6 b) -6 c) 8 d) -8

The zeros of the polynomial x^2 - 4 are:

a) 2, -2 b) 1, -1 c) 4, -4 d) 2i, -2i

The polynomial (x - 3)(x + 5) is equal to:

a) x^2 - 15 b) x^2 + 2x - 15 c) x^2 - 8x - 15 d) x^2 - 8x + 15

Which of the following is a quadratic polynomial?

a) 3x^3 - 5x^2 + 2x + 1 b) 5x^2 - 7x + 2 c) 4x^4 - x^3 + 2x^2 - 3x d) x^5 + 3x^3 - 2x

The sum of the zeros of the polynomial x^2 + 4x - 5 is:

a) 4 b) -4 c) -5 d) 5

The degree of a zero of a polynomial is always:

a) 1 less than the degree of the polynomial b) 1 more than the degree of the polynomial c) equal to the degree of the polynomial d) any positive integer

If x^2 - 5x + k is a perfect square trinomial, then the value of k is:

a) -6 b) 6 c) -7 d) 7

Which of the following polynomials is divisible by the polynomial x + 1?

a) x^2 + 2x + 1 b) x^3 + 2x^2 + x + 1 c) x^2 + 2x d) x^3 + 2x - 1

The polynomial (x^2 - 1)(x^2 - 2x + 1) is equal to:

a) x^4 - x^3 + x^2 + 2x - 1 b) x^4 - 3x^3 + 5x^2 - 3x + 1 c) x^4 - 3x^2 + 2x - 1 d) x^4 - 2x^3 + x^2 + 2x - 1

The sum of the squares of the zeros of the polynomial x^2 - 3x + 2 is:

a) 3 b) 2 c) 6 d) 5

If the polynomial x^3 + ax^2 + bx - 6 has a quadratic factor, then a and b are:

a) 0 b) non-zero c) equal to each other d) equal to the degree of the polynomial

The polynomial x^4 - x^2 + 1 is:

a) a quadratic polynomial b) a cubic polynomial c) a quartic polynomial d) not a polynomial

If (x - 2) is a factor of the polynomial x^3 + 5x^2 - 4x - 8, then the other factor is:

a) x + 4 b) x^2 + 4 c) x^2 - 4 d) x - 4

The sum of the coefficients of the polynomial 2x^3 - x^2 + 5x - 3 is:

a) 3 b) -3 c) 2 d) 5

Which of the following is not a method to find the zeros of a polynomial?

a) Factor theorem b) Synthetic division c) Quadratic formula d) Imaginary roots theorem

The remainder when the polynomial 3x^3 - 7x^2 + 9x - 4 is divided by (x - 2) is:

a) -11 b) -6 c) 1 d) 4

The polynomial x^3 - 3a^2x - 2a^3 has:

a) 3 terms b) 2 terms c) 4 terms d) 5 terms

If (x - 3) is a factor of the polynomial x^3 - px^2 + 12x - q, then the value of p and q are:

a) 3, 9 b) 9, 3 c) 3, -9 d) -3, 9

The zeros of the polynomial x^4 - 4x^3 + x^2 + 6x - 4 are:

a) 2, -2 b) 1, -1 c) -1, 2 d) 2, 0

The zeros of the polynomial 2x^2 + 5x + 3 are:

a) 1, -3/2 b) -1, -3/2 c) 1, 3/2 d) -1, 3/2

If the zeros of the polynomial x^3 + 2x - 4 are p, q, and r, then p + q + r is:

a) 2 b) -2 c) 4 d) -4

The single zero of the polynomial x^2 - 2x + 1 is:

a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) -2

The zeros of the polynomial x^3 - 7x - 6 are:

a) 1, -2, 3 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 2, -1, 3 d) -1, 2, 3

If (x - 1) is a factor of the polynomial x^3 + 2x^2 - px - 2, then the value of p is:

a) 4 b) -4 c) 3 d) -3

The highest power of the variable in a polynomial is called:

a) Constant term b) Zero c) Degree d) Coefficient

Which term of the polynomial 2x^3 + 5x^2 - x + 3 is the leading term?

a) 5x^2 b) 3 c) 2x^3 d) -x

The number of zeros of a polynomial is equal to its:

a) Coefficient b) Degree c) Leading term d) Constant term

The product of the zeros of the polynomial x^2 + 2x - 3 is:

a) 3 b) -3 c) 1 d) -1

If the zeros of the polynomial x^2 - 5x + 6 are p and q, then p + q is: a) 6 b) -6 c) 5 d) -5

If the zeros of a cubic polynomial are 1, 2, and -3, then the polynomial can be written as:

a) x^3 - 6x - 12 b) x^3 + 6x^2 - 12x c) x^3 + 6x - 12 d) x^3 - 6x^2 + 12x

Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry

In which quadrant(s) are both x and y positive?

a) I only b) II only c) I and IV d) All quadrants

What are the coordinates of the origin?

a) (0, 0) b) (1, 1) c) (1, 0) d) (0, 1)

The distance between points (3, 4) and (0, 0) is:

a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 25

The slope of a line passing through points (2, 1) and (6, 3) is:

a) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) -1

The ratio of the y-intercept and the x-intercept of a line is 3:4. What is the slope of the line?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Which of the following lines is perpendicular to the line y = 2x - 3?

a) y = 2x + 3 b) y = -2x + 3 c) y = 3x - 2 d) y = -3x + 2

The midpoint of the line segment joining points (2, 3) and (6, 7) is:

a) (4, 5) b) (5, 6) c) (8, 10) d) (3, 4)

Which of the following is the equation of a vertical line?

a) x = 2 b) y = 2 c) x = y + 3 d) y = x + 2

The equation of the line passing through (-1, 4) and (-2, -1) is:

a) y = 5x - 1 b) y = -5x + 1 c) y = -5x - 1 d) y = -6x - 3

The distance between the points (-1, 2) and (3, 4) is:

a) √2 b) 2√2 c) 3√2 d) 4√2

The line segment joining (0, 5) and (10, 5) lies in the:

a) X-axis b) Y-axis c) Quadrant I d) Quadrant II

The slope of any line parallel to the X-axis is:

a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) Undefined

The equation of the line perpendicular to 3y = 2x + 6 and passing through (4, -1) is:

a) 2y = -3x + 15 b) 3y = 2x - 9 c) 4y = 3x + 17 d) 2y = 3x + 11

The x-coordinate of the point where the line y = 3x + 4 intersects the X-axis is:

a) 1 b) -1 c) -2 d) -4

What is the equation of the X-axis?

a) y = 1 b) y = 0 c) x = 0 d) x = 1

The equation of a vertical line with x-intercept -4 is:

a) x = -4 b) y = -4 c) x = 4 d) y = 4

In which quadrant(s) is the line 3x + 2y = 8 situated?

a) I only b) III only c) I and II d) II and III

Find the equation of the line passing through (1, 2) and (3, -4):

a) y = -3x + 5 b) y = -3x - 5 c) y = 3x + 5 d) y = 3x - 5

What is the slope of the line given by the equation 4x + 2y = 3?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) -2

The area of a triangle with vertices at (0, 0), (4, 0), and (2, 3) is:

a) 6 b) 8 c) 10 d) 12

The slope of a line perpendicular to y = mx + c is:

a) -1/m b) 1/m c) -m d) m

The point (0, 3) lies in which quadrant?

a) I b) II c) III d) IV

The equation of a line parallel to the y-axis is:

a) x = 0 b) y = 0 c) x = 1 d) y = 1

The distance between the points (4, 1) and (-2, 3) is:

a) √5 b) 2√5 c) √10 d) 3√5

The equation of a line passing through the point (3, 4) and perpendicular to the line y = 2x - 7 is:

a) y = -0.5x + 5.5 b) y = -0.5x - 3.5 c) y = -2x + 13 d) y = 0.5x + 2.5

The coordinates of a point equidistant from the points (-3, 4) and (5, 2) are:

a) (1, 3) b) (2, 2) c) (1, 6) d) (4, 3)

The x-coordinate of the point where the line 3x - 5y = 10 intersects the x-axis is:

a) 2 b) 3 c) 5 d) -2

In which quadrant(s) does the line y = 3x + 2 lie?

a) I only b) III only c) I and II d) II and III

The equation of a line whose y-intercept is -3 and slope is 2 is:

a) y = 2x + 3 b) y = -2x + 3 c) y = 2x - 3 d) y = -2x - 3

The slope of any line parallel to the Y-axis is:

a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) Undefined

The coordinates of a point on the Y-axis are:

a) (0, 1) b) (1, 0) c) (0, 0) d) (0, -1)

What is the equation of the line passing through (1, -2) and (-3, -6)?

a) y = -x + 2 b) y = x - 2 c) y = -x - 2 d) y = x + 2

The distance between points (-7, 6) and (3, -4) is:

a) 2√10 b) √130 c) 4√10 d) √244

The equation of the line passing through (0, 4) and (-2, 2) is:

a) y = -2x + 4 b) y = x + 4 c) y = -x + 4 d) y = 2x + 4

The equation of the line passing through (3, 2) and (-4, -3) is:

a) y = -5x b) y = 5x c) y = -(5/7)x - (4/7) d) y = (5/7)x - (4/7)

Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables

The graph of a linear equation in two variables is always a:

a) Parabola b) Straight line c) Hyperbola d) None of the above

If the graph of a linear equation is a line passing through the origin, its slope is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Undefined

The equation of a line parallel to the x-axis is:

a) x = k b) y = k c) y = mx d) x = mx

The solution of a linear equation represents:

a) A point b) A line c) A curve d) Both a point and a line

A linear equation can have how many solutions?

a) Infinite b) Zero c) One d) Two

If two lines are parallel, their slopes are:

a) Equal b) Intersecting c) Perpendicular d) Undefined

The slope-intercept form of a linear equation is:

a) y = mx + c b) x = mx + c c) y = ax^2 + bx + c d) None of the above

The solution of the equation 3x + 2y = 12 is (2, 3). Is it true or false?

a) True b) False

The equation of a vertical line is:

a) x = k b) y = k c) y = mx d) x = mx

The graph of the equation 2x + 3y = 6 is a straight line passing through:

a) (3, 0) b) (0, 3) c) (1, 2) d) (2, 1)

The equations x = 3 and y = 2 represent:

a) Parallel lines b) Perpendicular lines c) Intersecting lines d) None of the above

The solution of the system of linear equations x + y = 5 and 2x + 3y = 12 is:

a) (4, 1) b) (3, 2) c) (2, 3) d) (1, 4)

The point of intersection of two lines is the solution of the:

a) First equation only b) Second equation only c) Both equations d) None of the above

The point (0, 0) lies on the graph of the linear equation x + y = 1. Is it true or false?

a) True b) False

The system of linear equations x + 2y = 4 and 2x + 4y = 8 is:

a) Consistent and dependent b) Consistent and independent c) Inconsistent d) None of the above

The solution of the linear equation 3x + 5y = 15 is the line passing through:

a) (3, 0) b) (0, 5) c) (1, 2) d) (2, 1)

The equations y = 2x + 3 and y = -2x - 3 represent:

a) Parallel lines b) Perpendicular lines c) Intersecting lines d) None of the above

The slope of a vertical line is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Undefined

The system of linear equations x + y = 5 and 2x - y = 1 is:

a) Consistent and dependent b) Consistent and independent c) Inconsistent d) None of the above

The graph of the equation y = -5 is a:

a) Line parallel to the x-axis b) Line parallel to the y-axis c) Line passing through the origin d) Line with a positive slope

If the sum of the slopes of two perpendicular lines is 0, their product is:

a) 1 b) -1 c) 0 d) Undefined

The graph of the equation x = -5 is a:

a) Line parallel to the x-axis b) Line parallel to the y-axis c) Line passing through the origin d) Line with a positive slope

If two lines are perpendicular, their slopes are:

a) Equal b) Intersecting c) Parallel d) Negative reciprocals of each other

The solution of the linear equation 4x - 3y = 6 is the line passing through:

a) (6, -4) b) (3, 2) c) (1, -2) d) (-2, 1)

The system of linear equations 2x - 3y = 5 and 4x - 6y = 10 is:

a) Consistent and dependent b) Consistent and independent c) Inconsistent d) None of the above

The point (-2, 1) lies on the graph of the linear equation 3x + y = 7. Is it true or false?

a) True b) False

The intersecting point of two lines is called:

a) Vertex b) Origin c) Intersection point d) None of the above

The solution of the system of linear equations 2x - y = 3 and 3x + 2y = 1 is:

a) (1, 2) b) (2, 1) c) (-1, -2) d) (-2, -1)

The graph of the equation y = x is a:

a) Parabola b) Hyperbola c) Straight line passing through the origin d) Straight line not passing through the origin

The system of linear equations x + y = 5 and -x + y = 3 is:

a) Consistent and dependent b) Consistent and independent c) Inconsistent d) None of the above

The solution of the linear equation 2x - 3y = 4 is the line passing through:

a) (2, -1) b) (4, 2) c) (1, -2) d) (-2, 1)

The equations y = 5x + 3 and y = 5x - 3 represent:

a) Parallel lines b) Perpendicular lines c) Intersecting lines d) None of the above

The slope of a horizontal line is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Undefined

The system of linear equations x + y = 5 and x - y = 1 is:

a) Consistent and dependent b) Consistent and independent c) Inconsistent d) None of the above

The graph of the equation 3y - 5 = 0 is a:

a) Line parallel to the x-axis b) Line parallel to the y-axis c) Line passing through the origin d) Line with a positive slope

If the slopes of two lines are negative reciprocals of each other, they are:

a) Parallel b) Perpendicular c) Intersecting d) Both a and b

The equation of a line with slope m passing through the point (x1, y1) is:

a) y - y1 = m(x - x1) b) y = mx + b c) ax + by = c d) None of the above

The solution of the system of linear equations x + y = 4 and -3x - 3y = -12 is:

a) (2, 2) b) (3, 1) c) (1, 3) d) (-1, -3)

The point (2, -1) lies on the graph of the linear equation y = 2x - 3. Is it true or false?

a) True b) False

The system of linear equations x + y = 7 and -2x - 2y = -14 is:

a) Consistent and dependent b) Consistent and independent c) Inconsistent d) None of the above

Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry

Euclid's Geometry is primarily based on the mathematical study of what?

a) Angles b) Shapes c) Lines d) Numbers

Euclid's Geometry is based on a series of logical steps called what?

a) Postulates b) Conjectures c) Formulas d) Theorems

In Euclid's Geometry, what is the starting point for constructing all other figures?

a) Point b) Line c) Angle d) Circle

Euclid's fifth postulate, also known as the parallel postulate, deals with what?

a) Angles b) Circles c) Lines d) Polygons

Which of the following is one of Euclid's postulates?

a) Two lines can intersect at more than one point. b) A line segment can be extended indefinitely. c) A circle can have more than one center. d) Two angles can be equal but not congruent.

In Euclid's geometry, how many points are required to define a line? a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0

Two lines that never meet or intersect are called what in Euclid's geometry?

a) Parallel lines b) Perpendicular lines c) Intersecting lines d) Congruent lines

The sum of the interior angles of a triangle in Euclid's geometry is always equal to what?

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

Euclid's geometry is also known as what type of geometry?

a) Analytical geometry b) Differential geometry c) Projective geometry d) Euclidean geometry

Euclid's geometry is primarily focused on the study of shapes and what other geometric concept?

a) Circles b) Perimeters c) Areas d) Volume

According to Euclid's geometry, which of the following is not a type of quadrilateral?

a) Square b) Rectangle c) Parallelogram d) Triangle

What is the minimum number of sides a polygon must have according to Euclid's geometry?

a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) There is no minimum requirement

True or False: Euclid's geometry can be applied to three-dimensional shapes.

a) True b) False

According to Euclid's geometry, what is the maximum number of parallel lines that can be drawn to a given line?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) There is no maximum limit

In Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a straight line that connects two points on a circle?

a) Chord b) Radius c) Diameter d) Tangent

What is the sum of the exterior angles of any polygon in Euclid's geometry?

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

Euclid's geometry is named after which ancient Greek mathematician?

a) Euclid of Alexandria b) Pythagoras of Samos c) Archimedes of Syracuse d) Eratosthenes of Cyrene

According to Euclid's geometry, what is the measure of a straight angle?

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

True or False: Euclid's geometry does not use any algebraic equations.

a) True b) False

In Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with five sides?

a) Triangle b) Quadrilateral c) Pentagon d) Hexagon

In Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with six sides?

a) Hexagon b) Octagon c) Decagon d) Dodecagon

According to Euclid's geometry, what is the shortest distance between two points called?

a) Line b) Angle c) Arc d) Chord

What is the sum of the interior angles of a quadrilateral in Euclid's geometry?

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

Euclid's geometry is based on what type of reasoning?

a) Inductive reasoning b) Deductive reasoning c) Abstract reasoning d) Empirical reasoning

According to Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with eight sides?

a) Pentagon b) Hexagon c) Octagon d) Nonagon

A line segment that connects two nonadjacent vertices of a polygon is called what in Euclid's geometr y?

a) Diagonal b) Perpendicular bisector c) Median d) Altitude

True or False: Euclid's geometry does not consider curved lines or curved surfaces.

a) True b) False

What is the term for two angles that add up to 180 degrees in Euclid's geometry?

a) Complementary angles b) Supplementary angles c) Adjacent angles d) Vertical angles

In Euclid's geometry, the sum of the exterior angles of any polygon is always equal to what?

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

According to Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with ten sides?

a) Hexagon b) Octagon c) Decagon d) Dodecagon

What is the term for a polygon with twelve sides in Euclid's geometry?

a) Dodecagon b) Nonagon c) Undecagon d) Icosagon

True or False: In Euclid's geometry, all right angles are congruent.

a) True b) False

According to Euclid's geometry, any two points can always be connected by a what?

a) Line b) Angle c) Arc d) Chord

What is the term for a polygon with four sides in Euclid's geometry?

a) Triangle b) Quadrilateral c) Pentagon d) Hexagon

In Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with seven sides?

a) Hexagon b) Heptagon c) Octagon d) Nonagon

True or False: Euclid's geometry is purely theoretical and has no practical applications.

a) True b) False

According to Euclid's geometry, which of the following is a type of triangle?

a) Quadrilateral b) Pentagon c) Hexagon d) Isosceles triangle

What is the term for a line segment that divides a polygon into two congruent parts in Euclid's geometr y?

a) Median b) Perpendicular bisector c) Diagonal d) Altitude

True or False: Euclid's geometry does not involve any measurements or numerical calculations.

a) True b) False

According to Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with nine sides?

a) Hexagon b) Octagon c) Nonagon d) Decagon

In Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with eleven sides?

a) Heptagon b) Nonagon c) Undecagon d) Dodecagon

True or False: Euclid's geometry only deals with two-dimensional shapes.

a) True b) False

According to Euclid's geometry, an angle that measures greater than 180 degrees is called what?

a) Acute angle b) Right angle c) Obtuse angle d) Straight angle

What is the term for a line segment that connects two adjacent vertices of a polygon in Euclid's geome try?

a) Diagonal b) Perpendicular bisector c) Median d) Altitude

In Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with twenty sides?

a) Hexagon b) Octagon c) Decagon d) Icosagon

True or False: Euclid's geometry is based on a set of postulates that cannot be proven.

a) True b) False

According to Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with thirteen sides?

a) Dodecagon b) Nonagon c) Undecagon d) Triskaidecagon

In Euclid's geometry, the sum of the interior angles of a polygon with n sides is always equal to what?

a) (n-2) degrees b) 180 degrees c) (n+2) degrees d) 360 degrees

True or False: Euclid's geometry is the only type of geometry that exists.

a) True b) False

According to Euclid's geometry, what is the term for a polygon with fifteen sides?

a) Hexagon b) Octagon c) Decagon d) Pentadecagon

Chapter 6 Lines and Angles

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are supplementary, then the value of angle 1 is:

a) 90° b) 120° c) 150° d) 180°

In a triangle, the sum of all angles is:

a) 90° b) 180° c) 270° d) 360°

In a parallelogram, the opposite angles are:

a) Congruent b) Supplementary c) Equal d) None of the above

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 50°, then angle 2 is:

a) 30° b) 40° c) 50° d) 130°

In the figure shown, what is the measure of angle PQR if angle PQS is 80°?

a) 20° b) 40° c) 80° d) 100°

In the figure shown, angle 1 and angle 2 are complementary. If angle 1 is 30°, then angle 2 is:

a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are supplementary, then angle x is:

a) 100° b) 120° c) 140° d) 180°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 3 are each 45°, then angle 2 is:

a) 45° b) 90° c) 135° d) 180°

In a triangle, the measure of the largest angle is 100°. The measure of the smallest angle is:

a) 50° b) 60° c) 70° d) 80°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 = 70°, then angle 2 is:

a) 30° b) 40° c) 50° d) 70°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are vertical angles, then the value of angle x is:

a) 60° b) 120° c) 150° d) 180°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 3 are each 45°, then angle 4 is:

a) 45° b) 90° c) 135° d) 180°

In a right-angled triangle, the angle opposite the hypotenuse is:

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 + angle 2 = 90°, then the value of angle x is:

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are corresponding angles, then the value of angle x is:

a) 110° b) 130° c) 150° d) 180°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 130°, then angle 2 is:

a) 50° b) 60° c) 70° d) 180°

In the figure shown, angle 1 and angle 2 are supplementary and angle 3 is 60°. Then, the value of ang le 4 is:

a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are alternate angles, then the value of angle x is:

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

In a rhombus, all angles are:

a) Congruent b) Complementary c) Supplementary d) None of the above

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are corresponding angles, then the value of angle x is:

a) 110° b) 130° c) 150° d) 180°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are supplementary, then the value of angle 1 is:

a) 90° b) 120° c) 150° d) 180°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 70°, then angle 2 is:

a) 30° b) 40° c) 50° d) 70°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 45°, then angle 2 is:

a) 45° b) 90° c) 135° d) 180°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 60°, then angle 2 is:

a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are congruent, then the value of angle x is:

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

In a trapezium, the opposite angles are:

a) Equal b) Supplementary c) Congruent d) None of the above

In the figure shown, angle A and angle B are complementary. If angle A is 60°, then angle B is:

a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 50°, then angle 2 is:

a) 20° b) 40° c) 50° d) 130°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 120°, then angle 2 is:

a) 60° b) 70° c) 90° d) 180°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 40° and angle 2 is supplementary to angle 1, then the value of angle 2 is:

a) 40° b) 50° c) 90° d) 140°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 3 are alternate angles, then the value of angle x is:

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 50°, then angle 2 is:

a) 130° b) 180° c) 230° d) 280°

In the figure shown, what is the measure of angle PQR if angle PQS is 80°?

a) 20° b) 40° c) 80° d) 100°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are corresponding angles, then the value of angle x is:

a) 110° b) 130° c) 150° d) 180°

In the figure shown, angle 1 and angle 2 are supplementary and angle 3 is 60°. Then, the value of ang le 4 is:

a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 and angle 2 are alternate angles, then the value of angle x is:

a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 90°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 45°, then angle 2 is:

a) 45° b) 90° c) 135° d) 180°

In the figure shown, if angle 1 is 60°, then angle 2 is:

a) 30° b) 60° c) 90° d) 120°

Chapter 7 Triangles

In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of any two sides is always greater than ______.

a) The length of the third side b) The length of the fourth side c) The sum of the other two sides d) The difference between the other two sides

How many medians can a triangle have?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

The area of an equilateral triangle with side length 'a' is given by the formula ______.

a) √3a/4 b) √3a/2 c) a^2√3/4 d) a^2√3/2

The sum of the angles in any triangle is always ______.

a) 180 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 360 degrees d) 270 degrees

In a right triangle, the length of the side opposite the right angle is called the ______.

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Altitude d) Perpendicular

If two sides of a triangle are of lengths 5 cm and 9 cm, which of the following could be the possible leng th of the third side?

a) 2 cm b) 7 cm c) 10 cm d) 15 cm

The longest side of a triangle is called the ______.

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Altitude d) Perpendicular

Two triangles are said to be congruent if ______.

a) They have the same perimeter b) They have the same area c) They have the same shape and size d) They have the same angles

The altitude of a triangle is a line segment drawn from a vertex to the ______.

a) Midpoint of the opposite side b) Perpendicular bisector of the opposite side c) Circumcenter of the triangle d) Orthocenter of the triangle

The Pythagorean theorem states that in a right triangle, the square of the length of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the lengths of the ______.

a) Base and height b) Two legs c) Altitudes d) Medians

The sum of any two sides of a triangle is always ______ than the third side.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) Indeterminable

The ratio of the sides of a 30-60-90 right triangle is ______.

a) 3:1:2 b) 1:1:√2 c) 1:√3:2 d) 1:2:√3

The centroid of a triangle is the point where ______.

a) All medians intersect b) The altitude and median intersect c) The perpendicular bisectors of the sides intersect d) The angle bisectors intersect

The circumcenter of a triangle is the point where ______.

a) All medians intersect b) The altitude and median intersect c) The perpendicular bisectors of the sides intersect d) The angle bisectors intersect

If two angles of a triangle are given as 60 degrees and 90 degrees, what will be the measure of the thi rd angle?

a) 30 degrees b) 45 degrees c) 60 degrees d) 75 degrees

The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their ______.

a) Perimeters b) Altitudes c) Medians d) Side lengths

A triangle with all angles less than 90 degrees is called ______.

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Acute

A triangle with exactly two congruent sides is called ______.

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Right

The altitude of an equilateral triangle is also a ______ of the triangle.

a) Median b) Angle bisector c) Perpendicular bisector d) Side

In a right triangle, the side adjacent to an acute angle is called the ______.

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Altitude d) Perpendicular

Two triangles are said to be similar if their corresponding angles are ______.

a) Equal b) Supplementary c) Complementary d) Congruent

In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of any two sides is ______ than the length of the third side.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) Indeterminable

The area of a triangle with base 'b' and height 'h' is given by the formula ______.

a) (b × h)/2 b) (b + h)/2 c) (b × h)/4 d) (b + h)/4

In a right triangle, the side opposite the right angle is called the ______.

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Altitude d) Perpendicular

The altitude of a triangle is a line segment drawn from a vertex to the ______.

a) Midpoint of the opposite side b) Perpendicular bisector of the opposite side c) Circumcenter of the triangle d) Orthocenter of the triangle

Two triangles are congruent if they have ______.

a) The same perimeter b) The same area c) The same shape and size d) The same angles

The circumcenter of a triangle is the point where ______.

a) All medians intersect b) The altitude and median intersect c) The perpendicular bisectors of the sides intersect d) The angle bisectors intersect

The centroid of a triangle is the point where ______.

a) All medians intersect b) The altitude and median intersect c) The perpendicular bisectors of the sides intersect d) The angle bisectors intersect

The sum of any two sides of a triangle is always ______ than the third side.

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) Indeterminable

In a right triangle, the side opposite the right angle is called the ______.

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Altitude d) Perpendicular

The ratio of the sides of a 45-45-90 right triangle is ______.

a) 1:1:√3 b) 1:√2:2 c) 1:1:1 d) 1:2:√3

The ratio of the sides of a 30-60-90 right triangle is ______.

a) 1:1:1 b) 1:√2:2 c) 1:1:√3 d) 1:2:√3

The centroid of a triangle divides each median in the ratio ______.

a) 2:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:1 d) 3:1

In a triangle, the longest side is always opposite the ______ angle.

a) Largest b) Smallest c) Middle d) Any

The angles opposite the equal sides of an isosceles triangle are ______.

a) Equal b) Supplementary c) Complementary d) Congruent

If two angles of a triangle are given as 30 degrees and 60 degrees, what will be the measure of the thi rd angle?

a) 30 degrees b) 60 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 180 degrees

The area of an equilateral triangle with side length 'a' is given by the formula ______.

a) √3a/4 b) √3a/2 c) a^2√3/4 d) a^2√3/2

The sum of the angles in any triangle is always ______ degrees.

a) 180 b) 90 c) 360 d) 270

The ratio of the areas of two similar triangles is equal to the square of the ratio of their ______.

a) Perimeters b) Altitudes c) Medians d) Side lengths

A triangle with all angles equal to 90 degrees is called a ______ triangle.

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Right

A triangle with exactly two congruent sides is called a ______ triangle.

a) Equilateral b) Isosceles c) Scalene d) Right

In a triangle, the sum of the lengths of any two sides is always ______ than the length of the third side .

a) Greater b) Lesser c) Equal d) Indeterminable

Two triangles are said to be similar if their corresponding angles are ______.

a) Equal b) Supplementary c) Complementary d) Congruent

In a right triangle, the side opposite the right angle is called the ______.

a) Base b) Hypotenuse c) Altitude d) Perpendicular

Chapter 8 Quadrilaterals

Which of the following is NOT a type of quadrilateral?

a) Square b) Rectangle c) Circle d) Rhombus

The sum of all interior angles of a quadrilateral is:

a) 360 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 270 degrees

A quadrilateral with two pairs of parallel sides is known as a:

a) Square b) Kite c) Parallelogram d) Rhombus

If the opposite angles of a quadrilateral are equal, then it is a:

a) Trapezium b) Parallelogram c) Rectangle d) Rhombus

The opposite sides of a parallelogram are:

a) Perpendicular b) Congruent c) Supplementary d) Parallel

If a quadrilateral has all sides of equal length, it is called a:

a) Parallelogram b) Kite c) Rhombus d) Rectangle

The diagonals of a rectangle are:

a) Congruent and perpendicular b) Equal in length c) Equal in angle measures d) Parallel to each other

If a quadrilateral has two pairs of congruent adjacent sides, it is a:

a) Rhombus b) Square c) Rectangle d) Kite

The opposite angles of a rectangle are:

a) Supplementary b) Congruent c) Parallel d) None of the above

If the sum of two opposite angles of a quadrilateral is 180 degrees, it is a:

a) Parallelogram b) Rhombus c) Square d) Trapezium

The sum of all exterior angles of a quadrilateral is:

a) 360 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 270 degrees

A quadrilateral with one pair of parallel sides is known as a:

a) Rectangle b) Square c) Rhombus d) Trapezium

The diagonals of a parallelogram:

a) Bisect each other b) Are perpendicular to each other c) Are equal in length d) All of the above

A quadrilateral with all four sides of different lengths is called a:

a) Rectangle b) Parallelogram c) Trapezium d) Kite

If all interior angles of a quadrilateral are right angles, it is a:

a) Kite b) Rhombus c) Trapezium d) Rectangle

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a quadrilateral is always:

a) Greater than the sum of the other two sides b) Less than the sum of the other two sides c) Equal to the sum of the other two sides d) None of the above

A quadrilateral with exactly one pair of parallel sides is called a:

a) Square b) Kite c) Rhombus d) Trapezium

In a rhombus, the diagonals:

a) Are equal in length b) Bisect each other c) Are perpendicular to each other d) All of the above

A kite is a quadrilateral with: a) One pair of congruent sides b) Two pairs of congruent sides c) Only one pair of opposite sides parallel d) Only one pair of opposite angles equal

The diagonals of a trapezium:

a) Are congruent b) Bisect each other c) Are parallel d) All of the above

The sum of the lengths of any three sides of a quadrilateral is always:

a) Greater than the length of the fourth side b) Less than the length of the fourth side c) Equal to the length of the fourth side d) None of the above

In a rectangle, the diagonals are:

a) Congruent b) Perpendicular c) Equal in length d) All of the above

A trapezium with non-parallel sides equal in length is called an:

a) Isosceles trapezium b) Equilateral trapezium c) Scalene trapezium d) None of the above

The diagonals of a square:

a) Are perpendicular bisectors of each other b) Are equal in length c) Bisect each other at right angles d) All of the above

A parallelogram in which all angles are right angles is a:

a) Square b) Rhombus c) Rectangle d) Trapezium

A quadrilateral can have __________ pair(s) of opposite angles equal.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

The opposite sides of a rectangle are:

a) Congruent b) Parallel c) Perpendicular d) Supplementary

A quadrilateral in which all four sides are of different lengths is called a:

a) Square b) Rhombus c) Parallelogram d) Trapezium

In a parallelogram, the sum of any two adjacent angles is always:

a) 180 degrees b) 90 degrees c) 360 degrees d) 270 degrees

The diagonals of a rectangle are __________ to each other.

a) Perpendicular b) Congruent c) Bisectors d) Parallel

A rhombus is a parallelogram with:

a) Congruent opposite sides b) Only one pair of opposite angles equal c) All angles equal to 90 degrees d) All angles equal to 180 degrees

The sum of the lengths of any two sides of a parallelogram is always:

a) Greater than the sum of the other two sides b) Less than the sum of the other two sides c) Equal to the sum of the other two sides d) None of the above

In a kite, the diagonals are:

a) Perpendicular b) Bisecting each other c) Congruent in length d) None of the above

A parallelogram with all sides and angles equal is a:

a) Square b) Rhombus c) Rectangle d) Trapezium

The diagonals of a parallelogram __________ each other.

a) Bisect b) Are parallel to c) Are equal in length to d) None of the above

In a trapezium, the sum of the lengths of any two sides is always:

a) Greater than the length of the third side b) Less than the length of the third side c) Equal to the length of the third side d) None of the above

A quadrilateral with four sides of equal length is called a:

a) Square b) Kite c) Rhombus d) Rectangle

In a rhombus, the diagonals bisect each other at _________ angles.

a) Acute b) Obtuse c) Right d) None of the above

A quadrilateral can have ________ pair(s) of opposite sides equal.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

The diagonals of a kite are:

a) Congruent b) Perpendicular c) Equal in length d) None of the above

A quadrilateral can have __________ pair(s) of adjacent angles equal.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

In a parallelogram, the opposite angles are:

a) Congruent b) Supplementary c) Equal to 90 degrees d) All angles are equal

A square is a:

a) Rhombus b) Rectangle c) Parallelogram d) All of the above

The diagonals of a trapezium are:

a) Congruent b) Perpendicular c) Equal in length d) None of the above

In a parallelogram, the sum of the lengths of any two adjacent sides is always:

a) Greater than the sum of the other two sides b) Less than the sum of the other two sides c) Equal to the sum of the other two sides d) None of the above

A quadrilateral can have ________ pair(s) of opposite angles supplementary.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

In a rectangle, the opposite angles are:

a) Congruent b) Supplementary c) Complementary d) Equal to 180 degrees

A parallelogram with all angles equal to 90 degrees is a:

a) Square b) Rhombus c) Rectangle d) Trapezium

The diagonals of a square divide it into _________ congruent triangles.

a) 4 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3

Chapter 9 Areas of Parallelograms and Triangles

The area of a parallelogram is equal to:

a) base × height b) sum of all sides c) diagonal × side d) base × diagonal

What is the formula to calculate the area of a triangle?

a) base × height b) sum of all sides c) 1/2 × base × height d) base × diagonal

Two sides of a parallelogram measure 8 cm and 12 cm. If the included angle between them is 60 degre es, what is the area of the parallelogram?

a) 48 cm^2 b) 72 cm^2 c) 96 cm^2 d) 120 cm^2

In a triangle, if the base is 10 cm and the height is 15 cm, what is its area?

a) 75 cm^2 b) 100 cm^2 c) 125 cm^2 d) 150 cm^2

The lengths of the diagonals of a parallelogram are 10 cm and 14 cm. If one of the angles measures 60 degrees, what is the area of the parallelogram?

a) 50 cm^2 b) 60 cm^2 c) 100 cm^2 d) 120 cm^2

What is the area of an equilateral triangle with a side length of 6 cm?

a) 6√3 cm^2 b) 12√3 cm^2 c) 18√3 cm^2 d) 36√3 cm^2

A triangle has sides measuring 9 cm, 12 cm, and 15 cm. What is its area?

a) 54 cm^2 b) 72 cm^2 c) 90 cm^2 d) 108 cm^2

If the sides of a triangle measure 7 cm, 8 cm, and 9 cm, and its height is 6 cm, what is its area?

a) 21 cm^2 b) 27 cm^2 c) 36 cm^2 d) 48 cm^2

The base of a parallelogram is 16 cm, and its height is 10 cm. What is its area?

a) 160 cm^2 b) 176 cm^2 c) 192 cm^2 d) 208 cm^2

The lengths of two parallel sides of a trapezium are 6 cm and 12 cm. If the perpendicular distance bet ween them is 8 cm, what is the area of the trapezium?

a) 48 cm^2 b) 60 cm^2 c) 72 cm^2 d) 96 cm^2 11. The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and

cm. If one of the angles measures 60 de grees, what is the area of the rhombus?

a) 30 cm^2 b) 36 cm^2 c) 40 cm^2 d) 48 cm^2

The area of a triangle is 24 cm^2. If the base is 6 cm, what is its height?

a) 2 cm b) 4 cm c) 6 cm d) 8 cm

The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5. If its perimeter is 48 cm, what is its area?

a) 36 cm^2 b) 48 cm^2 c) 64 cm^2 d) 72 cm^2

The base of a parallelogram is three times its height. If the area is 48 cm^2, what is the height?

a) 4 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 12 cm

Two sides of a triangle measure 5 cm and 6 cm. If the included angle between them is 90 degrees, wh at is the area of the triangle?

a) 10 cm^2 b) 12 cm^2 c) 15 cm^2 d) 30 cm^2

In a parallelogram, the height is half the length of the base. If the area is 36 cm^2, what is the length o f the base?

a) 4 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 12 cm

The area of a triangle is 42 cm^2. If the base is 7 cm, what is its height?

a) 3 cm b) 6 cm c) 9 cm d) 12 cm

The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 8 cm and 10 cm. If one of the angles measures 120 de grees, what is the area of the rhombus?

a) 24 cm^2 b) 30 cm^2 c) 40 cm^2 d) 48 cm^2

If the area of a parallelogram is 60 cm^2 and the height is 5 cm, what is the length of the base?

a) 6 cm b) 8 cm c) 10 cm d) 12 cm

The lengths of the sides of a triangle are 7 cm, 10 cm, and 13 cm. What is its area?

a) 24.5 cm^2 b) 35 cm^2 c) 42.5 cm^2 d) 49 cm^2

In a parallelogram, the lengths of the diagonals are equal. If one diagonal measures 12 cm and the inc luded angle between the diagonals is 90 degrees, what is the area of the parallelogram?

a) 24 cm^2 b) 48 cm^2 c) 72 cm^2 d) 96 cm^2

The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 5:12:13. If its perimeter is 60 cm, what is its area?

a) 84 cm^2 b) 96 cm^2 c) 108 cm^2 d) 120 cm^2

The base of a parallelogram is 14 cm, and its height is 8 cm. What is its area?

a) 84 cm^2 b) 96 cm^2 c) 112 cm^2 d) 128 cm^2

The area of a triangle is 36 cm^2. If the base is 9 cm, what is its height?

a) 2 cm b) 4 cm c) 6 cm d) 8 cm

The lengths of the sides of a triangle are in the ratio 9:12:16. If its perimeter is 78 cm, what is its area?

a) 96 cm^2 b) 108 cm^2 c) 144 cm^2 d) 192 cm^2

The area of a parallelogram is 70 cm^2. If the height is 10 cm, what is the length of the base?

a) 7 cm b) 8 cm c) 9 cm d) 10 cm

The lengths of the diagonals of a rhombus are 16 cm and 12 cm. If one of the angles measures 45 de grees, what is the area of the rhombus?

a) 62.4 cm^2 b) 96 cm^2 c) 120 cm^2 d) 144 cm^2

If the area of a parallelogram is 96 cm^2 and the height is 8 cm, what is the length of the base?

a) 12 cm b) 16 cm c) 18 cm d) 24 cm

The length of one side of a rhombus is 10 cm. If the included angle measures 60 degrees, what is the area of the rhombus?

a) 25√3 cm^2 b) 50√3 cm^2 c) 100√3 cm^2 d) 150√3 cm^2

The lengths of the sides of a triangle are 13 cm, 14 cm, and 15 cm. What is its area?

a) 84 cm^2 b) 84.5 cm^2 c) 88 cm^2 d) 92 cm^2

Chapter 10 Circles

Which of the following is a chord of a circle?

a) Arc b) Diameter c) Tangent d) Secant

If a circle has a radius of 5 cm, what is its circumference?

a) 5π cm b) 15π cm c) 25π cm d) 50π cm

What is the measure of the central angle of a circle with 24 sectors?

a) 15° b) 30° c) 45° d) 60°

In a circle, the chord that passes through the center is called:

a) Diameter b) Secant c) Tangent d) Arc

The length of an arc is proportional to the:

a) Diameter of the circle b) Radius of the circle c) Chord of the circle d) Tangent of the circle

If two circles are concentric, then:

a) They have the same radius b) They have different radii c) They have different diameters d) They do not touch each other

If the diameter of a circle is doubled, what happens to its circumference?

a) It is doubled b) It is halved c) It is quadrupled d) It remains the same

What is the equation of a circle with center (3, -2) and radius 5?

a) (x - 3)^2 + (y + 2)^2 = 25 b) (x + 3)^2 + (y - 2)^2 = 5 c) (x - 3)^2 + (y + 2)^2 = 5 d) (x + 3)^2 + (y - 2)^2 = 25

The line that intersects a circle at two distinct points is called a:

a) Tangent b) Arc c) Chord d) Secant

If two chords intersect inside a circle, the product of the segments of one chord is equal to the product of the segments of the other chord. This is known as:

a) The secant-secant theorem b) The tangent-tangent theorem c) The chord intersection theorem d) The intersecting chords theorem

What is the relationship between a secant and a tangent line intersecting a circle?

a) They are parallel b) They are perpendicular c) They are intersecting lines d) There is no relationship

A circle with radius 6 cm is inscribed in an equilateral triangle. What is the perimeter of the triangle?

a) 6 cm b) 12 cm c) 18 cm d) 36 cm

What is the measure of an inscribed angle that intersects an arc of 120°?

a) 60° b) 90° c) 120° d) 180°

If a tangent and a chord intersect at a point on the circle, then:

a) The tangent is bisected by the chord b) The chord is bisected by the tangent c) The chord is trisected by the tangent d) There is no relationship between the tangent and the chord

If two circles intersect at exactly one point, they are called:

a) Concentric circles b) Tangent circles c) Secant circles d) Disjoint circles

The radius of a circle is perpendicular to the tangent line at the point of contact.

a) True b) False

The minor arc of a circle is always less than 180°.

a) True b) False

The area of a semicircle is half the area of the corresponding circle.

a) True b) False

If two circles are congruent, then their radii are equal. a) True b) False

If a tangent line and a secant line intersect at a point on the circle, then the product of the segments of the secant is equal to the square of the tangent segment.

a) True b) False

In a circle, the length of the tangent segment is equal to the radius.

a) True b) False

The diameter of a circle is always longer than any chord.

a) True b) False

If two circles are congruent, then they have the same circumference.

a) True b) False

The sum of the measures of the interior angles of a hexagon inscribed in a circle is 360°.

a) True b) False

If two circles intersect at exactly two points, they are called concentric circles.

a) True b) False

A circle can have a negative radius.

a) True b) False

The area of a circle is equal to the square of its circumference.

a) True b) False

The chord of a circle that passes through the center is called the diameter.

a) True b) False 29. If two circles have the same radius, they are congruent. a) True b) False

The radius of a circle is always equal to half of its diameter.

a) True b) False

If two circles have the same circumference, they are congruent.

a) True b) False

The radius of a circle can be a decimal number.

a) True b) False

The length of an arc is measured in degrees.

a) True b) False

The area of a circle is proportional to the square of its radius.

a) True b) False

The circumference of a circle is proportional to its radius.

a) True b) False

The radius of a circle is half the length of its diameter.

a) True b) False

A circle can have more than one diameter.

a) True b) False

If two circles are congruent, they have the same area.

a) True b) False

The diameter of a circle is the longest chord.

a) True b) False

A tangent line can intersect a circle at more than one point.

a) True b) False

If two circles have the same area, they are congruent.

a) True b) False 42. The radius of a circle can be shorter than its diameter. a) True b) False

The area of a circle is always greater than its circumference.

a) True b) False

The circumference of a circle is always greater than its diameter.

a) True b) False

The length of an arc is equal to the circumference of the circle.

a) True b) False

The circumference of a circle is equal to the product of its radius and diameter.

a) True b) False

The radius of a circle is always equal to the length of the tangent line.

a) True b) False

A circle can have an area of zero.

a) True b) False

The intersection of two congruent circles results in a figure with mirror symmetry.

a) True b) False

Chapter 11 Constructions

In constructing an angle of 45 degrees, which of the following tools would you use?

a) Compass b) Protractor c) Ruler d) Divider

Which of the following is not a construction of a triangle?

a) Constructing an equilateral triangle b) Constructing a right-angled triangle c) Constructing an isosceles triangle d) Constructing an acute-angled triangle

What is the construction method for bisecting an angle?

a) Trisecting b) Dividing c) Constructing perpendiculars d) Folding

In constructing a perpendicular line, which of the following tools would you use?

a) Compass b) Protractor c) Ruler d) Divider

What is the construction method for drawing a line parallel to a given line?

a) Trisecting b) Dividing c) Constructing perpendiculars d) Offset method

How many constructions are required to make a square?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

Which of the following is not a construction method for bisecting a line segment?

a) Dividing the line segment into two halves b) Constructing perpendiculars at the endpoints and connecting them c) Using a compass to find the midpoint of the line segment d) Folding the line segment in half

What is the construction method for drawing a line perpendicular to a given line from a point not on the l ine?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Tangent method d) Folding

In constructing a line segment of a given length, which of the following tools would you use? a) Compass b) Protractor c) Ruler d) Divider

What is the construction method for drawing a line perpendicular to a given line from a point on the lin e?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Tangent method d) Folding

Which of the following is not a construction of a quadrilateral?

a) Constructing a square b) Constructing a parallelogram c) Constructing a trapezium d) Constructing a rectangle

A cylic quadrilateral is a quadrilateral in which:

a) All sides are equal b) Opposite sides are equal c) Diagonals are equal d) All vertices lie on a circle

The measure of each interior angle of an equilateral triangle is:

a) 45 degrees b) 60 degrees c) 90 degrees d) 120 degrees

What is the construction method for drawing an equilateral triangle?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting angles c) Dividing sides d) Using a compass to draw circles

In constructing a tangent to a circle, which of the following tools would you use?

a) Compass b) Protractor c) Ruler d) Divider

A parallelogram is a quadrilateral in which:

a) All sides are equal b) Opposite sides are equal c) All angles are right angles d) Two sides are equal and parallel

What is the construction method for drawing a parallel line to a given line through a point not on the lin e?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Offset method d) Folding

What is the construction method for drawing a perpendicular bisector of a line segment?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Tangent method d) Folding

What is the construction method for drawing a perpendicular from a point outside a line to the line?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Offset method d) Folding

In constructing a trapezium, what are the requirements for its sides?

a) All sides should be equal b) Two sides should be parallel c) One side should be longer than the other d) Sides should form a right angle

The sum of the angles of a triangle is:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

What is the construction method for drawing an isosceles triangle?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting angles c) Dividing sides d) Using a compass to draw circles

In constructing a rhombus, what are the requirements for its sides?

a) All sides should be equal b) Two sides should be parallel c) One side should be longer than the other d) Sides should form a right angle

What is the construction method for drawing a tangent to a circle from an external point?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Offset method d) Folding

The sum of the angles of a quadrilateral is:

a) 90 degrees b) 180 degrees c) 270 degrees d) 360 degrees

In constructing a rectangle, what are the requirements for its sides?

a) All sides should be equal b) Two sides should be parallel c) One side should be longer than the other d) Sides should form a right angle

A scalene triangle is a triangle in which:

a) All sides are equal b) Two sides are equal c) All angles are right angles d) All sides and angles are different

What is the construction method for drawing two parallel lines?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting angles c) Using a ruler and compass d) Folding

In constructing a pentagon, how many angles are formed?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the construction method for drawing a line segment of three times the given line segment?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Dividing by three d) Folding

What is the construction method for constructing a right-angled triangle?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting angles c) Dividing sides d) Using a compass to draw circles

In constructing a circle, which of the following tools would you use?

a) Compass b) Protractor c) Ruler d) Divider

What is the construction method for drawing the three medians of a triangle?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting angles c) Dividing sides d) Connecting the midpoints of the sides

What is the construction method for drawing a line segment of half the given line segment?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Dividing by two d) Folding

In constructing a hexagon, how many angles are formed?

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6

What is the construction method for drawing a line segment equal to the sum of two line segments?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting angles c) Dividing by two d) Combining two line segments

A quadrilateral having all angles equal to 90 degrees is called a:

a) Rectangle b) Parallelogram c) Rhombus d) Trapezium

What is the construction method for drawing a line segment that is twice the given line segment?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Dividing by two d) Folding

In constructing an octagon, how many angles are formed?

a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8

What is the construction method for drawing a line segment equal to the difference of two line segmen ts?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting angles c) Dividing by two d) Subtracting one line segment from the other

A quadrilateral having both pairs of opposite sides equal and parallel is called a:

a) Rectangle b) Parallelogram c) Rhombus d) Trapezium

What is the construction method for drawing a line segment that is one-third the given line segment?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Dividing by three d) Folding

In constructing a decagon, how many angles are formed?

a) 8 b) 9 c) 10 d) 11

What is the construction method for drawing a line segment equal to the product of two line segments ?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting angles c) Dividing by two d) Multiplying the two line segments

A triangle having all sides equal is called an:

a) Equilateral triangle b) Isosceles triangle c) Scalene triangle d) Right-angled triangle

What is the construction method for drawing a line segment that is one-fourth the given line segment?

a) Constructing perpendiculars b) Bisecting c) Dividing by four d) Folding

Chapter 12 Heron's Formula

The formula for the area of a triangle using Heron's formula is:

a) A = 1/2 × base × height b) A = (a + b + c)/2 c) A = √s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c) d) A = πr²

What does 's' represent in Heron's formula?

a) The length of the base of the triangle b) The height of the triangle c) The semi-perimeter of the triangle d) The area of the triangle

In a triangle with sides of lengths 5 cm, 12 cm, and 13 cm, what is the area using Heron's formula?

a) 30 cm² b) 24 cm² c) 60 cm² d) 36 cm²

A triangle has sides measuring 8 cm, 15 cm, and 17 cm. What is the length of its altitude to the side of l ength 8 cm?

a) 6 cm b) 7.5 cm c) 8.5 cm d) 10 cm

If the area of a triangle is 24 cm² and its base is 6 cm, what is the length of its altitude?

a) 4 cm b) 8 cm c) 12 cm d) 16 cm

The formula for the perimeter of a triangle using Heron's formula is:

a) P = a + b + c b) P = 2(a + b + c) c) P = a × b × c d) P =√2(a + b + c)

What is the area of an equilateral triangle with a side length of 9 cm using Heron's formula?

a) 18√3 cm² b) 27 cm² c) 36√3 cm² d) 54 cm²

If the sides of a triangle measure 3 cm, 4 cm, and 5 cm, what is the length of its altitude to the side of le ngth 5 cm? a) 2 cm b) 3 cm c) 4 cm d) 5 cm

In a triangle with sides measuring 9 cm, 12 cm, and 15 cm, what is the semi-perimeter?

a) 30 cm b) 18 cm c) 21 cm d) 36 cm

The Heron's formula is named after:

a) Euclid b) Pythagoras c) Archimedes d) Hero of Alexandria

If the three sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 6 cm, and 7 cm, what is the area using Heron's formula?

a) 6 cm² b) 8 cm² c) 10 cm² d) 12 cm²

The altitude in Heron's formula represents:

a) The height of the triangle b) The length of the base of the triangle c) The distance from the vertex to the opposite side d) The perimeter of the triangle

What is the area of a triangle with sides measuring 4 cm, 7 cm, and 9 cm using Heron's formula?

a) 12 cm² b) 14 cm² c) 16 cm² d) 18 cm²

A triangle has sides measuring 3 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm. What is the length of its altitude to the side of l ength 10 cm?

a) 2 cm b) 4 cm c) 6 cm d) 8 cm

If the area of a triangle is 42 cm² and its base is 7 cm, what is the length of its altitude?

a) 6 cm b) 7 cm c) 8 cm d) 9 cm

The formula for the semi-perimeter of a triangle using Heron's formula is:

a) s = a + b + c b) s = 2(a + b + c) c) s = √2(a + b + c) d) s = (a + b + c)/2

What is the area of an equilateral triangle with a side length of 12 cm using Heron's formula?

a) 36√3 cm² b) 48 cm² c) 72√3 cm² d) 108 cm²

If the sides of a triangle measure 6 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm, what is the length of its altitude to the side of length 10 cm?

a) 4 cm b) 5 cm c) 7 cm d) 8 cm

In a triangle with sides measuring 7 cm, 24 cm, and 25 cm, what is the semi-perimeter?

a) 56 cm b) 28 cm c) 42 cm d) 52 cm

Given a triangle with sides measuring 13 cm, 14 cm, and 15 cm, what is the area using Heron's formul a?

a) 56 cm² b) 84 cm² c) 91 cm² d) 105 cm²

The Heron's formula is used to calculate the area of which shape?

a) Square b) Circle c) Rectangle d) Triangle

If a triangle has sides measuring 10 cm, 12 cm, and 14 cm, what is the length of its altitude to the side of length 14 cm?

a) 6 cm b) 8 cm c) 10 cm d) 12 cm

What is the area of a triangle with sides measuring 6 cm, 8 cm, and 10 cm using Heron's formula?

a) 12 cm² b) 24 cm² c) 30 cm² d) 48 cm²

A triangle has sides measuring 7 cm, 10 cm, and 12 cm. What is the length of its altitude to the side of length 12 cm?

a) 4 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 10 cm

If the area of a triangle is 60 cm² and its base is 12 cm, what is the length of its altitude?

a) 4 cm b) 6 cm c) 8 cm d) 10 cm

The formula for the perimeter of a triangle using Heron's formula is:

a) P = a + b + c b) P = 2(a + b + c) c) P = a × b × c d) P = √2(a + b + c)

What is the area of an equilateral triangle with a side length of 15 cm using Heron's formula?

a) 54√3 cm² b) 75 cm² c) 108√3 cm² d) 135 cm²

If the sides of a triangle measure 8 cm, 15 cm, and 17 cm, what is the length of its altitude to the side

of length 17 cm? a) 6 cm b) 7.5 cm c) 8.5 cm d) 10 cm

In a triangle with sides measuring 12 cm, 16 cm, and 20 cm, what is the semi-perimeter?

a) 46 cm b) 48 cm c) 50 cm d) 52 cm

Given a triangle with sides measuring 14 cm, 15 cm, and 19 cm, what is the area using Heron's formul

a? a) 84 cm² b) 105 cm² c) 108 cm² d) 112 cm²

In Heron's formula, what is 'a', 'b', and 'c'?

a) The lengths of the sides of the triangle b) The angles of the triangle c) The area of the triangle d) The perimeter of the triangle

The formula for the area of a triangle using Heron's formula is:

a) A = 1/2 × base × height b) A = (a + b + c)/2 c) A = √s(s-a)(s-b)(s-c) d) A = πr²

What does 's' represent in Heron's formula?

a) The length of the base of the triangle b) The height of the triangle c) The semi-perimeter of the triangle d) The area of the triangle

In a triangle with sides measuring 10 cm, 24 cm, and 26 cm, what is the area using Heron's formula?

a) 80 cm² b) 96 cm² c) 120 cm² d) 144 cm²

Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes

The lateral surface area of a cone is given by:

a) πrl b) πr² c) 2πr d) πr² + πl

The total surface area of a sphere is given by:

a) 4πr² b) πr² c) 2πr d) 3πr²

The curved surface area of a cylinder is given by:

a) 2πr b) πr² c) 2πrh d) 2πr(h + r)

The base area of a pyramid is given by:

a) bh b) ½bh c) πr² d) 2πrh

The curved surface area of a cone is given by:

a) πrl b) πr² c) 2πr d) πr² + πl

The total surface area of a hemisphere is given by:

a) 2πr b) 4πr² c) πr² d) 3πr²

The total surface area of a cube is given by:

a) 6a² b) a³ c) 4πr² d) 2πr

The total surface area of a cuboid is given by:

a) 2lw + 2lh + 2wh b) 6l² c) 4πr² d) 2πr

The lateral surface area of a cylinder is given by:

a) 2πrh b) πr² + πl c) 2πr d) πr²

The area of the base of a cone is given by:

a) bh b) ½bh c) πr² d) 2πrh

The area of the base of a pyramid is given by:

a) πr² b) ½bh c) bh d) 2πrh

The total surface area of a cone is given by:

a) πrl b) πr² c) 2πr d) πr² + πl

The total surface area of a cylinder is given by:

a) 2πrh b) πr² + πl c) 2πr d) πr²

The curved surface area of a hemisphere is given by:

a) 2πr b) 4πr² c) πr² d) 3πr²

If the slant height of a cone is 10 cm and the radius of the base is 6 cm, then its curved surface area is :

a) 60π cm² b) 120π cm² c) 75π cm² d) 100π cm²

If the radius of a cylinder is 7 cm and height is 10 cm, then its total surface area is:

a) 474 cm² b) 500 cm² c) 526 cm² d) 538 cm²

The total surface area of a cuboid with length 8 cm, breadth 5 cm, and height 6 cm is:

a) 264 cm² b) 282 cm² c) 320 cm² d) 512 cm²

The area of the base of a pyramid with base edges 12 cm, 9 cm, and 15 cm is:

a) 108 cm² b) 90 cm² c) 72 cm² d) 60 cm²

If the slant height of a cone is 10 cm and the radius is 4 cm, find its curved surface area (in terms of π ):

a) 40π cm² b) 80π cm² c) 120π cm² d) 160π cm²

If the height of a cylinder is 14 cm and the radius is 5 cm, find its total surface area:

a) 580 cm² b) 528 cm² c) 460 cm² d) 642 cm²

The total surface area of a cube with edge length 7 cm is:

a) 294 cm² b) 378 cm² c) 392 cm² d) 441 cm²

The total surface area of a cylinder with radius 3 cm and height 8 cm is:

a) 230 cm² b) 266 cm² c) 300 cm² d) 336 cm²

The curved surface area of a cone with slant height 12 cm and radius 5 cm is:

a) 60π cm² b) 144π cm² c) 150π cm² d) 156π cm²

The lateral surface area of a cylinder with radius 6 cm and height 10 cm is:

a) 360 cm² b) 420 cm² c) 480 cm² d) 600 cm²

The total surface area of a cuboid with length 10 cm, breadth 6 cm, and height 5 cm is:

a) 230 cm² b) 250 cm² c) 280 cm² d) 300 cm²

The area of the base of a pyramid with base edges 9 cm, 12 cm, and 15 cm is:

a) 54 cm² b) 60 cm² c) 72 cm² d) 90 cm²

The curved surface area of a hemisphere with radius 4 cm is:

a) 32π cm² b) 64π cm² c) 80π cm² d) 96π cm²

The total surface area of a cone with slant height 8 cm and radius 3 cm is:

a) 64π cm² b) 78π cm² c) 82π cm² d) 86π cm²

The lateral surface area of a cylinder with radius 5 cm and height 12 cm is:

a) 310 cm² b) 340 cm² c) 380 cm² d) 420 cm²

The total surface area of a pyramid with base edges 8 cm, 6 cm, and 10 cm is:

a) 184 cm² b) 200 cm² c) 216 cm² d) 240 cm²

The curved surface area of a hemisphere with radius 7 cm is:

a) 98π cm² b) 154π cm² c) 196π cm² d) 308π cm²

The total surface area of a cone with slant height 13 cm and radius 6 cm is:

a) 164π cm² b) 208π cm² c) 236π cm² d) 262π cm²

The lateral surface area of a cylinder with radius 4 cm and height 15 cm is:

a) 300 cm² b) 360 cm² c) 420 cm² d) 480 cm²

The total surface area of a cuboid with length 12 cm, breadth 9 cm, and height 7 cm is:

a) 414 cm² b) 448 cm² c) 504 cm² d) 560 cm²

The area of the base of a pyramid with base edges 14 cm, 18 cm, and 20 cm is:

a) 196 cm² b) 252 cm² c) 306 cm² d) 360 cm²

The curved surface area of a hemisphere with radius 5 cm is:

a) 50π cm² b) 100π cm² c) 125π cm² d) 150π cm²

The total surface area of a cone with slant height 11 cm and radius 4 cm is:

a) 56π cm² b) 68π cm² c) 78π cm² d) 92π cm²

The lateral surface area of a cylinder with radius 8 cm and height 18 cm is:

a) 432 cm² b) 504 cm² c) 576 cm² d) 648 cm

Chapter 14 Statistics

What is the median of the following data set: 3, 5, 7, 9, 11?

a) 5 b) 7 c) 9 d) 11

What is the range of the data set: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9?

a) 1 b) 4 c) 8 d) 9

What is the mode of the following data set: 2, 4, 6, 6, 8, 10?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

The mean of a data set is 10. If one number is removed, the mean becomes 12. What was the number

removed? a) 10 b) 11 c) 12 d) 13

What is the probability of getting a head when flipping a fair coin?

a) 0.25 b) 0.33 c) 0.5 d) 0.75

The standard deviation measures:

a) The sum of the data b) The average of the data c) The spread of the data d) The mode of the data

Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?

a) Mean b) Median c) Range d) Mode

What is the formula for finding the mean of a data set?

a) Sum of the data divided by the number of data points b) Product of the data divided by the number of data points c) Sum of the data multiplied by the number of data points d) Difference of the data divided by the number of data points

The mode of a data set can be: a) More than one value b) Equal to the mean c) Greater than the median d) All of the above

In a class of 30 students, 15 are girls. What percentage of the class are boys?

a) 30% b) 35% c) 50% d) 65%

Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?

a) Height b) Temperature c) Shoe size d) Favorite color

If the probability of an event A is 0.8, what is the probability of its complement?

a) 0.1 b) 0.2 c) 0.8 d) 1.0

Which of the following is an example of discrete data?

a) Time b) Age c) Temperature d) Number of siblings

What is the mode of the data set: 2, 4, 4, 6, 6, 6, 8, 10?

a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8

The mean of a data set is affected by:

a) Adding a constant to each data point b) Subtracting a constant from each data point c) Multiplying each data point by a constant d) All of the above

Which measure of central tendency is best for data with outliers?

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Range

Which of the following is a continuous random variable?

a) Number of cars in a parking lot b) Number of people in a room c) Temperature d) Number of pets owned by a person

If a fair six-sided die is rolled, what is the probability of rolling an odd number?

a) 1/6 b) 2/6 c) 3/6 d) 4/6

The interquartile range is a measure of:

a) Spread of data b) Central tendency c) Normal distribution d) Probability

In a box containing red and green balls, 3/5 of the balls are red and the rest are green. What is the pro bability of picking a green ball?

a) 1/5 b) 2/5 c) 3/5 d) 4/5

If the mean is greater than the median, the data set is:

a) Positively skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Symmetrical d) Impossible to determine

The range of a data set is affected by:

a) Adding a constant to each data point b) Subtracting a constant from each data point c) Multiplying each data point by a constant d) None of the above

The standard deviation is affected by: a) Adding a constant to each data point b) Subtracting a constant from each data point c) Multiplying each data point by a constant d) All of the above

What is the probability of rolling a prime number on a fair six-sided die?

a) 1/6 b) 2/6 c) 3/6 d) 4/6

The mode of a data set is:

a) Always the smallest value b) Always the largest value c) The value that occurs most frequently d) The value in the middle of the data set

Which of the following is a measure of spread? a) Mean b) Median c) Range d) Mode

In a class of 35 students, 20 are boys. What percentage of the class are girls?

a) 30% b) 35% c) 50% d) 65%

The probability of an impossible event is:

a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) Undefined

What is the mode of the data set: 1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 6, 6?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 4 d) 6

If two dice are rolled, what is the probability of getting a sum of 7?

a) 1/6 b) 2/6 c) 3/6 d) 4/6

What is the formula for finding the range of a data set?

a) Difference between the maximum and minimum values b) Sum of the data divided by the number of data points c) Product of the data divided by the number of data points d) Difference of the data divided by the number of data points

The mean of a data set is affected by:

a) Adding a constant to each data point b) Subtracting a constant from each data point c) Multiplying each data point by a constant d) None of the above

Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?

a) Gender b) Favorite ice cream flavor c) Temperature d) Eye color

If the probability of an event A is 0.4, what is the probability of its complement?

a) 0.4 b) 0.6 c) 0.8 d) 1.0

The standard deviation measures the:

a) Sum of the data b) Average of the data c) Spread of the data d) Mode of the data

What is the median of the following data set: 2, 4, 6, 8, 10?

a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10

What is the mode of the data set: 1, 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7?

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

What is the median of the following data set: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10?

a) 4.5 b) 5 c) 6 d) 7

What is the probability of rolling an even number on a fair six-sided die?

a) 1/6 b) 2/6 c) 3/6 d) 4/6

The interquartile range is calculated by:

a) Subtracting the median from the maximum value b) Subtracting the minimum value from the maximum value c) Subtracting the lower quartile from the upper quartile d) Adding the median to the maximum value

In a box containing red, green, and blue balls, 1/4 of the balls are red, 1/3 are green, and the rest are blue. What is the probability of picking a blue ball?

a) 1/4 b) 1/3 c) 1/2 d) 2/3

The variance of a data set is the square of the:

a) Mean b) Median c) Mode d) Standard deviation

Which of the following is a measure of central tendency?

a) Range b) Standard deviation c) Mode d) Variance

Chapter 15 Probability

In a deck of 52 playing cards, what is the probability of drawing a heart or a club?

a) 1/13 b) 13/52 c) 26/52 d) 1/4

A fair die is rolled. What is the probability of getting an even number?

a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/6 d) 1/4

A bag contains 6 red balls and 4 blue balls. What is the probability of drawing a red ball?

a) 6/10 b) 4/10 c) 1/2 d) 3/5

A coin is tossed three times. What is the probability of getting exactly two heads?

a) 1/8 b) 3/8 c) 3/4 d) 1/4

In a class, 20 students play football, 15 play cricket, and 12 play both sports. What is the probability of s electing a student who plays at least one of these sports?

a) 47/60 b) 19/30 c) 1/2 d) 17/20

A bag contains 5 black balls and 4 white balls. If two balls are drawn without replacement, what is the p robability of getting one black and one white ball?

a) 4/9 b) 1/2 c) 20/36 d) 2/3

In a bowl of colored balls, 3 are red, 5 are blue, and 2 are green. If a ball is drawn at random, what is th e probability of not getting a green ball?

a) 2/10 b) 8/10 c) 1/5 d) 4/5

A family has three children. What is the probability that they have at least one girl?

a) 1/4 b) 3/4 c) 7/8 d) 1/2

A bag contains 5 red balls, 4 green balls, and 3 blue balls. If a ball is drawn at random, what is the prob ability of getting a red or a green ball?

a) 9/12 b) 7/12 c) 8/12 d) 3/4

A fair coin is tossed four times. What is the probability of getting at most two tails?

a) 1/4 b) 5/16 c) 9/16 d) 7/16

An unbiased die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting a sum less than 5?

a) 1/6 b) 1/4 c) 1/3 d) 1/2

In a box, there are 10 red balls, 4 green balls, and 6 blue balls. If a ball is drawn at random, what is th e probability of getting a red or a green ball?

a) 14/20 b) 10/20 c) 8/20 d) 7/20

A deck of 52 playing cards is shuffled well. What is the probability of drawing a diamond or a spade?

a) 1/13 b) 1/4 c) 26/52 d) 1/2

In a bag, there are 7 red balls, 5 blue balls, and 6 green balls. If a ball is drawn at random, what is the probability of not getting a red ball?

a) 7/18 b) 12/18 c) 11/18 d) 14/18

A class has 35 students, out of which 15 are boys. If a student is selected at random, what is the prob ability of selecting a boy?

a) 2/7 b) 3/7 c) 12/35 d) 15/35

A bag contains 8 black balls and 5 white balls. If two balls are drawn with replacement, what is the pro bability of getting two black balls?

a) 8/13 b) 2/5 c) 4/13 d) 1/5

A bag contains 7 red balls, 4 green balls, and 3 blue balls. If a ball is drawn at random, what is the pro bability of getting a red or a blue ball?

a) 7/14 b) 10/14 c) 8/14 d) 4/7

Two dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting a sum of 7?

a) 1/6 b) 1/12 c) 1/4 d) 1/36

A jar contains 10 red marbles, 8 blue marbles, and 2 green marbles. If two marbles are drawn without replacement, what is the probability of getting two blue marbles?

a) 4/35 b) 8/45 c) 2/30 d) 8/40

In a bowl of colored balls, 4 are red, 6 are blue, and 5 are green. If a ball is drawn at random, what is t he probability of getting a blue or a green ball?

a) 11/15 b) 10/15 c) 9/15 d) 2/3

A bag contains 6 white balls and 3 black balls. If two balls are drawn without replacement, what is the probability of getting two white balls?

a) 6/9 b) 1/3 c) 5/9 d) 1/2

In a class of 40 students, 18 play football, 12 play cricket, and 8 play both sports. What is the probabili ty of selecting a student who plays neither of these sports?

a) 1/4 b) 7/10 c) 3/20 d) 19/40

A jar contains 25 red marbles, 10 blue marbles, and 5 green marbles. If a marble is drawn at random, what is the probability of getting a blue or a green marble?

a) 15/40 b) 1/2 c) 1/4 d) 15/30

A coin is tossed four times. What is the probability of getting exactly three heads?

a) 1/16 b) 1/2 c) 3/16 d) 1/4

In a deck of 52 playing cards, what is the probability of drawing a heart or a spade?

a) 1/4 b) 1/2 c) 26/52 d) 13/26

A fair die is rolled twice. What is the probability of getting a sum of 8?

a) 1/6 b) 1/9 c) 1/12 d) 5/36

A bag contains 6 red balls, 4 blue balls, and 3 green balls. If a ball is drawn at random, what is the pro bability of getting a red or a green ball?

a) 9/13 b) 10/13 c) 7/13 d) 5/13

Two dice are rolled. What is the probability of getting a sum greater than 10?

a) 1/36 b) 1/4 c) 1/3 d) 1/6

A jar contains 15 red marbles, 12 blue marbles, and 8 green marbles. If two marbles are drawn withou t replacement, what is the probability of getting one red and one blue marble?

a) 45/80 b) 3/8 c) 2/5 d) 9/20

In a bowl of colored balls, 5 are red, 4 are blue, and 3 are green. If a ball is drawn at random, what is t he probability of not getting a blue ball?

a) 5/12 b) 8/12 c) 9/12 d) 7/12

A bag contains 8 black balls and 5 white balls. If two balls are drawn without replacement, what is the probability of getting two black balls?

a) 8/13 b) 32/65 c) 4/13 d) 4/5

In a class of 30 students, 20 play cricket, 15 play football, and 10 play both sports. What is the probabi lity of selecting a student who plays either cricket or football?

a) 7/15 b) 1/2 c) 11/15 d) 5/6